Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Path II > 20 dont know if you will like the way i am doing the question. > Flashcards

20 dont know if you will like the way i am doing the question. Flashcards

0
Q

what is the treatment for osteopetrosis

A

stem cell replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

what does causes the medullary cavity fill up with compact bone causing them to be weaker

A

osteopetrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the primary cause of osteoporosis

A

it is Senile or postmenopausal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the cause of senile osteoporosis

A

this is just an age related because of decrease in GF and asteoblast activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the cause of postmenopausal osteoporosis

A

this is caused by a drop in estrogen circulation

50% of all women that are P.M.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what will you see in osteoporosis

A

fractures of the vertebral (Dowagers hump)

fractures of the femoral neck (hip fracture) (may cause emboli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how do you test for osteoporosis

A

duel-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA scan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

why are X-rays not used to test for osteoporosis

A

this is because you will need 30-40% loss in bone mass before it will show up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is another name for paget disease

A

osteitis deformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what will Paget’s disease cause

A

increase in bone mass but it is weak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what will the bone look like in Paget’s disease

A

it will have a shaggy appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the laboratory value that is associated with Paget’s disease

A

increase in alkaline phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what percent is asymptomatic with Paget’s disease

A

about 70-90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the sign of symptomatic finding with paget disease

A

osseous deformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where will you see about 80% of the lesions with Paget’s disease

A

on the axial skeleton or femur (most likely on the pelvis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

who is most likely to get Paget’s disease

A

older adults at 70+ years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what do we call vitamin D deficiency in kids

A

rickets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what do we call vitamin D deficiency in adults

A

Osteomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is cause increase osteoclast activity and most common nonmalignant

A

hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what will cause salt and pepper skull

A

hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what with cause resorption of the cortical and trabecular bone and may produce a “brown tumor”

A

hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is a compound fracture

A

one that breaks the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is a comminuted fracture

A

fragmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is a stress fractures

A

these are developed slowly over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how long does it takes to heal a fracture

A

about 6-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what will delay healing of a fracture

A

inadequate immobilization
nonunion
infection
nutritional deficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is avascular necrosis

A

it is cutting off blood to bone that will cause tissue necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is preserved with avascular necrosis

A

the cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the cause of avascular necrosis

A

vascular disruption from fracture
corticosteroids use
idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is osteomyelitis

A

bone-marrow-inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the cause of osteomyelitis

A

most likely infection of bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the most common mode of infection for osteomyelitis

A

hematogenous (through the blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is an involucrum

A

it is a bone deposited around infected bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is a sequestrum

A

dead bone at site of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the draining sinus

A

rupture of the periosteum leads to an abscess in the surrounding soft bone. (look at page 8 bottom left slide for a picture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are some of the things that we will see if you have tuberculous osteomyelitis

A

granulomas
caseous necrosis
boney destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is Potts disease

A

TB of the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are the most common bone that is effected by TB

A

Long bones and vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are the features of bone tumors

A

bone pain gradually increases

fatigue, pyrexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the best way to describe an osteoma

A

a superficial non-invasive benign tumor on most likely on the skull and facial bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is a osteoid osteoma

A

small <2 cm
most likely on the femur or tibia
pain at night and aspirin will relive the pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is an osteoblastoma

A

larger 2-6 cm
spinous or transverse
no response to aasprin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is an osteosarcoma

A

aggressive malignancy

most common primary bone cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

who is the most likely to get an osteosarcoma

A 
adolescent males (10-20)
old (>40) co-morbid bone pathology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

where are you most likely to get osteosarcoma

A

knee (60%)
hip (15%)
shoulder (10%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what does osteosarcoma look like

A

a sunburst on the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is does osteosarcoma destroy

A

periosteal and medullary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

does a osteosarcoma rapidly enlarge

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what happens if you inherit the RB gene with osteosarcoma

A

1000 times more likely to get osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is the treatment of a primary osteosarcoma

A

amputation or limb-salvage therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the treatment for a secondary co-morbid osteosarcoma

A

typically fatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is a typical osteochondroma

A

it is a cartilage-capped outgrowth (hyalin cartilage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

where does osteochondroma usually originate

A

on the metaphysis (near the growth plate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

who is most likely to get osteochondroma

A

males (3x) age 10-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what will osteochonroma usually do with the host bone

A

cortex merges and cause a painful fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is another name for chondroma

A

enchondroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what does chondroma effect

A

hyaline cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

where does a chondroma usually form

A

in the medullary cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is it called when you have multiple lesions of chondromas

A

ollier disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what does a chondroma look like on an MRI

A

o-ring sing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

who is most likely to get chondrosarcoma

A

males 40-60

61
Q

what is the most common location for a chondrosarcoma

A

in the pelvis, shoulder, ribs

62
Q

what is a low grade chondrosarcoma

A

slow growing

thickening of the cortex

63
Q

what is a high grade chondrosarcoma

A

causes cortical erosion

64
Q

what is the most common form of fibrous dysplasia

A

monostotic FD (70%) (single bone involvement)

65
Q

what is fibrous dysplasia

A

benign, failure of bony differentiation

66
Q

who is most likely to get a monostotic fibrous dysplasia

A

age 10-30 most likely asymptomatic

67
Q

who is most likely to get polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

A

adolescence

68
Q

what will polyostotic fibrous dysplasia cause

A

severe deformation

69
Q

where will about half of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia effect

A

craniofacial bones

70
Q

what is McCune-Albright syndrome

A

this is when you have polyostotic + cafe-au-lait spots and endocrinopathy

71
Q

what are Ewing sarcoma and primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET)

A

malignant, small round-cell tumors of bone

72
Q

what is the 2nd most common pediatric bone cancer

A

Ewing sarcoma

73
Q

what is the difference between Ewing sarcoma and PNET

A

Ewing sarcoma is undifferentiated

PNET neural differentiation (homer-wright rosettes)

74
Q

who is most likely to get Ewing sarcoma and PNET

75
Q

where is the most common place to find Ewing sarcoma and PNET

A

in the femur or pelvis

76
Q

what part of the bone is effect by Ewing sarcoma and PNET

A

the periosteum (onion skinning or sunburst)

77
Q

what cells are involved with giant-cell tumor of bone

A

neoplastic mononuclear cells

78
Q

who is most likely to get giant cell tumor of bone

A

age 20 -40

79
Q

what does giant cell tumor of bone create

A

large, lytic and painful lesson with cortical erosion

80
Q

what kinda pain does giant cell tumor of bone cause

A

arthritis like symptoms

81
Q

how often does giant cell tumor of bone metastasize to the lungs

82
Q

what does a giant cell tumor of the bone look like on X-ray

A

it has a soap bubble appearance

83
Q

what does osteoarthritis cause

A

degeneration of articular cartilage (collagen)

84
Q

what is primary OA

A

insidious onset of pain (does not know when it started)

no trauma

85
Q

what is secondary OA

A

caused by predisposing injury or deformity (trauma, obesity

86
Q

what is the most common location of secondary OA in males

87
Q

what is the most common location for OA in females

A

Knees and hands

88
Q

what are the early signs of OA

A

matrix cracks, then superficial softening (chondromalacia), then exposure of the bone, then sclerosis of bone (eburnation)

89
Q

what happens on the very late stages of OA

A

you might get subchondral cysts

90
Q

what do you see in about 70% of all RA

A

anti-CCP antibodies

91
Q

what do you see in about 80% in all RA

A

IgM autoantibodies (rheumatoid factor (RF))

92
Q

who is most likely to get RA

A

females are 10-40

93
Q

where are you most likely to get RA

A 
hands 
feet 
ankles 
knee 
wrists 
elbows
94
Q

what will be some of the signs of RA

A

weakness, malaise (feeling unwell) and low grade fever.

95
Q

what will RA eventually form

A 
pannus formation (ulnar deviation and swan neck deformity) 
eventual ankylosis
96
Q

does OA have ankylosis

97
Q

when are the signs of juvenile RA

A

6 weeks

in large joints

98
Q

what are seronegative spondyloarthropathies

A

they are negative because they are negative for the rheumatoid factors
and positive for HLA-B27

99
Q

what are the common seronegative spondyloarthropathies

A

ankylosing spondylitis
psoriatic arthriti
enteropathic arthritis
reactive arthritis (reiter’s)

100
Q

what is effected by ankylosing spondylitis (AS)

A

sacroiliac joint

vertebral

101
Q

what is the onset for ankylosing spondylitis

A

<40 years old

102
Q

what are some of the signs of ankylosing spondylitis

A

morning stiffness > 30 min

nocturnal LBP

103
Q

how do you diagnose ankylosing spondylitis

A

positive for HLA-B27

104
Q

what is the cause of gout

A

abnormal break down of purine causing urate crystal deposition (tophi)

105
Q

do we know why gout is formed

A

no 90% is idiopathic

106
Q

what are the 3 stages of gout

A
  1. asymptomatic hyperuricemia
  2. acute gout arthritis cycles
  3. chronic tophaceous arthritis
107
Q

who is most likely to get gout

A

males > 30

108
Q

what is another name for pseudogout

A

calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease (CPPD)

109
Q

who is most likely to have pseudogout

A

> 85 about 50% of the time

110
Q

where are you most likely to get pseudogout

A

knee wrist and shoulder

111
Q

what causes pseudogout

A

pyrophosphate crystal deposition

112
Q

what is the cause of hydroxyapatite deposition disease

A

it is caused by accumulation of hydroxyapatite in tendons

113
Q

what is the most common location for hydroxyapatite deposition disease (HADD)

A

the rotator cuff muscles

114
Q

what is the cause of infectious arthritis

A

mc bacterial or fungi infects a joint

115
Q

what are the signs of infectious arthritis

A

acute onset, swelling, erythema

116
Q

what are the 2 most common forms of infectious arthritis

A

suppurative arthritis

lyme arthritis

117
Q

what are suppurative arthritis

A

this is a puss forming arthritis

118
Q

90% of the time suppurative arthritis are

A

monoarticular

119
Q

what is the most common place to get suppurative arthritis

A

in the knee

120
Q

what is gonoccoccal arthritis infectious arthritis and who is most likely to get it

A

it is a subacute course and females

121
Q

when do you get lyme arthritis

A

60-80% of the time it is from untreated Lyme disease

122
Q

what kind of infection will lyme arthritis cause

A

spirochetal (effect many organ systems)

123
Q

what are the 3 stages of lyme arthritis

A

1 multiply, erythema chronicum migrans
2 early dissemination, migratory joint pain
3 late dissemination (2-3 years) chronic polyarthritis and encephalitis

124
Q

how likely are you to get a space occupying lesion of the joint and what are they made up of

A

rare and a tumor-like lesions

125
Q

what is a ganglion cyst

A

it is degenerative ct and fluid (asymptomatic)

126
Q

what is a synovial cyst

A

a true cyst, benign, synovial herniation through joint capsule

127
Q

what is the most common type of synovial cyst and where is it at

A

Baker cyst in the popliteal fossa

128
Q

what are the 2 types of tenosynovial giant cell tumors (TGCT)

A

diffuse TGCT

localized TGCT

129
Q

what will diffuse TGCT cause

A

large and painful and decreased ROM

130
Q

what will localized TGCT cause

A

these are small, solitary leason

131
Q

where is the most common spot for diffuse Tenosynovial giant cell tumor

A

knee 80%

monoarticular arthritis

132
Q

are soft tissue tumors benign or malignant most of the time

133
Q

where are you most likely to get a soft tissue tumor

A

in the lower extremities (thigh)

134
Q

what is a lipoma

A

benign tumor of adipocytes (fat)

solitary, painless, mobile

135
Q

what is liposarcoma

A

malignant tumor of adipocytes

136
Q

who is most likely to get liposarcoma

137
Q

where is the most common spot for a liposarcoma

A

retroperitoneum, thigh

138
Q

what is myositis ossificans

A

benign, metaplastic bone

secondary to trauma

139
Q

what are the 2 types of fibromatosis

A

superficial and deep

140
Q

what is the most common types of superficial fibromatosis

A

dupuytren contracture (last 2 fingers cant extend

141
Q

where is caused by deep fibromatosis

A

locally destructive, that recur

142
Q

where is the most common location of deep fibromatosis

A

in the abdominal area

143
Q

what is fibrosarcoma

A

malignant, destructive, slow growing tumor

144
Q

who is most likely to get fibrosarcoma

A

adults 35-55

145
Q

where are you most likely to get fibrosarcoma

A

thigh and knee

146
Q

what type of pattern are you going to see with fibrosarcoma

A

herringbone pattern

147
Q

what is the classic example of skeletal muscle tumor

A

rhabdomyosarcoma (malignant)

148
Q

where are you most likely to find a rhabdomyosarcoma

A

in minimal skeletal muscle (head and neck (40%))

149
Q

who is most likely to get rhabdomyosarcoma

A

pediatric cancer (<20 years old)

150
Q

just go and look at the last 3 slides

A

i was to lazy to make the last few cards.

i know i know i suck at life

Path II (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions