Cellular pathology: Cellular Growth Regulation Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 main types of cell growth?

A
  • Growth of a population of cells
  • Growth at the cellular level (cell cycle)
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2
Q

There are 2 ways in which cells within a population can grow, what are these 2 ways?

A
  • Increase in the number of cells (Hyperplasia)
  • Increase in cell size (Hypertrophy)
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3
Q

For growth of cells at cellular level there are also 2 ways in which they can grow. What are they?

A
  • Increase in size
  • Increase in cell division
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4
Q

What is apoptosis?

A
  • A coordinated program of cell dismantling ending in phagocytosis
  • Can be thought of as a “lack of cell growth”
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5
Q

What proteins are able to affect cell growth?

A
  • Growth factors
  • Cytokines
  • Interleukins
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6
Q

What mechanisms do proteins such as cytokines use to affect cell growth? For each mechanism give an example of a protein that uses it to affect cell growth.

A

They are able to:

  • Stimulate proliferation and maintain cell survival - e.g. EGF (Epidermal growth factor)
  • Stimulate differentiation and inhibit proliferation - e.g.TGFβ (Transforming growth factor β)
  • Induce apoptosis - e.g. TNFα (Tumour necrosis factor α)
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7
Q

What is the general term used to describe proteins that are able to stimulate cell proliferation?

A

Mitogens

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8
Q

What are the 3 broad classes of signalling that proteins such as cytokines and interleukins use to affect cell growth?

A
  • Paracrine: Protein produced locally to stimulate proliferation of a different cell type that has the appropriate cell surface receptor
  • Autocrine: Protein produced by a cell that also expresses the appropriate cell surface receptor
  • Endocrine: Protein released systemically to produce effects on distant cells
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9
Q

Describe what happens during each phase of the cell cycle

A
  • M-phase (Mitosis) - Mitotic cell division occurs leading to production of two identical daughter cells from one parental cell
  • G1 (Gap phase 1) - Cell growth, mRNA and protein synthesis
  • S-phase (Synthesis) - DNA replication occurs
  • G2 (Gap phase 2) - Cell growth, protein synthesis
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10
Q

What is the G0 phase of the cell cycle?

A

It occurs when a daughter cell produced during mitosis “leaves” the cell cycle and becomes arrested

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11
Q

What are cells within the G0 phase of the cell cycle known as?

A

Quiescent cells

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12
Q

What can happen to quiescent cells once they leave the cell cycle?

A
  • They can receive a mitogen which will cause them to re-enter the cell cycle
  • They can also receive proteins that induce differentiation, e.g.TGFβ, which will result in these cells being in a state of terminal differentiation (cannot re-enter cell cycle)
  • Terminally differentitated cells will eventually begin to shed
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13
Q

State the number of sets of chromosomes (Ploidy) at each stage of the cell cycle

A
  • G1 phase: 2N (2 sets of chromosomes)
  • S phase: 2N (2 sets of chromosomes)
  • G2 phase: 4N (4 sets of chromosomes)
  • M phase: 4N (4 sets of chromosomes)
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14
Q

Why do cells in G2 and M phase have 4 sets of chromosomes?

A

Because both occur after S phase and in S phase each one of the 2 sets of chromosomes are replicated resulting in the production of 4 set of chromosomes.

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15
Q

Give a brief overview of the process of DNA replication

A
  • DNA is replicated semiconservatively (daughter cells inherit one parental and one new strand)
  • Parental DNA unwound to form replication fork
  • New DNA strands synthesised in the 5’ to 3’ direction via the replication machinery
  • Synthesis of leading strand is continuous, requires a single primer, as DNA polymerase working in 5’ to 3’ direction means it moves towards replication fork
  • Synthesis of lagging strand discontinous, requires multiple primers, as DNA polymerase working in 5’ to 3’ direction means it moves away from replication fork
  • Synthesis of lagging strand gives rise to Okazaki fragments which are ligated together after removal of the RNA primer
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16
Q

Describe what happens during each of the stages of mitosis

A
  • Prophase - Chromosomes condense, centrosomes move to opposite poles, mitotic spindle begins to form
  • Prometaphase - Nuclear membrane breaks down, Kinetochores attach to mitotic spindle
  • Metaphase - Centrosomes at opposite poles, chromosomes line up at the equator and attach to mitotic spindle
  • Anaphase - Chromatids are seperated and migrate to opposite poles
  • Telophase - Chromosomes decondense, nuclear envelope reforms thus froming the daughter nuclei
17
Q

What process occurs after the telophase of mitosis?

A
  • Cytokinesis - Contractile ring constricts causing the cell to split into two daughter cells
18
Q

Give some examples of drugs that are active during the S-phase of the cell cycle. For each example explain the effect that they have on the S-phase

A
  • 5-Fluorouracil - An analogue of thymidine that blocks the thymidylate synthesis. Without Thymidylate DNA unable to be replicated completely so cell will be stuck in S phase
  • Bromodeoxyuridine (BrdU) - Another analogue that can be incorporated into DNA and be detected using fluorescence to identify which cells have gone through the S-phase of the cell cycle
19
Q

When you incorporate Tamoxifen into breast cancer cells that have been stained using Bromodeoxyuridine, the no. of breast cancer cells that go through the S-phase of the cell cycle decreases compared to when Tamoxifen hasn’t been incorporated. Why is this?

A
  • Tamoxifen is an Oestrogen antagonist and competes with Oestrogen to bind to the Oestrogen receptor
  • When tamoxifen binds to oestrogen receptor the tamoxifen-oestrogen receptor complex formed is unable to induce expression of genes that the breast cancer cells need to survive
  • This means the no. of breast cancer cells will decrease which is why less breast cancer cells will have gone through the S-phase of the cell cycle
20
Q

Give some examples of drugs that are active during the M-phase of the cell cycle. For each example explain the effect that they have on the M-phase

A
  • Colchicine - Stabalises free tubulin which prevents microtubule polymerisation. Without microtubules mitotic spindle is unable to form so chromosomes are unable to be seperated during mitosis
  • Vinca alkaloids - Also stabalises free tubulin
  • Paclitaxel - Stablises microtubules preventing de-polymerisation back into tubulin
21
Q

What are the different checkpoints throughout the cell cycle?

A
  • G1 checkpoint: Cell checks for DNA damage, if cell size is correct and whether it has sufficient metabolite nutrient stores to efficiently go through cell cycle
  • G2 checkpoint: Cell checks for DNA damage and if the DNA is completely replicated
  • M-phase checkpoint: Cell checks that chromosomes are aligned properly on mitotic spindle
22
Q

What part of the cell cycle is the main site for cell growth? Why is this?

A
  • G1
  • This is because it is the only part of the cell cycle in which cells can respond to growth factors
23
Q

What proteins are able to regulate the cell cycle?

A
  • Cyclin dependent kinase (CDK) - Enzymes that phosphorylate the target proteins
  • Cyclin - Regulators of CDK
  • CDK needs to form a complex with cyclin in order to become active
24
Q

What are some of the ways in which CDK-cyclin activity can be regulated?

A
  • Promote gene expression of Cyclins/CDKs or promote destruction via the proteasome
  • Increase level of phosphorylation
  • Increase level of de-phosphorylation
  • Bind cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors
25
Q

Explain how Cells are able to advance into the S-phase of the cell cycle once they reach the G1 checkpoint

A
  • Unphosphorylated retinoblastoma (RB) binds to E2F which prevents E2F from inducing expression of genes required for G1/S-phase progeression
  • Once cell realises it’s adequate to progress into S-phase it will produce Cyclin-D
  • Cylin-D binds to CDK4 causing it to activate
  • Activated CDK4 phosphorylates retinoblastoma which causes it to dissociate from E2F
  • This allows E2F to induce expression of particular genes needed for the S-phase
26
Q

What are some of the S-Phase proteins that are expressed as a result of E2F?

A
  • Cyclin E
  • DNA polymerase
  • Thymidine kinase
  • PCNA
27
Q

What are the 2 families of Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors?

A
  • CDK inhibitory protein/kinase inhibitory protein family (CIP/KIP) or CDKN1 - inhibit all other CDK complexes (late G1, G2 and M)
    • Gradually released by G1 CDKs allowing for activation of later CDKs
  • Inhibitor of kinase 4 family (INK4) or CDKN2 - specifically inhibit G1 CDKs, e.g. CDK4
28
Q

What proteins are able to induce the expresion of each family of Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors?

A
  • CIP/KIP or CDKN1 - Expression weakly stimulated by TGFβ and strongly stimulated by DNA damage (inloves TP53)
  • INK4 or CDKN2 - Expression stimulated by TGFβ
29
Q

Briefly explain how growth factors induce cyclin expression

A
  • Growth factor will bind to growth factor receptors on cell surface
  • This causes the activation of a series of intracellular signal transducers
  • These will eventually lead to waves of transcription factor activation within the nucleus which results in the transcription of specific cyclin genes
  • mRNA produced from cyclin gene expression will be transcribed to produce the specific cyclin protein
30
Q

Describe the sequence of events within the cell cycle that are triggered by growth factors

A
  • Growth factor signalling activates expression of early genes (FOS, JUN and MYC)
  • Early genes are transcription factors and induce transcription of delayed genes (Cyclin D, CDK4/6 and E2F transcription factors)
  • Retinoblastoma (RB) bind to E2F transcription factors
  • Cyclin D-CDK4 complexes form and as a result begin to hyperphosphorylate retinoblastoma and release E2F
  • Because E2F is released it induces the transcription of a third wave of genes, E2F responsive genes, e.g. Cyclin E and S-Phase proteins
31
Q

What sequence of events occur if DNA damage is detected at a specific checkpoint in the cell cycle?

A
  • Cell cyle is stopped - done be cyclin -dpendent kinase inhibitors
  • An attempt is made to repair DNA damage - done be nucleotide or base excision enzymes
  • If the DNA damage can’t be repaired programmed cell death occurs - done by bcl-2 family or caspases
32
Q

What gene is activated in response to DNA damage?

A

p53

33
Q

How is the p53 gene activated in response to DNA damage and what occurs as a result of its activation?

A
  • Mutation causes DNA damage
  • DNA damage is detected by kinases which are activated in response and go on to phosphorylate, and therefore activate, p53
  • Phosphorylated p53 induces the expression of CDKN1s which causes cell cycle arrest
  • Phosphorylated p53 also induces expression of DNA repair genes which will produce proteins that will try and repair DNA
  • If DNA repair not possible then p53 will induce expression of genes involved in apoptosis
34
Q

What happens to p53 if it isn’t phosphorylated?

A

p53 is destroyed by the proteosome