Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Maddy - CPR II - some pharm > Ch 21 > Flashcards

Ch 21 Flashcards

1
Q

tumor that elaborates androgens, androgens and estrogens, and/or corticosteroids

A

leydig cell tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

OCT3/4 and PLAP mutations

A

embryonal carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

chronic, persistent, painful cystitis in women age 30-40

A

hunner ulcer (interstitial cystitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

associated w/ taking anti tumor drug cyclophosphamide and associated w/ adenovirus

A

hemorrhagic cystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

positive for cytokeratin and CD30 and negative for KIT

A

embryonal carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

most common benign prostatic dz in men > 50

A

BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

grade 1 vs grade 5 glandular pattern of differentiation

A

grade 1: most well differentiated tumor

grade 5: no glandular differentiation, tumor cells infiltrating stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

demographic bowenoid dz

A

sexually active adults (younger than bowen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

amplification of 8q24 locus containing MYC oncogene

A

prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

infection of glans and prepuce

A

balanoposthitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

small red painful mass above external urethral meatus prone to ulceration and bleeding

A

urethral caruncle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

common pairings of mixed tumors

A

teratoma + embryonal carcinoma + yolk sac tumor

seminoma + embryonal carcinoma

embryonal carcinoma + teratoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

most common type of germ cell tumor

A

seminomas of testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

accumulation of lymph in the tunica vaginalis

A

chylocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

syncytiotrophoblasts and cytotrophoblasts

A

choriocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

accumulation of serous fluid in the tunica vaginalis

A

hydrocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CAG repeats

A

prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

yellow mucosal plaques in bladder w/ foamy macrophages w/ multinucleated giant cells and lymphocytes

A

malakoplakia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

most common testicular tumor in infants and children up to 3 years of age

A

yolk sac tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

gleason score 4+3=7

A

moderately to poorly differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

gleason score 3+4=7

A

moderately differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

5-10cm in diameter tumor, heterogenous w/ solid and cystic areas

A

teratoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

crystalloids of renke

A

leydig cell tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

most aggressive non seminomatous germ cell tumor

A

choriocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what tumors arise in prostate de novo or after hormone therapy

A

adenosquamous or squamous cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

tx for testicular torsion

A

orchiopexy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

dilated vein in spermatic cord

A

vericocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

complete or partial failure of intra-abdominal testes to descend into scrotal sac

A

cryptorchidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

most common tx for localized prostate cancer

A

radical prostatectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

shiny red, velvety plaques on glans penis in men

A

CIS of penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

most common form of cancer in men

A

adenocarcinoma of the prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

prognosis of seminomas

A

best prognosis: 95% w/ stage 1 or 2 can be cured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

compare proximal vs distal primary carcinomas of the urethra

A

proximal: similar to tumors in the bladder
distal: squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

autoimmune dz causing granulomas in spermatic tubules and moderately tender testicular mass of sudden onset

A

granulomatous (autoimmune) orchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

orifice of prepuce is too small to permit normal retraction of penis

A

phimosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

tx for cryptorchidism

A

orchiopexy (placement of tests in scrotal sac)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

dysplastic cells w/ large hyperchromatic nuclei in histo of penis

A

CIS of penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

which demographics have what lengths of CAG repeats and what is their risk for prostate cancer

A
  • African Americans: shortest length (highest risk)
  • caucasians: intermediate length
  • Asian: longest length (lowest risk)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

demographics teratomas

A

any age (infancy to adult)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

fibrotic inflammatory process encasing the retroperitoneal structures and causing hydronephrosis

A

sclerosing retroperitoneal fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

osteoblastic mets in skeletal survey

A

prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

30% of white men older than 50 have____

A

BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

nodular hyperplasia in BPH occurs in the ___

A

transition zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

KIT and BAK mutations

A

germ cell tumors of testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

demographic embryonal carcinoma

A

20-30 y/os

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

AFP biomarker

A

yolk sac tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

germ line mutations in BRCA2 and HOXB13

A

prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

elevated PSA levels

A

prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

HCG biomarker

A

choriocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

nongonococcal urethritis causes

A

chlamydia

mycoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

sx of cystitis

A

frequency
suprapubic pain
dysuria

52
Q

multiple reddish brown papular lesions on shaft of penis and scrotum

A

bowen dz

53
Q

hypermethylation of GSTP1 gene (downregulating it)

A

prostate cancer

54
Q

cambium layer in bladder

A

embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

55
Q

isochromosome 12p and express OCT3/4 and NANOG

A

germ cell tumors of testes and seminomas

56
Q

most prostate tumors are what kind of tumor

A

adenocarcinomas

57
Q

sx acute bacterial prostatitis

A

fever
chills
dysuria
tender and boggy prostate on DRE

58
Q

firm, small, homogenous grey-white to yellow surface, cells arranged in trabeculae that form cordlike structures

A

sertoli cell tumors

59
Q

gleason score 2-6

A

well-differentiated tumors with excellent prognosis

60
Q

produce bulky masses, sometimes 10x size of testes

A

seminomas

61
Q

most commonly caused by indwelling catheters

A

polypoid cystitis

62
Q

schiller-duval bodies

A

yolk sac tumor

63
Q

histo: clear or watery cytoplasm, large central pale nucleus, one or two prominent nucleoli

A

seminoma

64
Q

most important association w/ germ cell testicular tumors

A

cryptorchidism

65
Q

testicular swelling, gynecomastia, sexual precocity

A

leydig cell tumors

66
Q

define the staging of prostate cancer in relation to therapy

A

T1: incidentally found cancer
T2: organ-confined cancer
T3a: extra-prostatic extension with seminal vesicle invasion
T3b: extra-prostatic extension without seminal vesicle invasion
T4: direct invasion of continuous organs

67
Q

familial predisposition for germ cell tumors of testes

A

4x higher in fathers and sons of pts

8-10x higher in brothers

68
Q

most common tumor to secondarily involve the prostate

A

urothelial cancer

69
Q

thickened epithelium covering papillary projections

A

papillary urothelial neoplasia of low malignant potential (PUNLMP)

70
Q

small cystic accumulation of semen in dilated efferent ducts or ducts of rete testes

A

spermatocele

71
Q

obliterative endarteritis w/ perviascular cuffs of lymphocytes and plasma cells in the testes

A

diffuse interstitial inflammatory manifestation of syphilis

72
Q

demographics for seminomas of testes

A

30s, never in infants

73
Q

carcinoma in situ of penis that never develops into invasive carcinoma and oftentimes regress spontaneously

A

bowenoid papulosis

74
Q

benign sexually transmitted wart caused by HPV 6 and sometimes HPV 11

A

condyloma accuminatum

75
Q

carcinoma in situ of the penis that transforms into infiltrating squamous cell carcinoma in 10% pts

A

bowen dz

76
Q

lesions on glans or inner surface of prepuce of penis due to HPV 16 and sometimes HPV 18

A

invasive squamous cell carcinoma of penis

77
Q

lymphatic spread of prostate cancer

A

lymphatics –> obturator nodes –> para-aortic nodes

78
Q

polypoid projection in urothelium of bladder

A

polypoid cystitis

79
Q

tumors extending through tunica albuginea into epididymus or cord

A

embryonal carcinoma

80
Q

most common benign paratesticular tumor

A

adenomatoid tumor

81
Q

activating mutations HRAS oncogene

A

urothelial tumor

82
Q

dense cords of hyaline CT outlined by prominent bM on histo

A

cryptorchidism

83
Q

staging of germ cell tumors of testes

A

1: confined to testes, epididymus, or spermatic cord
2: distant spread confined to retroperitoneal nodes below diaphragm
3: mets outside retroperitoneal nodes or above diaphragm

84
Q

causes of balanoposthitis

A

candida albicans
anaerobic bacteria
garnerella
pyogenic bacteria

85
Q

tumors associated w/ testicular dysgenesis syndrome

A

germ cell tumor of testes

86
Q

nonencapuslated, homogenous, yellow-white mucinous appearance, lacelike network of cells

A

yolk sac tumor

87
Q

chromosomal rearrangements that put ETS next to TMPRSS2 promoter

A

prostate cancer

88
Q

prognosis of yolk sac tumor

A

very good

89
Q

rare neoplasms comprised of mixture of germ cells and gonadal stromal elements

A

gonadoblastoma

90
Q

stems from acquired phagocytic dysfunction and arises in setting of chronic bacterial infection of bladder

A

malakoplakia

91
Q

most aggressive variant of prostate cancer

A

small cell cancer (neuroendocrine)

92
Q

“colloid carcinoma of the prostate”

A

mucinous prostate cancer

93
Q

compare where gonorrhea, TB, and syphilis affect in the male repro system

A

gonorrhea and TC: epididymus

syphilis: testes

94
Q

two manifestations of syphilis

A

1) gummas

2) diffuse interstitial inflammation (causes obliterative endarteritis)

95
Q

flat urothelial tumor is also called

A

CIS

96
Q

most common form of prostatitis seen today

A

chronic abacterial

97
Q

opening on dorsal side of penis

A

epispadias

98
Q

PCA3 biomarker

A

prostate cancer

99
Q

lactate dehydrogenase biomarker

A

germ cell tumors of testes

100
Q

hyperemia of mucosa and neutrophilic infiltrate

A

acute cystitis

101
Q

response of seminomas to radiation

A

highly responsive

102
Q

clinical triad of reactive arthritis

A

arthritis
conjunctivitis
urethritis

103
Q

instillation of BCG within bladder for sx of superficial bladder CA causes _____

A

granulomatous prostatitis

104
Q

testicular tumor w/ higher propensity for CNS involvement

A

testicular lymphoma

105
Q

majority of potentially treatable prostate cancer detected on needle biopsy as a result of screening have what gleason scoring

A

6 and 7

106
Q

most common tumor in men aged 15-34

A

germ cell tumor of testes

107
Q

originate from precursor lesion called intratubular germ cell neoplasia (ITCGN)

A

germ cell tumors of testes

108
Q

prostate cancer arises in the ____

A

peripheral zone

109
Q

opening on ventral side of penis

A

hypospadias

110
Q

accumulation of blood in the tunica vaginalis

A

hematocele

111
Q

lesions in testes of atypical primordial germ cells w/ large nuclei and clear cytoplasm

A

germ cell tumors of testes

112
Q

sx of urothelial tumor

A 
painless hematuria***
also sometimes:
- frequency
- urgency
- dysuria
113
Q

brunn nests

A

cystitis cystica/cystitis glandularis

114
Q

loss of genetic material on chromosome 9 (tumor suppressor genes CDKN2A, PTCH, TSC1)

A

urothelial tumor

115
Q

demographic for granulomatous (autoimmune) orchitis

A

middle age

116
Q

most common form of testicular neoplasm in men older than 60

A

non-hodgkin lymphoma causing testicular lymphoma

117
Q

gain of function mutation FGFR3

A

low grade papillary urothelial tumor

118
Q

michaelis-gutmann bodies in macrophages

A

malakoplakia

119
Q

carcinogens present in charred red meats, lycopenes (tomatoes), soy products, vitamin D

–> all increase risk for ____

A

prostate cancer

120
Q

PTEN tumor suppressor deletions

A

prostate cancer

121
Q

well-circumscribed, pale, fleshy, homogenous mass in testes devoid of hemorrhage or necrosis

A

seminomas

122
Q

gleason score 8-10

A

poorly to undifferentiated tumors w/ aggressive biologies, less likely to be cured

123
Q

most common cause painless testicular enlargement

A

germ cell tumors of testes

124
Q

demographics and typical organisms for nonspecific epididymitis and orchitis

A

sexually active men < 35: chlamydia and gonorrhea
men > 35: E. coli

uncommon in children, but when it happens it’s associated w/ a congenital genitourinary abnormality w/ infection w/ gram - rods

125
Q

pt presents with low back pain, dysuria, perineal and suprapubic discomfort

A

chronic bacterial prostatitis

Maddy - CPR II - some pharm (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions