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Pathophysiology > Ch. 12: Musculoskeletal Function > Flashcards

Ch. 12: Musculoskeletal Function Flashcards

1
Q

type of bone that has bodies longer than they are wide, growth plates at either end, hard outer surface, and inner regions that are less dense than the outer regions and contain bone marrow

A

long bones

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2
Q

what are the ends of long bones covered in? why?

A

hyaline cartilage to help protect the bone by reducing friction and absorbing shock

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3
Q

bones that are approximately as wide as they are long. primary function is providing support and stability with little movement and contain relatively large amounts of bone marrow

A

short bones

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4
Q

bones that are strong, level plates of bone that provide protection to the body’s organs and a base for muscular contraction

A

flat bones

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5
Q

in adults, where are most red blood cells formed?

A

in flat bones

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6
Q

bones that don’t fall into any other category and primarily consist of spongy bone with a thin outer layer of compact bone

A

irregular bone

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7
Q

bones that are usually short or irregular bones embedded in a tendon. often present in a tendon where it passes over a joint and serve to protect tendon

A

sesamoid bones

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8
Q

layer of connective tissue that covers compact bone surfaces and serves the site of muscle attachment

A

periosteum

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9
Q

cells that aid in remodeling and repair of bone

A

osteoblasts

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10
Q

which type of bone marrow is mainly in the bones of infants and childrens?

A

red bone marrow

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11
Q

why do adults have more yellow bone marrow?

A

red bone marrow is slowly replaced by fat as the human ages. yellow bone marrow begins to form at adolescence and is present in most bones by adulthood

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12
Q

can the yellow blood marrow be reactivated to produce red blood cells?

A

yes, under certain circumstances

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13
Q

break down bone

A

osteoclasts

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14
Q

osteocyte

A

when osteoblasts become surrounded by calcified extracellular material, the complex is referred to as an osteocyte

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15
Q

many osteocytes organized into thin layers

A

lamellae

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16
Q

bone needs a balance between what two things for optimal bone function?

A

mineral components and collagen

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17
Q

how does growth hormone increase the rate of bone growth?

A

by causing cartilage and bone cells to reproduce and lay down their intercellular matrix as well as by stimulating materialization within the matrix

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18
Q

how does bone grow in appositional growth?

A

new bone forms on the surface of a bone

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19
Q

how does bone grow in endochondral growth

A

bone eventually replaces new cartilage growth in the epiphyseal plate

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20
Q

how does vitamin D play a role in bone metabolism?

A

it controls the absorption of calcium from the intestines and increases calcium and potassium reabsorption from the kidneys

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21
Q

what type of cartilage is most closely associated with bones and commonly found in joints?

A

hyaline cartilage

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22
Q

the most common type of joint. freely moveable

A

synovial joint

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23
Q

what is synovial fluid secreted by? what is the purpose of it?

A

secreted by the synovial membrane in order to reduce friction. it also contains leukocytes to fight infections in the joints and provides nutrients to the cartilage

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24
Q

structure that joins one bone to another

A

joint capsule

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25
Q

connect bones to bones in a joint and provide support to the joint

A

ligaments

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26
Q

slightly moveable joints, like those in the vertebral column

A

amphiarthroses

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27
Q

immoveable joints, like those in the skull

A

synarthroses

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28
Q

how are synarthrotic joints held together?

A

fibrous connective tissue extends the space between the interlocking bones, holding them together

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29
Q

muscle that connects to bone and is the most frequent type. under voluntary control.

A

skeletal muscles

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30
Q

line the walls of hollow organs and tubes and are found in the eyes, skin, and glands. involuntary

A

smooth muscle

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31
Q

makes up the heart and is under involuntary control

A

cardiac muscle

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32
Q

connects muscle to bone

A

tendons

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33
Q

what do muscles that steady joints assist with?

A

posture

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34
Q

do muscle fibers have single nuclei or multiple?

A

multiple

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35
Q

threadlike structures that extend the entire length of the muscle fiber?

A

myofibrils

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36
Q

involved in muscular contraction, cellular movement, and cell shape maintenance

A

actin myofilaments

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37
Q

fibrous globulins that work with actin to form actomyosin

A

myosin myofilaments

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38
Q

gives muscle its striated appearance

A

the alignment of the myofilaments

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39
Q

how do muscle fibers contract?

A

by sliding actin filaments over myosin filaments. in this process the myosin filaments pull the actin filament

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40
Q

each muscle fiber is enclosed by a cell membrane called

A

the sarcolemma

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41
Q

what does increases in muscle size reflect?

A

increases in individual muscle fibers. this increase in muscle size and strength results from an increase in the amount of contractile protein inside the muscle fiber

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42
Q

what do congenital musculoskeletal disorders usually affect?

A

primarily affect posture

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43
Q

increase in curvature of the thoracic spine outward

A

kyphosis

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44
Q

when does kyphosis usually appear

A

in the adolescent growth spurts and can appear as poor posture. in adults, kyphosis usually develops secondary to osteoporosis, degenerative spine disease, or injury.

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45
Q

what can severe kyphosis impair?

A

lung expansion and ventilation

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46
Q

why are patients with kyphosis at increased risk of injury?

A

because their center of gravity is altered

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47
Q

what are some other manifestations of kyphosis?

A

fatigue, back pain, and spine stiffness

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48
Q

an exaggerated concave of the lumbar spine

A

lordosis

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49
Q

when does lordosis develop?

A

may develop during adolescent growth spurts or because of poor posture

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50
Q

what can increase the tendency of lordosis?

A

obesity because it can cause an altered center of gravity and postural compensation.

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51
Q

what is lordosis commonly associated with?

A

dwarfism

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52
Q

lateral deviation of the spine

A

scoliosis

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53
Q

what are some congenital musculoskeletal disorders?

A

kyphosis, scoliosis, lordosis

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54
Q

the lateral curvature of the spine may affect what two areas of the spine?

A

may affect the thoracic or lumbar area, or both. may also cause a rotation of the vertebrae on their axes

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55
Q

why does the curvature of scoliosis increase during growth spurts?

A

because stress on the vertebrae causes an imbalance in osteoclast activity

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56
Q

who is scoliosis most common in?

A

females

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57
Q

what may be some causes of scoliosis?

A

most cases are idiopathic, but may also be caused by genetic influences, embryonic developmental deformities, degenerative diseases, unequal leg lenghts, spinal nerve compression, and asymmetrical muscle support

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58
Q

what are some complications of scoliosis?

A

pulmonary compromise, chronic pain, degenerative arthritis of the spine, intervertebral disk disease, and sciatica

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59
Q

what do the clinical manifestations of scoliosis depend on?

A

the curvature of the spine and are exaggerated when the person bends over

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60
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of scoliosis?

A

asymmetrical hip and shoulder alignment, asymmetrical thoracic cage, asymmetrical gait, back pain or discomfort, fatigue, indications of respiratory compromise

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61
Q

are traumatic muscular disorders serious?

A

no they are usually mild and easily treated. they may be life threatening if some complications occur

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62
Q

what may occur with the musculoskeletal injury?

A

neurological dysfunction

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63
Q

break in the rigid structure of the bone

A

fracture

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64
Q

most common type of traumatic musculoskeletal disorders

A

fractures

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65
Q

how can fractures occur?

A

due to trauma or secondary to conditions that weaken the bone

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66
Q

what are fractures classified on?

A

characteristics such as the direction of the fracture, number of fracture lines, or other characteristics

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67
Q

what are the types of simple fracture?

A

transverse, oblique, and spiral

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68
Q

fracture with a single break in the bone and in which the bone ends maintain their alignment and position

A

simple fracture

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69
Q

a fracture straight across the bone shaft

A

transverse fracture

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70
Q

a fracture at an angle to the bone shaft

A

oblique fracture

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71
Q

a fracture that twists around the bone shaft

A

oblique fracture

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72
Q

fracture characterized by multiple fracture lines and bone pieces

A

comminuted fracture

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73
Q

incomplete fracture in which the bone is bent and only the outer curve of the bend is broken; commonly occurs in children because of minimal calcification and often heals quickly

A

greenstick fracture

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74
Q

fracture in which the bone is crushed or collapses into small pieces

A

compression fracture

75
Q

when the bone is broken into two or more separate pieces

A

complete fractures

76
Q

when the bone is partially broken

A

incomplete fracture

77
Q

when the skin is broken with a fracture

A

open, or compound, fracture

78
Q

fracture in which the skin is intact

A

closed fracture

79
Q

when one end of the bone is forced into the adjacent bone

A

impacted fractures

80
Q

fractures that result from a weakness in the bone structure secondary to conditions such as bone tremors or osteoporosis

A

pathologic fractures

81
Q

fractures that occur from repeated or excessive stress

A

stress fractures

82
Q

occur in the skull when the broken piece is forced inward on the brain

A

depressed fracture

83
Q

what happens when a bone breaks?

A

blood from the damaged blood vessels in the periosteum and bone marrow pours into the fracture and forms a hematoma, or blood clot. necrosis occurs to the broken ends of the bone because of the vessel damage, this necrotic tissue is reabsorbed and eventually replaced by new bones. within a few days, fibroblasts invate the clot and secrete collagen fibers which form a mass of cells and fibers called a callus which bridges the broken ends together inside and out. after a while osteoblasts slowly convert the callus to bone

84
Q

what are some complications that can occur because of a fracture?

A

delayed union, malunion, or nonunion. compartment syndrome, fat embolism, osteomyelitis, and osteonecrosis

85
Q

results from pressure increases in a compartment, usually the muscle fascia in the case of fractures. the pressure impinges on the nerves and blood vessels within the compartment, potentially compromising the distal extremity.

A

compartment syndrome

86
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of compartment syndrome?

A

excruciating pain beyond what would be expected given the injury

87
Q

occurs when fat has the opportunity to enter the bloodstream after a fracture to one of the long bones. the emboli can travel to other vital organs such as the lungs, heart, or brain which can be fatal.

A

fat embolism

88
Q

how can a fat embolism be prevented?

A

through early immobilization of the joint

89
Q

an infection of bone tissue that often goes undetected and can take months to resule and can result in tissue or bone necrosis

A

osteomyelitis

90
Q

avascular necrosis. the death of bone tissue due to a loss of blood supply. can result from displaced fractures or dislocation

A

osteonecrosis

91
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of fractures?

A

deformity, swelling at the site, inability to move the affected limb, crepitus, pain, paresthesia, muscle flaccidity progressing to spasm

92
Q

separation of two bones where they meet at a joint

A

dislocation

93
Q

how does dislocation affect the joint?

A

causes deformity and immobility of the joints and may damage nearby ligaments and nerves

94
Q

what does dislocation usually result from?

A

injury to a joint. usually from a sudden impact, but they may also be congenital or pathologic

95
Q

where are dislocations common?

A

in the shoulder and clavicle joints

96
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of a dislocation?

A

visibly out-of-place, discolored, or deformed joint, limited movement, swelling or bruising, intense pain especially with movement or weight bearing, paresthesia near the injury

97
Q

injury to a ligament that often involves stretching or tearing of the alignment caused by a joint being forced into an unnatural position

A

sprain

98
Q

what sprains occur most often?

A

ankle and knee sprains

99
Q

why does a sprained joint swell?

A

the injury triggers the inflammatory process, resulting in edema and pain at the site

100
Q

why does a sprained joint bruise?

A

blood vessels may be damaged, resulting in bleeding and bruising. this bleeding in the joint capsule can delay healing

101
Q

what happens if the sprained joint has a tear?

A

granulation tissue develops along with the inflammation. collagen fibers form to create a link between the torn ligament fragments and eventually fibrous tissue binds them together.

102
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of a sprain?

A

joint stiffness, limited function, disability, and discoloration

103
Q

injury to a muscle or tendon that often involves stretching or tearing of the muscle or tendon

A

strain

104
Q

does a strain develop suddenly?

A

it can develop suddenly or over time

105
Q

what does a strain result from?

A

an awkward muscle movement or excess force that can be caused by an accident, improper use of a muscle or overuse of a muscle

106
Q

what is the most common site for strains

A

the lower back

107
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of strains?

A

pain, stiffness, difficulty moving the affected muscle, skin discoloration, and edema

108
Q

state in which the nucleus pulosus (the inner gelatinous component of the intervetebral disk) protrudes through the annulus fibrosus (the tough outer covering of the disk) may also be called a slipped disk

A

herniated intervetebral disk

109
Q

does a herniated intervertebral disk occur suddenly?

A

it can occur suddenly or gradually

110
Q

what problems can a herniated intervertebral disk cause?

A

it can cause orthopedic problems or neurologic problems because protrusions into the extradural space can exert pressure on the spinal cord, interfering with nerve conduction. sensory, motor, or autonomic function may be impaired depending on the location

111
Q

what is the most common region for a herniated intervertebral disk?

A

the lumbosacral region

112
Q

what is the usual cause of a herniated intervertebral disk?

A

often occurs due to improper body mechanics, lifting heavy duty objects, or trauma. additional contributing factors include degenerative changes secondary to aging and demineralization secondary to metabolic condtions

113
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of a herniated intervertebral disk?

A

may be asymptomatic. when present: sciatica; pain, paresthesia, or weakness in the lower back and one leg, or in the neck, shoulder, chest, or arm; low back pain or leg pain that is worse when sitting, coughing, sneezing, laughing, or bending; limited mobility

114
Q

what are the types of traumatic musculoskeletal disorders?

A

fractures, dislocation, sprains, strains, herniated intervertebral disk

115
Q

what are the types of metabolic bone disorders?

A

osteoporosis, rickets and osteomalacia, Paget’s diseas

116
Q

what are metabolic bone disorders?

A

variety of bone conditions caused by mineral abnormalities that can be caused by genetic factors or dietary deficits

117
Q

condition characterized by progressive loss of bone calcium that leaves the bone brittle.

A

osteoprosis

118
Q

what can the loss of bone mass of osteoporosis occur due to?

A

due to either a decrease in osteoblast activity or an increase in osteoclast activity

119
Q

what occurs during osteoporosis?

A

the spongy bone becomes porous, particularly in the vertebrae and wrist, and the compact bone becomes thin

120
Q

is osteoporosis a primary or secondary condition?

A

it can be either

121
Q

what are risk factors for the development of osteoporosis?

A

genetic, dietary, and hormonal influences. calcium deficiency, deficient intake of protein, vitamin C and vitamin D as well as excessive intake of phosphorus. caucasians and asians. smoking, excessive alcohol intake or caffeine consumption, use of certain medications, specific health conditions, and being underweight

122
Q

what does osteoporosis lead to?

A

increased risk for fractures

123
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of osteoporosis?

A

often asymptomatic in early stages, fracture may be the first indicator. osteopenia, bone pain or tenderness, fractures with little or no trauma, low back and neck pain, kyphosis, height reduction over time

124
Q

softening and weakening of the bones in children, usually because of an extreme and prolonged vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate deficiency

A

rickets

125
Q

rickets in adults

A

osteomalacia

126
Q

what happens if the blood levels of minerals become too low?

A

the minerals are released out of the bones to maintain homeostasis and this causes the bones to become weak and soft

127
Q

why may a person develop rickets or osteomalacia?

A

they may have a lack of vitamin D production by the skin, lactose intolerance may cause a dietary deficiency, infants who are only breastfed because breast milk does not contain the proper amount of vitamin D, conditions that reduce the digestion or absorption of fats, insufficient dietary calcium and phosphorus intake (rare in developed countries), genetic influences that cause the kidneys to be unable to reabsorb phosphate, children who have liver disorders or who can’t convert vitamin D to its active form

128
Q

what the clinical manifestations of rickets? do they develop suddenly or slowly?

A

they develop slowly as the bones weaken. skeletal deformities, fractures, delayed growth in height or limbs, dental problems, bone pain, muscle cramps or weakness

129
Q

progressive condition characterized by abnormal bone destruction and remodeling, which results in bone deformities

A

Paget’s disease

130
Q

what occurs in Paget’s disease?

A

the rate at which old bone is broken down and new bone forms is distorted and bone turnover proceeds at 20 times the normal rate. excessive bone destruction occurs along with the replacement of bone by fibrous tissue and abnormal bone. the new bone is bigger but weakened and filled with new blood vessels. over time, the disease results in fragile misshapen bones

131
Q

what bones is Paget’s disease most common in?

A

the pelvis, long bones, the skull, and vertebrae. it may be present in one or two areas on the skeleton or it may occur throughout the body

132
Q

what is the cause of Paget’s disease?

A

it is unknown, but thought to be caused by a virus capable of increasing osteoclast activity or genetic defects that produce an increase in interferon 6

133
Q

what are some complications that may occur with Paget’s disease?

A

pathologic fractures, osteoarthritis, heart failure, osteosarcoma, and nerve compression

134
Q

what do the clinical manifestations of Paget’s disease depend on?

A

the area affected

135
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of Paget’s disease?

A

bone pain, skeletal deformities, fractures, headaches, hearing and vision loss, joint pain or stiffness, neck pain, reduced height, warmth over the affected bone, paresthesia or radiating pain in the affected region, hypercalcemia

136
Q

what are inflammatory joint disorders?

A

a group of arthritis conditions that are often degenerative in nature. involve inflammation that can be triggered by an autoimmune response, excessive use, increased physical stress, or injury. includes osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, gout, amkylosing spondylitis

137
Q

localized joint disease characterized by deterioration of articulating cartilage and its underlying bone as well as bony overgrowth. also known as wear-and-tear arthritis and degenerative joint disease

A

osteoarthritis

138
Q

what occurs to the joint during osteoarthritis?

A

the joint of the cartilage becomes rough and worn, interfering with joint movement. tissue damage triggers the release of enzymes from local cells that accelerate cartilage disintegration. eventually the subchondral bone is exposed and damaged and cysts and osteophytes develop as the bone attempts to remodel itself. pieces of the osteophytes and cartilage break off into the synovial cavity, which further increases irritation. additionally nearby muscles and ligaments become weakened and loose. these changes cause narrowing of the joint space, joint instability, stiffness and pain

139
Q

what are the most common sites affected by osteoarthritis?

A

knees, hips, and joint in the hands and spine

140
Q

is osteoarthritis inflammatory in origin?

A

no, but inflammation results from tissue irritation.

141
Q

what causes the erosion of cartilage with osteoarthritis?

A

it occurs secondary to excessive mechanical stress on the joint. may occur primarily in which the cause is idiopathic

142
Q

when does disease onset of osteoarthritis usually start?

A

after age 40

143
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of osteoarthritis?

A

joint pain that is exacerbated during or after movement or weight bearing, joint tenderness with light pressure, joint stiffness especially upon rising in the morning or after a period of inactivity, enlarged hard joints, joint swelling, limited joint range of motion, crepitus, hard nodules around the affected joint

144
Q

a systemic autoimmune condition involving multiple joints

A

rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

145
Q

what does the inflammatory process affect in RA?

A

primarily affects the synovial joints, but may affect other organs

146
Q

what pattern does RA follow?

A

it typically follows an autoimmune pattern of remissions and exacerbations

147
Q

how does RA usually start and progress?

A

with an initial acute inflammatory episode, after which the joint may appear to recover. the process is repeated with each exacerbation, including synovitis, pannus formation, cartilage erosion, fibrosis, and ankylosis. over time, the recurring inflammation has a cumulative effect as it thickens the synovium which can eventually invade and destroy the cartilage and bone within the joint. the muscles, tendons, and ligaments that hold the joint together weaken and stretch

148
Q

what joints are affected with RA?

A

joints on both sides of the body equally. wrists, fingers, knees, feet, and ankles are most commonly affected. gradually, because of the stretching, the joint loses its shape and alignment

149
Q

what causes RA?

A

the exact cause is unknown. it is thought that genetic vulnerability permits a virus or bacterium to trigger the disease

150
Q

what are the risk factors for the development of RA?

A

family history, advancing age, and smoking. more common in women

151
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

fatigue, anorexia, low-grade fever, lymphadenopathy, malaise, muscle spasms, morning stiffness lasting longer than 1 hour, warmth, tenderness, and stiffness in the joints when not used for as little as one hour, bilateral joint pain, swollen and boggy joints, limited joint range of motion, contractures and joint deformity, unsteady gait, depression, anemia

152
Q

inflammatory disease resulting from deposits of uric acid crystals in tissues and fluids within the body

A

gout

153
Q

how does gout occur?

A

normally uric acid dissolves in the blood and is excreted by the kidneys. gout results from an overproduction or under-excretion of uric acid, although not all people with hyperuricemia have gout

154
Q

who is gout most common in?

A

African Americans and men

155
Q

what are factors contributing to the development of gout?

A

overweight or obesity, cetain diseases, consuming alcohol, using certain medications, and eating a diet rich in meat and seafood

156
Q

what are the four phases that gout usually follows?

A

initially the indvidual is asymptomatic, though uric acid levels are climbing in the blood stream and crystals are being deposited in the tissues. over time, these crystals accumulate, damaging tissue. this damage triggers an acute inflammation that characterizes the second phase of gout, referred to as acute flares or attacks. after the acute attack subsides, the person may enter intercritical periods in which the disease remains clinically inactive until the next flare - third phase. continued deposits of crystals in the tissue. in the final stage, chronic gout is characterized by chronic arthritis, associated with soreness and aching of joints

157
Q

what is a flare distinguished by?

A

pain, burning, redness, swelling, and warmth at the affected joint lasting days to weeks

158
Q

what are reoccurent attacks of gout usually precipitated by?

A

sudden increases in serum uric acid

159
Q

large, hard nodules composed of uric acid crystals deposited in soft tissue- usually in cooler areas of the body - which can cause a local inflammatory response and drain a chalky fluid

A

tophi

160
Q

why might renal calculi be associated with gout?

A

some are made of uric acid

161
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of clinical manifestations?

A

intense pain at the affected joints that frequently starts during the night and is often described as throbbing, crushing, buring, or excrutiating; joint warmth, redness, swelling, and tenderness; fever

162
Q

how long can a person with gout go without having another attack?

A

some may go months or even years between gout attacks. they are all varying lengths of time

163
Q

what do patients who develop chronic arthritis due to gout develop?

A

joint deformities and limited joint mobility

164
Q

progressive inflammatory disorder affecting the sarcoiliac joints, intervertebral spaces, and costovertebral joints

A

ankylosing spondylitis

165
Q

where does the inflammation associated with ankylosing spondylitis start?

A

in the vertebral joints

166
Q

what occurs as the inflammation persists with ankylosing spondylitis?

A

new bone forms in an attempt to remodel the damage. fibrosis and aalcification, or fusion, of the joints follows the vertebral joints become fixed or ankylosed and lose mobility.

167
Q

where does inflammation of ankylosing spondylitis start?

A

in the lower back at the sarcoiliac joints and progresses up the spine

168
Q

how do the vertebrae appear in ankylosing spondylitis?

A

the vertebrae appear square, and the vertebral column becomes rigid and loses curvature

169
Q

what are the roles of the musculoskeletal system?

A

collaborates with the nervous system to produce movement, stores calcium and other minerals, stores fat, site of hematopoiesis

170
Q

what is thought to be the cause of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

the cause is unknown, but genetic factors are thought to be involved.

171
Q

who is ankylosing spondylitis more common in?

A

more common in males, typically between the ages of 20-40

172
Q

what are some complications of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

kyphosis, osteoporosis, respiratory compromise (due to reduced lung expansion resulting from fusion of the rib cage), endocarditis, and uveitis (inflammation of the eye)

173
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

intermittent lower back pain, pain and stiffness that typically worsens with inactivity, lower back pain that evolves to include the entire back, pain in other joints, muscle spasms, fatigue, low-grade fever, weight loss, kyphosis

174
Q

what can chronic muscle disorders lead to?

A

chronic pain, weakness, and paralysis. may be progressive.

175
Q

group of inherited disorders characterized by degeneration of skeletal muscle. muscles become weaker as damage worsens

A

muscular dystrophy

176
Q

how many different forms of muscular dystrophy are there?

A

nine different forms, all with their own different patterns of inheritance and pathogenesis

177
Q

what is the commonality across all forms of MD?

A

the presence of a muscle protein abnormality. This causes muscle dysfunction, weakness, muscle fiber loss, and inflammation, and it may involve other tissues. fat and fibrous connective tissue eventually replace skeletal muscle fibers.

178
Q

what are complications of MD?

A

cardiomyopathy, recurrent respiratory infections, respiratory compromise, death

179
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of MD?

A

intellectual disability, muscle weakness that slowly worsens to hypotonia, muscle spasms, delayed development of muscle motor skills, difficulty using one or more muscle groups, poor coordination, drooling, ptosis, frequent falls, problems walking, Gower’s maneuver
progressive loss of joint mobility and contractures, unilateral calf hypertrophy, scoliosis or lordosis

180
Q

is inflammation associated with fibromyalgia?

A

no apparent inflammation or degeneration is associated with it

181
Q

what may be the cause of fibromyalgia?

A

may be related to an altered central neurotransmission that results in sensitivity to substance P (a neurotransmitter responsible for pain sensation)

182
Q

what occurs in fibromyalgia?

A

the brain’s pain receptors seem to develop a sort of pain memory and become more sensitive to pain signals.

183
Q

who is fibromyalgia more common in?

A

women

184
Q

what are conditions that are often associated with fibromyalgia?

A

RA, systemic lupus erythematosus, and ankylosing spondylitis

Pathophysiology (11 decks)

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