20 dont know if you will like the way i am doing the question. Flashcards
0
Q
what is the treatment for osteopetrosis
A
stem cell replacement
1
Q
what does causes the medullary cavity fill up with compact bone causing them to be weaker
A
osteopetrosis
2
Q
what is the primary cause of osteoporosis
A
it is Senile or postmenopausal
3
Q
what is the cause of senile osteoporosis
A
this is just an age related because of decrease in GF and asteoblast activity
4
Q
what is the cause of postmenopausal osteoporosis
A
this is caused by a drop in estrogen circulation
50% of all women that are P.M.
5
Q
what will you see in osteoporosis
A
fractures of the vertebral (Dowagers hump)
fractures of the femoral neck (hip fracture) (may cause emboli)
6
Q
how do you test for osteoporosis
A
duel-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA scan)
7
Q
why are X-rays not used to test for osteoporosis
A
this is because you will need 30-40% loss in bone mass before it will show up
8
Q
what is another name for paget disease
A
osteitis deformans
9
Q
what will Paget’s disease cause
A
increase in bone mass but it is weak
10
Q
what will the bone look like in Paget’s disease
A
it will have a shaggy appearance
11
Q
what is the laboratory value that is associated with Paget’s disease
A
increase in alkaline phosphatase
12
Q
what percent is asymptomatic with Paget’s disease
A
about 70-90%
13
Q
what is the sign of symptomatic finding with paget disease
A
osseous deformation
14
Q
where will you see about 80% of the lesions with Paget’s disease
A
on the axial skeleton or femur (most likely on the pelvis)
15
Q
who is most likely to get Paget’s disease
A
older adults at 70+ years
16
Q
what do we call vitamin D deficiency in kids
A
rickets
17
Q
what do we call vitamin D deficiency in adults
A
Osteomalacia
18
Q
what is cause increase osteoclast activity and most common nonmalignant
A
hyperparathyroidism
19
Q
what will cause salt and pepper skull
A
hyperparathyroidism
20
Q
what with cause resorption of the cortical and trabecular bone and may produce a “brown tumor”
A
hyperparathyroidism
21
Q
what is a compound fracture
A
one that breaks the skin
22
Q
what is a comminuted fracture
A
fragmentation
23
Q
what is a stress fractures
A
these are developed slowly over time
24
how long does it takes to heal a fracture
about 6-8 weeks
25
what will delay healing of a fracture
inadequate immobilization
nonunion
infection
nutritional deficiencies
26
what is avascular necrosis
it is cutting off blood to bone that will cause tissue necrosis
27
what is preserved with avascular necrosis
the cortex
28
what is the cause of avascular necrosis
vascular disruption from fracture
corticosteroids use
idiopathic
29
what is osteomyelitis
bone-marrow-inflammation
30
what is the cause of osteomyelitis
most likely infection of bone marrow
31
what is the most common mode of infection for osteomyelitis
hematogenous (through the blood)
32
what is an involucrum
it is a bone deposited around infected bone
33
what is a sequestrum
dead bone at site of infection
34
what is the draining sinus
rupture of the periosteum leads to an abscess in the surrounding soft bone. (look at page 8 bottom left slide for a picture)
35
what are some of the things that we will see if you have tuberculous osteomyelitis
granulomas
caseous necrosis
boney destruction
36
what is Potts disease
TB of the spine
37
what are the most common bone that is effected by TB
Long bones and vertebrae
38
what are the features of bone tumors
bone pain gradually increases
| fatigue, pyrexia
39
what is the best way to describe an osteoma
a superficial non-invasive benign tumor on most likely on the skull and facial bones
40
what is a osteoid osteoma
small <2 cm
most likely on the femur or tibia
pain at night and aspirin will relive the pain
41
what is an osteoblastoma
larger 2-6 cm
spinous or transverse
no response to aasprin
42
what is an osteosarcoma
aggressive malignancy
| most common primary bone cancer
43
who is the most likely to get an osteosarcoma
```
adolescent males (10-20)
old (>40) co-morbid bone pathology
```
44
where are you most likely to get osteosarcoma
knee (60%)
hip (15%)
shoulder (10%)
45
what does osteosarcoma look like
a sunburst on the bone
46
what is does osteosarcoma destroy
periosteal and medullary
47
does a osteosarcoma rapidly enlarge
yes
48
what happens if you inherit the RB gene with osteosarcoma
1000 times more likely to get osteosarcoma
49
what is the treatment of a primary osteosarcoma
amputation or limb-salvage therapy
50
what is the treatment for a secondary co-morbid osteosarcoma
typically fatal
51
what is a typical osteochondroma
it is a cartilage-capped outgrowth (hyalin cartilage)
52
where does osteochondroma usually originate
on the metaphysis (near the growth plate)
53
who is most likely to get osteochondroma
males (3x) age 10-30
54
what will osteochonroma usually do with the host bone
cortex merges and cause a painful fracture
55
what is another name for chondroma
enchondroma
56
what does chondroma effect
hyaline cartilage
57
where does a chondroma usually form
in the medullary cavity
58
what is it called when you have multiple lesions of chondromas
ollier disease
59
what does a chondroma look like on an MRI
o-ring sing
60
who is most likely to get chondrosarcoma
males 40-60
61
what is the most common location for a chondrosarcoma
in the pelvis, shoulder, ribs
62
what is a low grade chondrosarcoma
slow growing
| thickening of the cortex
63
what is a high grade chondrosarcoma
causes cortical erosion
64
what is the most common form of fibrous dysplasia
monostotic FD (70%) (single bone involvement)
65
what is fibrous dysplasia
benign, failure of bony differentiation
66
who is most likely to get a monostotic fibrous dysplasia
age 10-30 most likely asymptomatic
67
who is most likely to get polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
adolescence
68
what will polyostotic fibrous dysplasia cause
severe deformation
69
where will about half of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia effect
craniofacial bones
70
what is McCune-Albright syndrome
this is when you have polyostotic + cafe-au-lait spots and endocrinopathy
71
what are Ewing sarcoma and primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET)
malignant, small round-cell tumors of bone
72
what is the 2nd most common pediatric bone cancer
Ewing sarcoma
73
what is the difference between Ewing sarcoma and PNET
Ewing sarcoma is undifferentiated
| PNET neural differentiation (homer-wright rosettes)
74
who is most likely to get Ewing sarcoma and PNET
age 10-20
75
where is the most common place to find Ewing sarcoma and PNET
in the femur or pelvis
76
what part of the bone is effect by Ewing sarcoma and PNET
the periosteum (onion skinning or sunburst)
77
what cells are involved with giant-cell tumor of bone
neoplastic mononuclear cells
78
who is most likely to get giant cell tumor of bone
age 20 -40
79
what does giant cell tumor of bone create
large, lytic and painful lesson with cortical erosion
80
what kinda pain does giant cell tumor of bone cause
arthritis like symptoms
81
how often does giant cell tumor of bone metastasize to the lungs
2 %
82
what does a giant cell tumor of the bone look like on X-ray
it has a soap bubble appearance
83
what does osteoarthritis cause
degeneration of articular cartilage (collagen)
84
what is primary OA
insidious onset of pain (does not know when it started)
| no trauma
85
what is secondary OA
caused by predisposing injury or deformity (trauma, obesity
86
what is the most common location of secondary OA in males
hip
87
what is the most common location for OA in females
Knees and hands
88
what are the early signs of OA
matrix cracks, then superficial softening (chondromalacia), then exposure of the bone, then sclerosis of bone (eburnation)
89
what happens on the very late stages of OA
you might get subchondral cysts
90
what do you see in about 70% of all RA
anti-CCP antibodies
91
what do you see in about 80% in all RA
IgM autoantibodies (rheumatoid factor (RF))
92
who is most likely to get RA
females are 10-40
93
where are you most likely to get RA
```
hands
feet
ankles
knee
wrists
elbows
```
94
what will be some of the signs of RA
weakness, malaise (feeling unwell) and low grade fever.
95
what will RA eventually form
```
pannus formation (ulnar deviation and swan neck deformity)
eventual ankylosis
```
96
does OA have ankylosis
no
97
when are the signs of juvenile RA
6 weeks
| in large joints
98
what are seronegative spondyloarthropathies
they are negative because they are negative for the rheumatoid factors
and positive for HLA-B27
99
what are the common seronegative spondyloarthropathies
ankylosing spondylitis
psoriatic arthriti
enteropathic arthritis
reactive arthritis (reiter's)
100
what is effected by ankylosing spondylitis (AS)
sacroiliac joint
| vertebral
101
what is the onset for ankylosing spondylitis
<40 years old
102
what are some of the signs of ankylosing spondylitis
morning stiffness > 30 min
| nocturnal LBP
103
how do you diagnose ankylosing spondylitis
positive for HLA-B27
104
what is the cause of gout
abnormal break down of purine causing urate crystal deposition (tophi)
105
do we know why gout is formed
no 90% is idiopathic
106
what are the 3 stages of gout
1. asymptomatic hyperuricemia
2. acute gout arthritis cycles
3. chronic tophaceous arthritis
107
who is most likely to get gout
males > 30
108
what is another name for pseudogout
calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease (CPPD)
109
who is most likely to have pseudogout
>85 about 50% of the time
110
where are you most likely to get pseudogout
knee wrist and shoulder
111
what causes pseudogout
pyrophosphate crystal deposition
112
what is the cause of hydroxyapatite deposition disease
it is caused by accumulation of hydroxyapatite in tendons
113
what is the most common location for hydroxyapatite deposition disease (HADD)
the rotator cuff muscles
114
what is the cause of infectious arthritis
mc bacterial or fungi infects a joint
115
what are the signs of infectious arthritis
acute onset, swelling, erythema
116
what are the 2 most common forms of infectious arthritis
suppurative arthritis
| lyme arthritis
117
what are suppurative arthritis
this is a puss forming arthritis
118
90% of the time suppurative arthritis are
monoarticular
119
what is the most common place to get suppurative arthritis
in the knee
120
what is gonoccoccal arthritis infectious arthritis and who is most likely to get it
it is a subacute course and females
121
when do you get lyme arthritis
60-80% of the time it is from untreated Lyme disease
122
what kind of infection will lyme arthritis cause
spirochetal (effect many organ systems)
123
what are the 3 stages of lyme arthritis
1 multiply, erythema chronicum migrans
2 early dissemination, migratory joint pain
3 late dissemination (2-3 years) chronic polyarthritis and encephalitis
124
how likely are you to get a space occupying lesion of the joint and what are they made up of
rare and a tumor-like lesions
125
what is a ganglion cyst
it is degenerative ct and fluid (asymptomatic)
126
what is a synovial cyst
a true cyst, benign, synovial herniation through joint capsule
127
what is the most common type of synovial cyst and where is it at
Baker cyst in the popliteal fossa
128
what are the 2 types of tenosynovial giant cell tumors (TGCT)
diffuse TGCT
| localized TGCT
129
what will diffuse TGCT cause
large and painful and decreased ROM
130
what will localized TGCT cause
these are small, solitary leason
131
where is the most common spot for diffuse Tenosynovial giant cell tumor
knee 80%
| monoarticular arthritis
132
are soft tissue tumors benign or malignant most of the time
benign
133
where are you most likely to get a soft tissue tumor
in the lower extremities (thigh)
134
what is a lipoma
benign tumor of adipocytes (fat)
| solitary, painless, mobile
135
what is liposarcoma
malignant tumor of adipocytes
136
who is most likely to get liposarcoma
age 40-50
137
where is the most common spot for a liposarcoma
retroperitoneum, thigh
138
what is myositis ossificans
benign, metaplastic bone
| secondary to trauma
139
what are the 2 types of fibromatosis
superficial and deep
140
what is the most common types of superficial fibromatosis
dupuytren contracture (last 2 fingers cant extend
141
where is caused by deep fibromatosis
locally destructive, that recur
142
where is the most common location of deep fibromatosis
in the abdominal area
143
what is fibrosarcoma
malignant, destructive, slow growing tumor
144
who is most likely to get fibrosarcoma
adults 35-55
145
where are you most likely to get fibrosarcoma
thigh and knee
146
what type of pattern are you going to see with fibrosarcoma
herringbone pattern
147
what is the classic example of skeletal muscle tumor
rhabdomyosarcoma (malignant)
148
where are you most likely to find a rhabdomyosarcoma
in minimal skeletal muscle (head and neck (40%))
149
who is most likely to get rhabdomyosarcoma
pediatric cancer (<20 years old)
150
just go and look at the last 3 slides
i was to lazy to make the last few cards.
| i know i know i suck at life
