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Path II > Ch 22 > Flashcards

Ch 22 Flashcards

1
Q

CNS pathologys have sometimes effect very particular areas of the brain or functions of the brain making characteristic features of a certain pathology what is the referred to as

A

selective variability

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2
Q

what are the types of neuronal injury

A

Reversible, irreversible

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3
Q

a neuronal injury in which there has not been cellular necrosis is refered to as

A

Reversible neuronal injury

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4
Q

a neuronal injury with swelling of the soma and displacement of the nissl substance is what type of neuronal injury

A

Reversible neuronal injury

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5
Q

the displacement of nissl substance is called what

A

central chromatolysis

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6
Q

a neuronal injury that has cell necrosis is referred to as what

A

irreversible neuronal injury

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7
Q

shrinking of the cell bodies or soma is referred to as

A

red nucleus

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8
Q

what is axonal swelling called

A

spheroids

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9
Q

eosinophilia may also be referred to as

A

red nucleus

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10
Q

eosinophila, and a loss of nucleolus and nissl bodies causing cerebral swelling and spherioids are charicteristic of what type of neuronal injury

A

Irreversible neuronal injury

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11
Q

what does minimal fibrosis following CNS injury

A

astrocytes

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12
Q

what cells are affected in demyelinating disorders of the CNS having enlarged nucleus

A

oligodendrocytes

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13
Q

what are the microglia of the CNS

A

Phagocytes

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14
Q

what lines the venticles/cord and may involve the coroid plexus

A

ependymal cells

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15
Q

negri bodies are common from what virus

A

Rabies

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16
Q

owl’s eye are common from what virus

A

cytomegalovirus

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17
Q

lewy bodies are found with what pathology

A

parkinson disease

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18
Q

B-amyloid plaques and tau proteins are found with what pathology

A

Alzheimers disease

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19
Q

age related accumulation of lipids is called what

A

lipofuscin

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20
Q

a breakdown of the BBB with cerebral edema is called what

A

Vasogenic cerebral edema

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21
Q

neuronal/glial membrane injury with cerebral edema is called what

A

cytotoxic cerebral edema

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22
Q

what are the characteristic findings with cerebral edema

A

flattened gyri, narrowed, sulci, ventricular compression, and soft texture

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23
Q

the altered flow or resorption is called what

A

hydrocephalus

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24
Q

cranial enlargement from hydrocephalus occurs at what ages

A

1-2 years old

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25
Q

if your greater that 2 with hydrocephalus what will occur

A

increases ICP, and ventricular enlargement

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26
Q

what form of hydrocephalus is unilateral (localized)

A

noncommnicating

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27
Q

what from of hydrocephalus is bilateral

A

communicating

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28
Q

what is the MC treatment for hydrocephelus

A

shunting

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29
Q

expansion of the ventricular system secondary to neurodegeneration or infarct rather than an increase of CSF it is referred to as

A

hydrocephalus ex vacuo

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30
Q

the sift of brain or vasculature across dura or through the foreman magnum is called

A

brain herniation

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31
Q

what are the 3 types of brain herniation

A

subfalcine (cingulate), Transtentorial (uncinate), and Tonsillar

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32
Q

what is the MC type of brain herniation

A

subfalcine (cingulate) brain herniation

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33
Q

a brain herniation under the falx cerebri is what type of brain herniation

A

subfalcine (cingulate) brain herniation

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34
Q

temporal lobe compression against the anterior tentorium

A

transtentorial (uncinate) brain herniation

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35
Q

a duret hemorrhage is found with what pathology

A

a transtentorial (uncinate) brain herniation

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36
Q

the cerebellar tonsils being pushed through the foreman magnum is found with what pathology

A

Tonsillar brain herniation

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37
Q

“flame shaped” hemorrhage of the pons is referred to as

A

a Duret hemorrhage

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38
Q

type 1 Arnold-Chiari malformation may cause what symptoms characteristically. and what age group is it found in

A

cervical spine pain, headaches in adults

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39
Q

type 2 Arnold-Chiari malformation is more severe what population is it more common in

A

infants

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40
Q

the downward extension of the cerebellar tonsils through the foreman magnum is known as

A

Arnold-Chiari malformation

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41
Q

what are the main mechanisms of cerebrovasucular disease

A

Thrombotic occlusions, emolic occlusions, and vascular rupture

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42
Q

what may result as a secondary feature to cerebrovascular disease

A

Stroke or a TIA

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43
Q

what does TIA stand for

A

Transient ischemic attack

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44
Q

what is the accromnym used to check for stroke

A

FAST

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45
Q

what do the letters of FAST stand for

A

Face, Arms, Speech, and Time

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46
Q

ischemia/hypoxia to the brain tissue results in what

A

liquefactive necrosis (infarct)

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47
Q

a decrease of 02 partial pressure (such as from high altitude) or a decrease is carrying capacity ( such as CO2 poisoning) are characteristics of

A

functional hypoxia

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48
Q

hypotensions, occlusion, or a chokehold are referred to as what? and what may they cause

A

Ischemia, may lease to TIA, or Stroke (if effects last longer than 24hrs)

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49
Q

in severe global cerebral ischemia what may result

A

widespread neuronal death
cerebral edema
red neurons
Coma

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50
Q

what limits injury in focal cerebral ischemia in superficial tissues

A

Collateral blood flow

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51
Q

what is the MC form of cardiac mural thrombi causing focal cerebral ischemia

A

Emboli

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52
Q

the spontaneous interparenchymal hemorrage (commonly referred to as a cerebral microbleed) in older adulthood is what patholgy

A

primary brain parenchymal hemorrhage

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53
Q

what is the most important risk factor for primary brain parenchymal hemorrhage

A

hypertension

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54
Q

clinically how severe are primary brain parenchymal hemorrhages

A

widely variable from clinically silent(small) to devastating(large)

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55
Q

what are the MC locations for a primary brain perenchymal hemorrhage

A

thalamus, pons, cerebellum

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56
Q

a ruptured sacular (berry) aneurysm will result in what patholgy

A

a subarachnoid hemorage

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57
Q

an abrupt onset of “the worst headache ive ever had” is a major symptom of what

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

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58
Q

a “worm=like” tangle of arteries and veins is known as a

A

Arteriovenous malformation

59
Q

an arteriovenous malformation has the presence of 1 or more of what, that causes ischemia by bypassing the capillaries

A

a fistula

60
Q

what is the MC cerbrovascular malformation with a dangerous high risk of hemorrhage

A

Arteriovenous malformation

61
Q

who is the most likely to develop Arteriovenous malformation

A

10-30 year old males with a history of seizures and/or headaches are 2x more likely

62
Q

hypertension weakening the vessel walls leading to rupture is known as what

A

hypertensive cerebrovacuslar disease

63
Q

a single artery occlusion is known as what

A

lacunar stroke

64
Q

a ruptured small cerebral vessel, hemorrhage,”slite like cavity” is known as what

A

a slit hemorrhage

65
Q

global cerebral dysfunction are charecteristic to

A

acute hypertensive encephalopathy

66
Q

massive parenchymal hemorrhage, lacunar stroke, slit hemorrhage, and acute hypertensive encephalopathy are all caused by

A

hypertensive cerebrovascualar disease

67
Q

vessel inflammation is known as what

A

vasculitis

68
Q

systemic, autoimmune vasculitis, fibrinoid necrosis, and small arteries is known as what

A

polyarteritis nodosa

69
Q

chronic inflammation of multiple parenchymal and subarachnoid vessels is known as what

A

primary angitisof the CNS

70
Q

are males or females more likely to have CNS trauma

A

Males

71
Q

what needs to be assessed with CNS trauma

A

Airway, Breathing, Circulation and disability

72
Q

tissue displacement, vessel disruption, hemorrhage, tissue injury and edema are all descriptive of what

A

a contusion

73
Q

a contustion at the sit of impact is known as

A

coup

74
Q

a contustion at the opposite side of impact is know as

A

countercoup

75
Q

the tearing of cerebral perenchmya, vascular disruption and hemorrhage are descriptive of what

A

laceration

76
Q

what is movement of 1 region, relative to another

A

diffuse axonal injury

77
Q

generalized axonal swelling, diffuse white matter damage, angular acceleration and dramatic clinical effects are all symptoms of

A

a diffuse axonal injury

78
Q

the reversible altered consciousness from head injury in the absence of contusion is known as what

A

concussion

79
Q

how will neuroimaging studies come back after a concussion

A

normal but use a rapid CT to asses any possible hemorrhage

80
Q

if a hemorrhage is from an artery in the epideral space what is it called

A

an epidural hematoma

81
Q

if a hemorrhage is from a vein in the subdural space what is it called

A

a subdural hematoma

82
Q

what is the MC artery involved with an epidural hematoma

A

the middle menigeal artery

83
Q

what is the time associated with epidural and subdural hematomas

A

epidural is rapid and within hours, and a subdural hematoma is slower

84
Q

what is the MC CNS malformation

A

neural tube defect

85
Q

what is related to folate deficiency during pregnancy

A

neural tube defect

86
Q

what neural tube defect is a bony defect, and asympotomatic

A

spina bifida occulta

87
Q

what neural tube defect is extension of CNS through a vertebral defect with lower extremity motor and sensory defect

A

myelomenigocele

88
Q

what neural tube defect is an absence of brain and bone at the rostral aspect

A

anencephaly

89
Q

what neural tube defect is a CNS diverticulum though the cranium

A

encephalocele

90
Q

what rare spinal cord abnormality is abnormal widening of the central canal

A

hydromyelia

91
Q

what spinal cord abnormality is a cyst within the cord

A

a syringomyelia commonly known as a syrinx

92
Q

what is a non-progressive perinatal brain injury with motor deficits

A

cerebral palsy

93
Q

what type of infection of the nervous system is from adjacent infection into the epidural space

A

epidural abcess

94
Q

what type of infection of the nervous stem is an infection of the skull or sinus moving into the subdural space

A

subdural abcess

95
Q

what is the subarachnoid inflammation of leptomeniges

A

menigitis

96
Q

what type of meningitis has a very acute onset, headache, nuchal rigidity, photophobia and increased pus

A

acute pyogenic (bacterial) meningitis

97
Q

headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia together are refered to as what

A

meningism

98
Q

what type of menigitis is self limiting

A

aseptic (viral) meningitis

99
Q

what are the types of chronic meningitis

A

tuberculous, and sprichetal

100
Q

what type of parenchyma infection is localized and causes sepsis

A

bacterial

101
Q

what type of parenchyma infection is diffuse

A

viral

102
Q

what type of parenchyma infection is both mixed and diffuse with the production of granulomas

A

fungal

103
Q

what is the MC demyelinating disorder

A

multiple sclerosis

104
Q

who has an increased risk for multiple sclerosis

A

young adult females with a family history (15x)

105
Q

what autoimmune disease has very characteristically relapsing-remitting neurological defects. and has distinct white matter plaques

A

multiple sclerosis

106
Q

what antigen serotype is well established for multiple sclerosis

A

HLA-DR2

107
Q

unilateral vision impairment (diplopia), motor/sensory impairments of the limbs, bowel/bladder/sexual dysfunction, and seizures are all highly variable clinical features of what pathology

A

multiple sclerosis

108
Q

what nutritional/metabolic disorder is very characteristically related to chronic alcoholics

A

Thiamine deficiency

109
Q

what vitamin is thiamine deficiency

A

B1

110
Q

what vitamin is cobalamin deficiency related to

A

B12

111
Q

what nutritional/metabolic disorder is related to demylination, and degeneration of the spinal cord

A

cobalamin

112
Q

what nutritional/metabolic disorder mimics hypoxia with the hippocamus being the most susceptible

A

hypoglycemia

113
Q

what nutritional/metabolic disorder is from uncontrolled diabetes melidis

A

hyperglycemia

114
Q

what is the MC cause of dementia

A

alzheimer disease

115
Q

what pathology has and insidious onset as well as B-amyloid deposits in the brain

A

Alzheimer disease

116
Q

what is the MC cause of death for someone with alzheimer disease

A

lethal pneumonia

117
Q

what pathology are almost all of those with down syndrome likely to get

A

alzheimer disease

118
Q

with alzheimer disease as age increases what does risk do

A

increases

119
Q

motor disturbances such as tremor and bradykinesia are common symptoms of what patholgy

A

parkinson disease

120
Q

what does parkinson disease damage

A

dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra

121
Q

what characteristic neuronal inclusions have a pale halo appearance and what pathology are they characteristic of

A

Lewy bodies, parkinson disease

122
Q

is parkinson disease progressive

A

yes

123
Q

cogwheel rigidity, pill-rolling, mask/poker face, dementia, hallucinations are all symptoms of what pathology

A

parkinson disease

124
Q

what nuclei does huntington disease effect

A

Caudate and putamen nuclei

125
Q

what is the movement disorder associated with huntington disease

A

Chorea (jerking)

126
Q

what disease is a progressive, autosomal dominant, delayed onset and causes dementia

A

huntington disease

127
Q

what condition has both UMN and LMN death

A

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

128
Q

who is most at risk of developing amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

A

males in their 40’s

129
Q

what is spared from amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

A

sensation and extraocular motor

130
Q

what pathology has a asymmetric rapid progressive loss of muscle bulk/strength leading to respiratory paralysis

A

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

131
Q

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis causes degeneration of what tracts

A

corticospinal tracts

132
Q

what are the common feature of CNS tumors

A

headaches, seizures, and increased intercranial pressure

133
Q

what are the categories of glimoas

A

Astrocytoma, oligodendroglioma, and ependymoma

134
Q

what type of astrocytoma are necrotic, poorly circumscribed, located in the frontal lobe, cause neuroological defects, seizures, and headaches

A

Diffuse astrocytomas

135
Q

what type of astrocytoma are malignant and have a poor prognosis

A

diffuse astrocytoma

136
Q

what type of astrocytoma is benign most commonly found in children/young adults and are cerebellar

A

pilocytic astrocytoma

137
Q

what is the prognosis for a patient with an oligodendroglioma. and where are they commonly found

A

5-20 years and are commonly cerebral

138
Q

if a ependymom is found in the spinal canal what population is if most likely found

A

adults

139
Q

what is the MC embryonal neoplasm

A

medulloblastoma

140
Q

what pediatric brain tumor is highly malignant, exclusively cerebellar and highly radiosensitive

A

medulloblastoma

141
Q

what might show homer-wright rossettes

A

medulloblastoma

142
Q

what is a diffuse large B cell lymphoma that is associated with strong immunocompressed individuals (AIDS)

A

Primary CNS lymphoma

143
Q

what is the MC benighn tumor of adult females

A

meningioma

144
Q

what CNS tumor is from arachnoid cells that invades surrounding bones

A

menigioma

Path II (4 decks)

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