Ch 22 Flashcards
1
Q
CNS pathologys have sometimes effect very particular areas of the brain or functions of the brain making characteristic features of a certain pathology what is the referred to as
A
selective variability
2
Q
what are the types of neuronal injury
A
Reversible, irreversible
3
Q
a neuronal injury in which there has not been cellular necrosis is refered to as
A
Reversible neuronal injury
4
Q
a neuronal injury with swelling of the soma and displacement of the nissl substance is what type of neuronal injury
A
Reversible neuronal injury
5
Q
the displacement of nissl substance is called what
A
central chromatolysis
6
Q
a neuronal injury that has cell necrosis is referred to as what
A
irreversible neuronal injury
7
Q
shrinking of the cell bodies or soma is referred to as
A
red nucleus
8
Q
what is axonal swelling called
A
spheroids
9
Q
eosinophilia may also be referred to as
A
red nucleus
10
Q
eosinophila, and a loss of nucleolus and nissl bodies causing cerebral swelling and spherioids are charicteristic of what type of neuronal injury
A
Irreversible neuronal injury
11
Q
what does minimal fibrosis following CNS injury
A
astrocytes
12
Q
what cells are affected in demyelinating disorders of the CNS having enlarged nucleus
A
oligodendrocytes
13
Q
what are the microglia of the CNS
A
Phagocytes
14
Q
what lines the venticles/cord and may involve the coroid plexus
A
ependymal cells
15
Q
negri bodies are common from what virus
A
Rabies
16
Q
owl’s eye are common from what virus
A
cytomegalovirus
17
Q
lewy bodies are found with what pathology
A
parkinson disease
18
Q
B-amyloid plaques and tau proteins are found with what pathology
A
Alzheimers disease
19
Q
age related accumulation of lipids is called what
A
lipofuscin
20
Q
a breakdown of the BBB with cerebral edema is called what
A
Vasogenic cerebral edema
21
Q
neuronal/glial membrane injury with cerebral edema is called what
A
cytotoxic cerebral edema
22
Q
what are the characteristic findings with cerebral edema
A
flattened gyri, narrowed, sulci, ventricular compression, and soft texture
23
Q
the altered flow or resorption is called what
A
hydrocephalus
24
Q
cranial enlargement from hydrocephalus occurs at what ages
A
1-2 years old
25
if your greater that 2 with hydrocephalus what will occur
increases ICP, and ventricular enlargement
26
what form of hydrocephalus is unilateral (localized)
noncommnicating
27
what from of hydrocephalus is bilateral
communicating
28
what is the MC treatment for hydrocephelus
shunting
29
expansion of the ventricular system secondary to neurodegeneration or infarct rather than an increase of CSF it is referred to as
hydrocephalus ex vacuo
30
the sift of brain or vasculature across dura or through the foreman magnum is called
brain herniation
31
what are the 3 types of brain herniation
subfalcine (cingulate), Transtentorial (uncinate), and Tonsillar
32
what is the MC type of brain herniation
subfalcine (cingulate) brain herniation
33
a brain herniation under the falx cerebri is what type of brain herniation
subfalcine (cingulate) brain herniation
34
temporal lobe compression against the anterior tentorium
transtentorial (uncinate) brain herniation
35
a duret hemorrhage is found with what pathology
a transtentorial (uncinate) brain herniation
36
the cerebellar tonsils being pushed through the foreman magnum is found with what pathology
Tonsillar brain herniation
37
"flame shaped" hemorrhage of the pons is referred to as
a Duret hemorrhage
38
type 1 Arnold-Chiari malformation may cause what symptoms characteristically. and what age group is it found in
cervical spine pain, headaches in adults
39
type 2 Arnold-Chiari malformation is more severe what population is it more common in
infants
40
the downward extension of the cerebellar tonsils through the foreman magnum is known as
Arnold-Chiari malformation
41
what are the main mechanisms of cerebrovasucular disease
Thrombotic occlusions, emolic occlusions, and vascular rupture
42
what may result as a secondary feature to cerebrovascular disease
Stroke or a TIA
43
what does TIA stand for
Transient ischemic attack
44
what is the accromnym used to check for stroke
FAST
45
what do the letters of FAST stand for
Face, Arms, Speech, and Time
46
ischemia/hypoxia to the brain tissue results in what
liquefactive necrosis (infarct)
47
a decrease of 02 partial pressure (such as from high altitude) or a decrease is carrying capacity ( such as CO2 poisoning) are characteristics of
functional hypoxia
48
hypotensions, occlusion, or a chokehold are referred to as what? and what may they cause
Ischemia, may lease to TIA, or Stroke (if effects last longer than 24hrs)
49
in severe global cerebral ischemia what may result
widespread neuronal death
cerebral edema
red neurons
Coma
50
what limits injury in focal cerebral ischemia in superficial tissues
Collateral blood flow
51
what is the MC form of cardiac mural thrombi causing focal cerebral ischemia
Emboli
52
the spontaneous interparenchymal hemorrage (commonly referred to as a cerebral microbleed) in older adulthood is what patholgy
primary brain parenchymal hemorrhage
53
what is the most important risk factor for primary brain parenchymal hemorrhage
hypertension
54
clinically how severe are primary brain parenchymal hemorrhages
widely variable from clinically silent(small) to devastating(large)
55
what are the MC locations for a primary brain perenchymal hemorrhage
thalamus, pons, cerebellum
56
a ruptured sacular (berry) aneurysm will result in what patholgy
a subarachnoid hemorage
57
an abrupt onset of "the worst headache ive ever had" is a major symptom of what
subarachnoid hemorrhage
58
a "worm=like" tangle of arteries and veins is known as a
Arteriovenous malformation
59
an arteriovenous malformation has the presence of 1 or more of what, that causes ischemia by bypassing the capillaries
a fistula
60
what is the MC cerbrovascular malformation with a dangerous high risk of hemorrhage
Arteriovenous malformation
61
who is the most likely to develop Arteriovenous malformation
10-30 year old males with a history of seizures and/or headaches are 2x more likely
62
hypertension weakening the vessel walls leading to rupture is known as what
hypertensive cerebrovacuslar disease
63
a single artery occlusion is known as what
lacunar stroke
64
a ruptured small cerebral vessel, hemorrhage,"slite like cavity" is known as what
a slit hemorrhage
65
global cerebral dysfunction are charecteristic to
acute hypertensive encephalopathy
66
massive parenchymal hemorrhage, lacunar stroke, slit hemorrhage, and acute hypertensive encephalopathy are all caused by
hypertensive cerebrovascualar disease
67
vessel inflammation is known as what
vasculitis
68
systemic, autoimmune vasculitis, fibrinoid necrosis, and small arteries is known as what
polyarteritis nodosa
69
chronic inflammation of multiple parenchymal and subarachnoid vessels is known as what
primary angitisof the CNS
70
are males or females more likely to have CNS trauma
Males
71
what needs to be assessed with CNS trauma
Airway, Breathing, Circulation and disability
72
tissue displacement, vessel disruption, hemorrhage, tissue injury and edema are all descriptive of what
a contusion
73
a contustion at the sit of impact is known as
coup
74
a contustion at the opposite side of impact is know as
countercoup
75
the tearing of cerebral perenchmya, vascular disruption and hemorrhage are descriptive of what
laceration
76
what is movement of 1 region, relative to another
diffuse axonal injury
77
generalized axonal swelling, diffuse white matter damage, angular acceleration and dramatic clinical effects are all symptoms of
a diffuse axonal injury
78
the reversible altered consciousness from head injury in the absence of contusion is known as what
concussion
79
how will neuroimaging studies come back after a concussion
normal but use a rapid CT to asses any possible hemorrhage
80
if a hemorrhage is from an artery in the epideral space what is it called
an epidural hematoma
81
if a hemorrhage is from a vein in the subdural space what is it called
a subdural hematoma
82
what is the MC artery involved with an epidural hematoma
the middle menigeal artery
83
what is the time associated with epidural and subdural hematomas
epidural is rapid and within hours, and a subdural hematoma is slower
84
what is the MC CNS malformation
neural tube defect
85
what is related to folate deficiency during pregnancy
neural tube defect
86
what neural tube defect is a bony defect, and asympotomatic
spina bifida occulta
87
what neural tube defect is extension of CNS through a vertebral defect with lower extremity motor and sensory defect
myelomenigocele
88
what neural tube defect is an absence of brain and bone at the rostral aspect
anencephaly
89
what neural tube defect is a CNS diverticulum though the cranium
encephalocele
90
what rare spinal cord abnormality is abnormal widening of the central canal
hydromyelia
91
what spinal cord abnormality is a cyst within the cord
a syringomyelia commonly known as a syrinx
92
what is a non-progressive perinatal brain injury with motor deficits
cerebral palsy
93
what type of infection of the nervous system is from adjacent infection into the epidural space
epidural abcess
94
what type of infection of the nervous stem is an infection of the skull or sinus moving into the subdural space
subdural abcess
95
what is the subarachnoid inflammation of leptomeniges
menigitis
96
what type of meningitis has a very acute onset, headache, nuchal rigidity, photophobia and increased pus
acute pyogenic (bacterial) meningitis
97
headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia together are refered to as what
meningism
98
what type of menigitis is self limiting
aseptic (viral) meningitis
99
what are the types of chronic meningitis
tuberculous, and sprichetal
100
what type of parenchyma infection is localized and causes sepsis
bacterial
101
what type of parenchyma infection is diffuse
viral
102
what type of parenchyma infection is both mixed and diffuse with the production of granulomas
fungal
103
what is the MC demyelinating disorder
multiple sclerosis
104
who has an increased risk for multiple sclerosis
young adult females with a family history (15x)
105
what autoimmune disease has very characteristically relapsing-remitting neurological defects. and has distinct white matter plaques
multiple sclerosis
106
what antigen serotype is well established for multiple sclerosis
HLA-DR2
107
unilateral vision impairment (diplopia), motor/sensory impairments of the limbs, bowel/bladder/sexual dysfunction, and seizures are all highly variable clinical features of what pathology
multiple sclerosis
108
what nutritional/metabolic disorder is very characteristically related to chronic alcoholics
Thiamine deficiency
109
what vitamin is thiamine deficiency
B1
110
what vitamin is cobalamin deficiency related to
B12
111
what nutritional/metabolic disorder is related to demylination, and degeneration of the spinal cord
cobalamin
112
what nutritional/metabolic disorder mimics hypoxia with the hippocamus being the most susceptible
hypoglycemia
113
what nutritional/metabolic disorder is from uncontrolled diabetes melidis
hyperglycemia
114
what is the MC cause of dementia
alzheimer disease
115
what pathology has and insidious onset as well as B-amyloid deposits in the brain
Alzheimer disease
116
what is the MC cause of death for someone with alzheimer disease
lethal pneumonia
117
what pathology are almost all of those with down syndrome likely to get
alzheimer disease
118
with alzheimer disease as age increases what does risk do
increases
119
motor disturbances such as tremor and bradykinesia are common symptoms of what patholgy
parkinson disease
120
what does parkinson disease damage
dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra
121
what characteristic neuronal inclusions have a pale halo appearance and what pathology are they characteristic of
Lewy bodies, parkinson disease
122
is parkinson disease progressive
yes
123
cogwheel rigidity, pill-rolling, mask/poker face, dementia, hallucinations are all symptoms of what pathology
parkinson disease
124
what nuclei does huntington disease effect
Caudate and putamen nuclei
125
what is the movement disorder associated with huntington disease
Chorea (jerking)
126
what disease is a progressive, autosomal dominant, delayed onset and causes dementia
huntington disease
127
what condition has both UMN and LMN death
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
128
who is most at risk of developing amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
males in their 40's
129
what is spared from amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
sensation and extraocular motor
130
what pathology has a asymmetric rapid progressive loss of muscle bulk/strength leading to respiratory paralysis
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
131
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis causes degeneration of what tracts
corticospinal tracts
132
what are the common feature of CNS tumors
headaches, seizures, and increased intercranial pressure
133
what are the categories of glimoas
Astrocytoma, oligodendroglioma, and ependymoma
134
what type of astrocytoma are necrotic, poorly circumscribed, located in the frontal lobe, cause neuroological defects, seizures, and headaches
Diffuse astrocytomas
135
what type of astrocytoma are malignant and have a poor prognosis
diffuse astrocytoma
136
what type of astrocytoma is benign most commonly found in children/young adults and are cerebellar
pilocytic astrocytoma
137
what is the prognosis for a patient with an oligodendroglioma. and where are they commonly found
5-20 years and are commonly cerebral
138
if a ependymom is found in the spinal canal what population is if most likely found
adults
139
what is the MC embryonal neoplasm
medulloblastoma
140
what pediatric brain tumor is highly malignant, exclusively cerebellar and highly radiosensitive
medulloblastoma
141
what might show homer-wright rossettes
medulloblastoma
142
what is a diffuse large B cell lymphoma that is associated with strong immunocompressed individuals (AIDS)
Primary CNS lymphoma
143
what is the MC benighn tumor of adult females
meningioma
144
what CNS tumor is from arachnoid cells that invades surrounding bones
menigioma
