Ch 22 Flashcards
CNS pathologys have sometimes effect very particular areas of the brain or functions of the brain making characteristic features of a certain pathology what is the referred to as
selective variability
what are the types of neuronal injury
Reversible, irreversible
a neuronal injury in which there has not been cellular necrosis is refered to as
Reversible neuronal injury
a neuronal injury with swelling of the soma and displacement of the nissl substance is what type of neuronal injury
Reversible neuronal injury
the displacement of nissl substance is called what
central chromatolysis
a neuronal injury that has cell necrosis is referred to as what
irreversible neuronal injury
shrinking of the cell bodies or soma is referred to as
red nucleus
what is axonal swelling called
spheroids
eosinophilia may also be referred to as
red nucleus
eosinophila, and a loss of nucleolus and nissl bodies causing cerebral swelling and spherioids are charicteristic of what type of neuronal injury
Irreversible neuronal injury
what does minimal fibrosis following CNS injury
astrocytes
what cells are affected in demyelinating disorders of the CNS having enlarged nucleus
oligodendrocytes
what are the microglia of the CNS
Phagocytes
what lines the venticles/cord and may involve the coroid plexus
ependymal cells
negri bodies are common from what virus
Rabies
owl’s eye are common from what virus
cytomegalovirus
lewy bodies are found with what pathology
parkinson disease
B-amyloid plaques and tau proteins are found with what pathology
Alzheimers disease
age related accumulation of lipids is called what
lipofuscin
a breakdown of the BBB with cerebral edema is called what
Vasogenic cerebral edema
neuronal/glial membrane injury with cerebral edema is called what
cytotoxic cerebral edema
what are the characteristic findings with cerebral edema
flattened gyri, narrowed, sulci, ventricular compression, and soft texture
the altered flow or resorption is called what
hydrocephalus
cranial enlargement from hydrocephalus occurs at what ages
1-2 years old
if your greater that 2 with hydrocephalus what will occur
increases ICP, and ventricular enlargement
what form of hydrocephalus is unilateral (localized)
noncommnicating
what from of hydrocephalus is bilateral
communicating
what is the MC treatment for hydrocephelus
shunting
expansion of the ventricular system secondary to neurodegeneration or infarct rather than an increase of CSF it is referred to as
hydrocephalus ex vacuo
the sift of brain or vasculature across dura or through the foreman magnum is called
brain herniation
what are the 3 types of brain herniation
subfalcine (cingulate), Transtentorial (uncinate), and Tonsillar
what is the MC type of brain herniation
subfalcine (cingulate) brain herniation
a brain herniation under the falx cerebri is what type of brain herniation
subfalcine (cingulate) brain herniation
temporal lobe compression against the anterior tentorium
transtentorial (uncinate) brain herniation
a duret hemorrhage is found with what pathology
a transtentorial (uncinate) brain herniation
the cerebellar tonsils being pushed through the foreman magnum is found with what pathology
Tonsillar brain herniation
“flame shaped” hemorrhage of the pons is referred to as
a Duret hemorrhage
type 1 Arnold-Chiari malformation may cause what symptoms characteristically. and what age group is it found in
cervical spine pain, headaches in adults
type 2 Arnold-Chiari malformation is more severe what population is it more common in
infants
the downward extension of the cerebellar tonsils through the foreman magnum is known as
Arnold-Chiari malformation
what are the main mechanisms of cerebrovasucular disease
Thrombotic occlusions, emolic occlusions, and vascular rupture
what may result as a secondary feature to cerebrovascular disease
Stroke or a TIA
what does TIA stand for
Transient ischemic attack
what is the accromnym used to check for stroke
FAST
what do the letters of FAST stand for
Face, Arms, Speech, and Time
ischemia/hypoxia to the brain tissue results in what
liquefactive necrosis (infarct)
a decrease of 02 partial pressure (such as from high altitude) or a decrease is carrying capacity ( such as CO2 poisoning) are characteristics of
functional hypoxia
hypotensions, occlusion, or a chokehold are referred to as what? and what may they cause
Ischemia, may lease to TIA, or Stroke (if effects last longer than 24hrs)
in severe global cerebral ischemia what may result
widespread neuronal death
cerebral edema
red neurons
Coma
what limits injury in focal cerebral ischemia in superficial tissues
Collateral blood flow
what is the MC form of cardiac mural thrombi causing focal cerebral ischemia
Emboli
the spontaneous interparenchymal hemorrage (commonly referred to as a cerebral microbleed) in older adulthood is what patholgy
primary brain parenchymal hemorrhage
what is the most important risk factor for primary brain parenchymal hemorrhage
hypertension
clinically how severe are primary brain parenchymal hemorrhages
widely variable from clinically silent(small) to devastating(large)
what are the MC locations for a primary brain perenchymal hemorrhage
thalamus, pons, cerebellum
a ruptured sacular (berry) aneurysm will result in what patholgy
a subarachnoid hemorage
an abrupt onset of “the worst headache ive ever had” is a major symptom of what
subarachnoid hemorrhage
a “worm=like” tangle of arteries and veins is known as a
Arteriovenous malformation
an arteriovenous malformation has the presence of 1 or more of what, that causes ischemia by bypassing the capillaries
a fistula
what is the MC cerbrovascular malformation with a dangerous high risk of hemorrhage
Arteriovenous malformation
who is the most likely to develop Arteriovenous malformation
10-30 year old males with a history of seizures and/or headaches are 2x more likely
hypertension weakening the vessel walls leading to rupture is known as what
hypertensive cerebrovacuslar disease
a single artery occlusion is known as what
lacunar stroke
a ruptured small cerebral vessel, hemorrhage,”slite like cavity” is known as what
a slit hemorrhage
global cerebral dysfunction are charecteristic to
acute hypertensive encephalopathy
massive parenchymal hemorrhage, lacunar stroke, slit hemorrhage, and acute hypertensive encephalopathy are all caused by
hypertensive cerebrovascualar disease
vessel inflammation is known as what
vasculitis
systemic, autoimmune vasculitis, fibrinoid necrosis, and small arteries is known as what
polyarteritis nodosa
chronic inflammation of multiple parenchymal and subarachnoid vessels is known as what
primary angitisof the CNS
are males or females more likely to have CNS trauma
Males
what needs to be assessed with CNS trauma
Airway, Breathing, Circulation and disability
tissue displacement, vessel disruption, hemorrhage, tissue injury and edema are all descriptive of what
a contusion
a contustion at the sit of impact is known as
coup
a contustion at the opposite side of impact is know as
countercoup
the tearing of cerebral perenchmya, vascular disruption and hemorrhage are descriptive of what
laceration
what is movement of 1 region, relative to another
diffuse axonal injury
generalized axonal swelling, diffuse white matter damage, angular acceleration and dramatic clinical effects are all symptoms of
a diffuse axonal injury
the reversible altered consciousness from head injury in the absence of contusion is known as what
concussion
how will neuroimaging studies come back after a concussion
normal but use a rapid CT to asses any possible hemorrhage
if a hemorrhage is from an artery in the epideral space what is it called
an epidural hematoma
if a hemorrhage is from a vein in the subdural space what is it called
a subdural hematoma
what is the MC artery involved with an epidural hematoma
the middle menigeal artery
what is the time associated with epidural and subdural hematomas
epidural is rapid and within hours, and a subdural hematoma is slower
what is the MC CNS malformation
neural tube defect
what is related to folate deficiency during pregnancy
neural tube defect
what neural tube defect is a bony defect, and asympotomatic
spina bifida occulta
what neural tube defect is extension of CNS through a vertebral defect with lower extremity motor and sensory defect
myelomenigocele
what neural tube defect is an absence of brain and bone at the rostral aspect
anencephaly
what neural tube defect is a CNS diverticulum though the cranium
encephalocele
what rare spinal cord abnormality is abnormal widening of the central canal
hydromyelia
what spinal cord abnormality is a cyst within the cord
a syringomyelia commonly known as a syrinx
what is a non-progressive perinatal brain injury with motor deficits
cerebral palsy
what type of infection of the nervous system is from adjacent infection into the epidural space
epidural abcess
what type of infection of the nervous stem is an infection of the skull or sinus moving into the subdural space
subdural abcess
what is the subarachnoid inflammation of leptomeniges
menigitis
what type of meningitis has a very acute onset, headache, nuchal rigidity, photophobia and increased pus
acute pyogenic (bacterial) meningitis
headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia together are refered to as what
meningism
what type of menigitis is self limiting
aseptic (viral) meningitis
what are the types of chronic meningitis
tuberculous, and sprichetal
what type of parenchyma infection is localized and causes sepsis
bacterial
what type of parenchyma infection is diffuse
viral
what type of parenchyma infection is both mixed and diffuse with the production of granulomas
fungal
what is the MC demyelinating disorder
multiple sclerosis
who has an increased risk for multiple sclerosis
young adult females with a family history (15x)
what autoimmune disease has very characteristically relapsing-remitting neurological defects. and has distinct white matter plaques
multiple sclerosis
what antigen serotype is well established for multiple sclerosis
HLA-DR2
unilateral vision impairment (diplopia), motor/sensory impairments of the limbs, bowel/bladder/sexual dysfunction, and seizures are all highly variable clinical features of what pathology
multiple sclerosis
what nutritional/metabolic disorder is very characteristically related to chronic alcoholics
Thiamine deficiency
what vitamin is thiamine deficiency
B1
what vitamin is cobalamin deficiency related to
B12
what nutritional/metabolic disorder is related to demylination, and degeneration of the spinal cord
cobalamin
what nutritional/metabolic disorder mimics hypoxia with the hippocamus being the most susceptible
hypoglycemia
what nutritional/metabolic disorder is from uncontrolled diabetes melidis
hyperglycemia
what is the MC cause of dementia
alzheimer disease
what pathology has and insidious onset as well as B-amyloid deposits in the brain
Alzheimer disease
what is the MC cause of death for someone with alzheimer disease
lethal pneumonia
what pathology are almost all of those with down syndrome likely to get
alzheimer disease
with alzheimer disease as age increases what does risk do
increases
motor disturbances such as tremor and bradykinesia are common symptoms of what patholgy
parkinson disease
what does parkinson disease damage
dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra
what characteristic neuronal inclusions have a pale halo appearance and what pathology are they characteristic of
Lewy bodies, parkinson disease
is parkinson disease progressive
yes
cogwheel rigidity, pill-rolling, mask/poker face, dementia, hallucinations are all symptoms of what pathology
parkinson disease
what nuclei does huntington disease effect
Caudate and putamen nuclei
what is the movement disorder associated with huntington disease
Chorea (jerking)
what disease is a progressive, autosomal dominant, delayed onset and causes dementia
huntington disease
what condition has both UMN and LMN death
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
who is most at risk of developing amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
males in their 40’s
what is spared from amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
sensation and extraocular motor
what pathology has a asymmetric rapid progressive loss of muscle bulk/strength leading to respiratory paralysis
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis causes degeneration of what tracts
corticospinal tracts
what are the common feature of CNS tumors
headaches, seizures, and increased intercranial pressure
what are the categories of glimoas
Astrocytoma, oligodendroglioma, and ependymoma
what type of astrocytoma are necrotic, poorly circumscribed, located in the frontal lobe, cause neuroological defects, seizures, and headaches
Diffuse astrocytomas
what type of astrocytoma are malignant and have a poor prognosis
diffuse astrocytoma
what type of astrocytoma is benign most commonly found in children/young adults and are cerebellar
pilocytic astrocytoma
what is the prognosis for a patient with an oligodendroglioma. and where are they commonly found
5-20 years and are commonly cerebral
if a ependymom is found in the spinal canal what population is if most likely found
adults
what is the MC embryonal neoplasm
medulloblastoma
what pediatric brain tumor is highly malignant, exclusively cerebellar and highly radiosensitive
medulloblastoma
what might show homer-wright rossettes
medulloblastoma
what is a diffuse large B cell lymphoma that is associated with strong immunocompressed individuals (AIDS)
Primary CNS lymphoma
what is the MC benighn tumor of adult females
meningioma
what CNS tumor is from arachnoid cells that invades surrounding bones
menigioma
