Cellular Final Flashcards
Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? _______ have a nucleus; ________ have a nucleoid
Eukaryotes, Prokaryotes
Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? _______ have less DNA and fewer genes.
Prokaryotes
Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? __________ have a single circular DNA molecule; _____ have multiple linear chromosomes.
Prokaryotes, Eukaryotes
Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ________ contain an array of complex membranous & membrane-bound organelles.
Eukaryotes
Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ______ have a complex cytoskeleton.
Eukaryotes
Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ______ have 70S and 80S ribosomes
Eukaryotes
Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ______ have complex flagella and cilia.
Eukaryotes
Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ______ have greater diversity of metabolism and habitat.
Prokaryotes
The oldest ____ fossils are 2.7 billion years old. The oldest _____ fossils are 1.8 billion years old.
prokaryotic, eukaryotic
Sequencing ____ places all organisms into three Domains: Bacteria, Archaea, and Eucarya?
16s and 18s rRNAs
Sequencing of organisms shows evidence of _______ between prokaryotes, and between eukaryotes and their ____.
lateral gene transfer, symbionts
Genes involved in transcription, translation, and DNA replication are less likely to be involved in _____, so are the best subjects for determining phylogeny.
gene transfer
What is the Endosymbiosis theory?
An anaerobic, heterotrophic Archaea ancestor ingested a small aerobic Eubacteria ancestor. These endosymbionts evolved into mitochondria.
How did other organelles evolve?
by gradual evolution
Early eukaryotes then ingested cyanobacteria ancestors giving rise to ______.
chloroplasts
What are 3 factors of a virus structure?
Protein coat or capsid, Nucleic acid, Some have an envelope
________ proteins must attach to host cell for infection to occur.
Capsid or envelope
_____ are not cells.
Viruses
Viruses are all ________.
obligate intracellular parasites
Which is smaller, bacteria or viruses?
Viruses
____ contain no cytoplasm.
Viruses
A covalent bond is the _____.
sharing of electron pairs
A chemical bond formed between two ions with opposite charges. They form when one atom gives up one or more electrons to another atom.
Ionic bonds
A weak bond between two molecules resulting from an electrostatic attraction between a proton in one molecule and an electronegative atom in the other.
Hydrogen bonds
The interactions between nonpolar molecules are called ______.
Hydrophobic interactions
Weak, short-range electrostatic attractive forces between uncharged molecules, arising from the interaction of permanent or transient electric dipole moments.
van der Waals force
Strong electrostatic attractive forces between molecules or atoms that occur after the transfer of electrons.
ionic bonds
Place in order by bond strength. Hydrogen bonds, van der Waals force, Covalent bonds, Hydrophobic interactions, Ionic bonds
Covalent bonds Ionic bonds Hydrogen bonds Hydrophobic interactions van der Waals force
simple sugars differ by number of carbons in the backbone; each carbon has a hydroxyl or carbonyl group
Carbohydrates
amino acids that each have an amine and carboxyl group, but have different R-groups: polar charged, polar uncharged, nonpolar and unique.
Proteins
nucleotides that are made of a sugar, phosphate and base, they have different sugars and bases: ribose/deoxyribose, A/T/G/C/U
Nucleic acids
Glucose is a carbohydrate in its (monomer/polymer) form.
monomer
Starch is a carbohydrate in its
polymer
Amino acids are proteins in their (monomer/polymer) form.
monomer
Chemists call these monomers “nucleotides.” The five pieces are uracil, cytosine, thymine, adenine, and guanine.
Nucleic acids
RNA and DNA are polymers of ____.
Nucleic acids
_____ Amino Acid R-Groups form ionic bonds in tertiary and quaternary protein structure, and with other molecules
Polar charged
can form hydrogen bond in secondary, tertiary and quaternary protein structure, and with other molecules.
Polar non charged
_____ Amino Acid R-Groups form van der Waals and hydrophobic interactions in tertiary protein structure.
Non polar
_____ Amino Acid R-Groups in which glycine adds flexibility to the polypeptide, proline produces kinks and hinges in the secondary structure, cysteine produces disulfide bridges in tertiary and quaternary structure.
Unique amino acids
The smallest amino acid is ____. It is made up of -H.
Glycine
____ is a non polar ring of amino acids.
Proline
____ is an amino acid made up of -S-H
Cysteine
Tertiary protein structure: Most proteins are composed of _____.
two or more distinct domains
Tertiary protein structure: Many proteins have arisen by the fusion of _____.
gene parts from different ancestral proteins
Tertiary protein structure: Shuffling of domains creates proteins with ______.
unique combinations of activities
Quaternary protein structure – most proteins are composed of _______.
more than one polypeptide chain
proteins in different organisms that come from a common ancestral gene, natural selection has produced different variants of the protein.
Homologous proteins
The proteins of halophiles have more acidic amino acids directed outside, while thermophiles have more acidic and basic amino acids directed inside. This is an example of a ______.
Homologous protein
different versions of a protein found in the same organism adapted to function in different tissues or at different developmental stages. These two proteins arose from a single ancestral gene
Isoforms
proteins that have arisen from a single ancestral gene. Over time the gene undergoes a series of duplications. The duplicate genes evolve independently. These proteins may evolve to perform different functions.
Protein families
What do these all have in common? Protein catalysts, Required is small amounts, Have no affects on the thermodynamics of a reaction, Lower the energy of activation required, High level of catalytic activity, High level of specificity
They are properties of enzymes.
analogue of the substrates for transpeptidases, irreversible inhibiting by going into the active sites and forming covalent bonds.
Penicillin
destroys penicillins
Penicillinase
Initially no disease causing bacteria contained ______, but picked them up from other bacteria by conjugation, transduction and transformation.
penicillinase
penicillinase resistant penicillin
Methicillin
How have other bacteria developed resistance to penicillins?
by cell wall modification, membrane pumps, and reduce affinity of the transpeptidase for the antibiotics.
binds to the peptide substrate causing the transpeptidases to end the polymer incorrectly .
Vancomycin
____ strains have aquired several enzymes from Enterococcus faecium to become resistant to antibiotics.
Staphylococcus aureus
the enzyme pathway that breaks down glucose to form ATP, NADH, and pyruvate.
Glycolysis
Which steps of glycolysis add phosphates from two ATPs to the glucose molecule?
steps 1-3
Which steps of glycolysis produce two glyceraldehyde phosphate molecules per glucose?
steps 4 and 5
Which steps of glycolysis produce four ATPs, two NADHs, and two pyruvates per glucose?
steps 6-10
Products and Energy Obtained when Cells Oxidize Glucose: Anaerobic oxidation: ____ produces pyruvate and a small amount of ATP, while ____ keeps it going and produces products like ethyl alcohol and lactic acid.
glycolysis, fermentation
Products and Energy Obtained when Cells Oxidize Glucose: Aerobic oxidation produces ___ and ___ and _____.
CO2 and H2O and large amounts of ATP
Reactions in Glycolysis: Steps 1 and 3 are coupled to ____.
ATP hydrolysis
Reactions in Glycolysis: Steps 7 and 10 involve _____.
substrate phosphorylation
Reactions in Glycolysis: Steps 6 depends on _____.
fermentation or aerobic respiration.
amphipathic, embedded in the bilayer, functions include surface receptors, channels and transporters
Integral membrane proteins
associated with the membrane by weak electrostatic bond, usually on the cytoplasmic side; some remain on the surface, some come and go from the surface, and some penetrate the bilayer
Peripheral membrane proteins
covalently bound usually to the outside surface, function as receptors, enzymes, and cell-adhesion protein
Lipid anchored membrane proteins
What is Band 3 in integral membrane proteins?
a channel that allows movement of Cl- and HCO3- in and out of the cell
What is Glucophorin A in integral membrane protein? What does it have?
the protozoan that causes malaria attaches to this protein. It has oligosaccharides outside that make RBCs repel each other.
What is spectrin in peripheral proteins?
fibrillar membrane skeleton that determines the biconcave disk shape
What does ankyrin do in peripheral proteins?
links spectrin covalently to the inside surface of the plasma membrane
_____ is a member of the spectrin family of proteins that is found in the membranes of muscle cells.
Dystrophin
Mutations in dystrophin are the cause of ______.
muscular dystrophy
Cystic fibrosis an ___ disease.
inherited
What is cystic fibrosis caused by?
a defective CFTR protein which controls the movement of ions across mucus membranes.
_____ leads to decreased fluid bathing the epithelial cells of the respiratory lining caused by abnormal flux of Cl-, HCO3-, and Na+. This causes increase mucus viscosity and impairs cilia.
CFTR deficiency
______ binds to the extra cellular end of the CFTR protein, which may lead to its ingestion and destruction. This bacterium is a leading cause of death of cystic fibrosis patients.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
How might the heterozygous CFTR condition may confer an advantage?
From the effects of cholera and From typhoid fever
What does cholera cause that is an advantage of the heterozygous CFTR condition?
thicker mucus in the intestine
What does typhoid fever cause that is an advantage of the heterozygous CFTR condition?
the salmonella bacteria attaches to the CFTR protein to enter
The bacterial KcsA K + Channel and the eukaryotic voltage-regulated K + channel are _______.
virtually identical
When a ____ moves into the KcsA K + channel, the K+ at the opposite end is ejected into the cell. ___ opens the channel by causing a conformational change in the M2 helices which hinge open at the cytoplasmic side.
third K+, Low pH
Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Inner membrane contains ______ such as devoid of cholesterol, rich in the lipid cardiolipin.
bacterial characteristics
Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Outer membrane contains characteristics of ____, in that they have porins.
Gram–bacteria outer membranes
Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Mitochondrial matrix contains ______ and _____.
70S ribosomes, circular DNA
Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Mitochondria can ______.
split in two and fuse
Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: _____ of mitochondrial genes are similar to eubacteria.
Nucleotide sequences
Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Mitochondrial genome has (few/many) genes.
few
The outer membrane of mitochondria have ___, while the inner membrane has ___.
porins, cristae
Where does ATP synthase and electron transport take place?
The cristae of mitochondria.
Where can a high concentration of protons be found in mitochondria?
The intermembrane space
The matrix of mitochondria contains what? It is the sight of the ____.
circular DNA and ribosomes; TCA cycle/Krebs cycle/citric acid cycle
Where does glycolysis occur?
the cytoplasm
What provides most of the electrons for the ETC?
The TCA Cycle
What happens in step one of the TCA cycle?
acetyl coA + oxaloacetate produce citrate
TCA Cycle: Other than succinate dehydrogenase all its enzymes are _____.
soluble in the matrix
What waste is produced in the TCA cycle?
CO2
In the ETC, _____ transfers a pair of electrons from NADH to ubiquinone while pumping four protons.
Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase)
In the ETC, _____ feeds electrons from succinate to FAD and then to ubiquinone.
Complex II
In the ETC, Ubiquinone transfers electrons to _____.
complex III
In the ETC, _____ transfers electrons from ubiquinol to cytochrome C, while pumping four protons.
Complex III
In the ETC, _____ transfers electrons from cytochrome C to Oxygen while pumping two protons.
Complex IV
The Spherical F1 head of ATP synthase, is made of _______.
alternating α and β peptides with the γ peptide running through the middle
The Fo portion of ATP synthase is made of _______.
three polypeptides imbedded the membrane
Beta subunits’ affinity changes with what?
proton movement
Three affinity states occur in the binding change mechanism. What are those three?
Loose binding of ADP/Pi, Tight bonding of ADP/Pi and, Very loose binding of ATP
During ATP synthesis, ____ molecules of ATP are produced with one 360° turn.
3
In proton driven ATP synthesis, a proton from the intermembrane space enters ___________.
a half-channel within an a subunit.
Proton Driven ATP Synthesis: The proton binds to an acidic residue on a c subunit causing a conformational change that moves the ring ___.
30 degrees
Proton Driven ATP Synthesis: The proton is carried full circle and release into the ___ by _____________.
matrix, a second half channel
The outer envelope of ____ contains several kinds of porins, while ____ only have one.
chloroplast, mitochondria
The inner envelope membrane of chloroplast is highly ________.
impermeable
The thylakoid membrane of chloroplast is flattened into sacs and the space inside is called the ___.
lumen
The thylakoid membrane of chloroplast contains the ____, ____, and _____.
photosystems, ETC, and ATP synthase
______ contain a single outer membrane and the inner membrane has cristae joined to it at the organelle boundary.
Mitochondria
The stroma of chloroplast contains what?
the Calvin cycle, circular ds DNA, and ribosome
The stroma of chloroplast contains what?
a high concentration of protons
What are chlorophylls?
the primary photosynthetic pigments
What are chlorophylls made of?
porphyrin ring + phytol tail
Chlorophylls absorb _____ light, while carotenoids absorb _____ light.
blue and red, blue and green
What are carotenoids?
secondary light collectors that draw excess energy from chlorophyll preventing production of singlet oxygen
How are carotenoids made up?
linear system of double bonds
The chloroplast pH gradient is largely a _____ not a ____ because proton movement is followed by anions.
pH gradient not a voltage gradient
ATP Synthase in the thylakoid membrane produces ATP by ______.
chemiosmosis
The Calvin cycle begins and ends with ____.
RuBP
Products of the Calvin cycle include _____.
G3P sucrose in the cytosol and G3P starch in the chloroplast
________ are proteins of the ECM. They form fibers of great strength.
Collagens
__% of a human’s protein may be collagens.
25
Collagens are made by ______.
fibroblasts, muscle and epithelial cells
Collagen ___ come together to form rod-shaped fibers.
trimers
Fibrillar collagens form _________.
large cable-like fibers
Cross linking of fibrillar collagen continues throughout life strengthening the fibers, but leads to _______.
decreased elasticity of skin and brittleness of bones in the elderly
What is scar tissue due to burns or trauma caused by?
an accumulation of fibrillar collagen
Scurvy is due to a ____.
vitamin C deficiency
____ is a coenzyme for the enzymes that bind the collagen trimers together.
Vitamin C
Symptoms of scurvy include: (4.5)
inflamed gums, poor wound healing, brittle bones, and weakening of the lining of blood vessels, causing internal bleeding.
___ is a protein of the ECM which binds cations that bind water to act like packing material that resist crushing.
Proteoglycans
___ is a protein of the ECM. It is two polypeptide chains that provide binding sites for EMC molecules and cells, and guides cells during embryonic development.
Fibronectin
___ is a protein of the ECM. It is extra cellular glycoproteins made of three polypeptides linked by sulfide bonds which can influence migration, growth and development.
Laminin
scattered, discrete sites where an integrin attaches to an outside surface and with adaptor molecules to actin of the cytoskeleton. These adhesions are dynamic and are involved in attachment and movement.
Focal Adhesions (Cell Attachments to the ECM)
the tightest attachment between a cell and its ECM. They contain a dense layer of keratin filaments projecting out from the plasma membrane.
Hemidesmosome
bind cells of similar type together to form a “cell-adhesion zipper”
Cadherins
Cadherins bind ______, are ____ dependent, and have _____ construction.
the cadherins of other cells, calcium, modular
thought to be responsible for the dynamic changes in adhesive contacts that lead to morphogenesis
Cadherins
Selectins bind ____, mediate interactions between ______, are ____ dependent, and have ______ construction.
oligosaccharides, leukocytes and vessel walls at sites of inflammation, calcium,
modular
Ig like proteins that bind to many different cell surface proteins
Immunoglobulin Superfamily (IgSF)
Immunoglobulin Superfamily (IgSF) mediate _____, have ____ construction, are calcium _____, are found in ________.
reactions between lymphocytes and macrophages, modular, independent, invertebrates that do not have a classic immune system
What did Immunoglobulin Superfamily (IgSF) originally evolved as?
antibodies or T-cells receptors???
common in epithelia, like that in the intestine, where they encircle cells at apex with a belt
Adherens Junctions
Cadherin proteins connect external environment with actin in cytoplasm. These are called _____.
Adherens Junctions
can provide pathway for signals into the cell
Adherens Junctions
Disc shaped adhesive junctions
Desmosomes
numerous in cells subjected to stress like cardiac muscle
Desmosomes
Cadherins attach to dense cytoplasmic plaque and intermediate filaments
Desmosomes
pipelines made from six connexin proteins.
Gap Junctions
Gap junctions allow diffusion of molecules of ______.
1,000 Daltons
Gap junctions are ____ channels that open in (high/low) concentrations.
non-selective, high
Gap junctions are important for what?
non vascular tissue and cell-cell communication
What do gap junctions do to the cytoplasm of cells?
makes it continuous
pipelines between plant cell walls
Plasmodesmata
Lined with desmotubule formed from ER
Plasmodesmata
Plasmodesmata makes the cytoplasm ____, dilate to allow passage of ____, ____ and ____ can pass. Plasmodesmata can lead into the ____ which means it can lead to the whole plant.
continuous, 5000 Dalton molecules, proteins and RNAs, vascular system
a network of organelles that shuttle materials and membranes back and forth.
Endomembrane System
Organelles that are part of the system include endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, plasma membrane, transport vesicles, vacuoles, endosomes, and lysosome, nuclear membrane.
Endomembrane System
What organelles are not part of the endomembrane system?
Mitochondria, chloroplasts, and peroxisomes
Transport vesicles always move ____ which is ____ direction.
forward, anterograde
Membranes can move ____ or in a ____ direction. This can return membrane materials and some contents to ________.
backward, retrograde, the original cisterna
What are sorting signals on proteins made of?
amino acid sequences and oligosaccharides
What do vesicle receptors do?
recognize sorting signals
RER or SER? Has ribosomes.
RER
RER or SER? Has flattened cisternae.
RER
RER or SER? Has tubular cisternae.
SER
RER or SER? Is continuous with the outer nuclear membrane.
RER
RER or SER? cisternae form an interconnecting system
SER
RER or SER? produces rough-surfaced vesicles
RER
RER or SER? produces smooth-surfaced vesicles
SER
The ___ produces steroid hormones,detoxification in the liver, sequesters Ca++ in cytoplasm of skeletal and muscle cells, and regulates release of Ca++ to trigger contraction.
SER
What is the function of the RER?
production of proteins, phospholipids, and carbohydrates that journey through cell membranes
a family of small GTP-binding proteins that specifically tether vesicles to targets by recruiting tethering proteins
Rabs
A _____ protein on a vesicle interacts with a ______ on the target membrane forming a four stranded α-helical bundle that brings the two membranes into contact.
v-SNARE, t-SNARE
________ pull the two membranes together with enough force to fuse the membranes.
SNARE proteins
Lysosomal proteins are synthesized on _____, and carried to the ____
ribosomes of RER, Golgi complex
Lysosomal proteins are recognized by _____, which _________.
enzymes in the Golgi cisternae, add a phosphate group to a mannose residues
Only _________ possess phosphorylated mannose residues, so they act as recognition signals.
lysosomal enzymes
_______ are integral membrane proteins in the TGN that forms clathrin-coated vesicles.
Mannose 6-phosphate receptors (MPR)
____ are a family of proteins that are adaptors which connect the clathrin protein with the sorting signal.
GGAs
Targeting Lysosomal Proteins: The ___is release and the ______ moves on to its destination.
clathrin coat, uncoated vesicle
____ move materials from the ER “forward” to the ERGIC (ERG intermediate complex) and Golgi complex.
COPII-coated vesicles
______ move materials in a retrograde direction from the Golgi complex to the ERGIC and ER, and from the Trans Golgi cisternae to the cis cisternae.
COPI-coated vesicles
_______ move materials from the TGN to endosomes, lysosomes, and vacuoles.
Clatherin-coated vesicles
What are the three rolls of lysosomes?
Intracellular digestion, Autophagy, and Protection against intracellular threats like abnormal protein aggregates or bacteria.
Intracellular digestion is done by ____.
single-celled organisms or phagocytes
an organelle that is surrounded by a double membrane. The outer membrane fuses with a lysosome to replace old organelles, or cannibalize.
Autophagy
____ build up in cells may play a role in aging.
Lipofuscin granules
A ______ chaperone uses energy from ATP to pull the polypeptide through the pore.
Force-generating
A ____ chaperone binds to the polypeptides as they start through the pore, preventing them from moving back out. Continued binding ratchets the polypeptide through.
Biased diffusion
The Types of Cytoskeleton Filamentous Structures
Microtubules, Microfilaments, Intermediate filaments
Name their motor proteins: Microtubules, Microfilaments, Intermediate filaments
Kinesins and dyneins, Myosins, none
What are microtubules composed of?
tubulin
What are microfilaments composed of?
actin
are long, hollow, unbranched tubes
Microtubules
are solid thinner structures, often organized into a branching network
Microfilaments
are tough, rope-like fibers
Intermediate filaments
____ are long, hollow, unbranched tubes composed of tubulin. Kinesins and dyneins are motor proteins that work with them.
Microtubules
_______ are solid thinner structures, often organized into a branching network. They are composed of actin. Myosins are motor proteins that work with them.
Microfilaments
_______ are tough, rope-like fibers, composed of a variety of related proteins. They have no motor proteins.
Intermediate filaments
Note: Each type of cytoskeleton filament is:
a polymer of protein subunits, held together by weak, noncovalent bonds, able to rapidly assemble and disassemble, and found in animal cells
Axonal transport is done by two motor protons called ____.
kinesin and dynein
____ moves vesicles and organelles out (anterograde direction).
Kinesin
____ moves vesicles and organelles inward to the cell body (retrograde direction).
Dynein
motors that move over actin filaments in the plus direction. A two motor head binds actin and hydrolyzes ATP to drive the myosin motor. Function in muscle contraction and cytokinesis.
Conventional Myocin II
What does Conventional Myocin II function in?
muscle contraction and cytokinesis
one of two motor heads remains attached as the other head walks over the first. Myosin V neck is 3X longer than that of myosin II, so it can take very long steps.
Unconventional Myosin V
initiates the formation of an actin filament.
Nucleating proteins (An actin binding protein)
prevent all of the monomers in the cell from being polymerized
Monomer – sequestering proteins (An actin binding protein)
cap either end of the filament preventing the addition or deletion of monomers.
End blocking proteins (An actin binding protein)
promotes the growth of actin filaments.
Monomer-polymerizing protein (An actin binding protein)
promote depolymerization, rapid turnover of actin, essential for cell locomotion, phagocytosis and cytokinesis.
Actin filament depolymerizing proteins (An actin binding protein)
can cross link two or more filaments to produce 3-D elastic gels or parallel arrays
Cross-linking proteins (An actin binding protein)
can break a filament into producing free ends for growth or may cap them
Filament-severing proteins (An actin binding protein)
peripheral membrane proteins that aid actin in phagocytosis and cytokinesis
Membrane binding proteins (An actin binding protein)
What are the 5 Components of the Nuclear Envelope?
Two membranes, nuclear pores, Outer membrane is studded with ribosomes,Integral membrane proteins, Nuclear lamina
The nuclear-membranes of the nuclear envelope are fused together _____.
at the pores
Proteins and RNAs are targeted to move across the nuclear envelope by transport receptor proteins called _____.
importins and exportins.
condensed, compacted DNA, found at the nuclear periphery
Heterochromatin
diffuse, dispersed DNA
Euchromatin
stays condensed in all cells at all times. Most is found at the flanks of telomeres and centromeres, and contains few genes.
Constitutive heterochromatin
inactivated during certain stages of an organism’s life or in different cell types.
Facultative heterochromatin
a second X chromosome in a female mammal condensed into a heterochromatin clump
Barr Body
histone tail modifications alter the docking sites for recruitment of specific nonhistone protein arrays which determine the level of compaction and likelihood a gene is transcribed.
Histone code hypothesis
caps at the ends of chromosome
Telomeres
Types of Upstream Regulatory Sequences: name the 4 types.
Proximal promoter elements, Distal promoter elements, Enhancer sequences, Insulator sequences
TATA box is a proximal promoter element and is the site of ______.
transcription initiation
CAAT and GC boxes are proximal promoter elements that ________.
regulate transcription frequency
GRE is an example of what?
Distal promoter elements
______ are a type of upstream regulatory sequence that are more distal elements.
Enhancer sequences
______ are a type of upstream regulatory sequence that cordon off a promoter and its enhancers.
Insulator sequences
Inheritance that is not dependent on a DNA sequence
Epigenetic
What are the 3 epigenetic inheritances?
DNA methylation, Histone methylation, Centromere determination
maintains DNA in an inactive state. Responsible for imprinting
DNA methylation
histone proteins in heterochromatin is largely methylated
Histone methylation
the function of the centromere is independent of the underlying sequence.
Centromere determination
The ______ is made from two subunits, a kinase, and cyclin.
Maturation-Promoting Factor (MPF)
What does High MPF kinase activity cause?
entry into the M-phase
The cyclin subunit is in low concentration, MPF activity is (high/low).
low
When cyclin is in high concentration, MPF kinase _____.
active
_____ starts with the dissolution of the nuclear envelope.
Prometaphase
In prometaphase, mitotic spindle assembly is ______. Kinetochores ____. Chromosomes are _____ and spindle checkpoint _____.
completed, attach to microtubules, moved to the center of the cell by kinetochore motor proteins, delays separation until misplaced chromosomes take their positions
Anaphase starts when _____. The ____ leads the arms.
sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles.
The centromere
During prometaphase the longer chromosomal microtubes _____ while the shorter microtubules ____ lengthen.
shorten, lengthen
During metaphase _____ occurs. Subunits are added at the ____ end near the kinetochore and are lost at the _____ end.
microtubule flux, plus, minus
During anaphase subunits are lost at the ________ end. The kinetochore depolymerase aids this ______. This triggers the movement of the chromosomes.
plus and minus, subunit loss
_____ is movement of chromosomes toward the poles.
Anaphase A
In ____, subunits are added to the plus end of polar microtubules while being removed from the chromosomal tubules.
Anaphase B
______ is caused by failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis I or sister Chromatids during meiosis II.
Meiotic Nondisjunction
Failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis I or sister Chromatids during meiosis II results in ______.
Aneuploidy
all chromosomes are lethal at an early embryonic stage or during fetal development
Autosomal monosomy
most chromosomes are fatal during early development.
Autosomal trisomy
This is an example of what? Trisomies for chromosomes 13 and 18 are born alive but die soon after.
Aneuploidy
_____ - a trisomy for chromosome 21 resulting in mental impairment, alteration of body features, circulatory problems, increased risk of leukemia, early Alzheimer’s onset. 95% can be traced to nondisjunction in the oocyte.
Down syndrome
Down syndrome increases with ____.
age of the mother
An example of Monosomy of sex chromosome is ______.
Turner syndrome
XO female with slightly abnormal body structure, sterile.
Turner syndrome
An example of Trisomy of sex chromosomes is _______.
Klinefelter syndrome
XXY male with mental retardation, underdeveloped genitalia and some feminine physical characteristics
Klinefelter syndrome
A XYY results in a ____ with Klinefelter syndrome.
normal male
What are the 4 types of receptors?
G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs), Receptor protein-tyrosine kinases, Ligand-gated ion channels, Steroid hormone receptors
Cancer is a ______ disease. However, in most cases, cancer is not _______.
genetic, inherited
Most cases of cancer are caused as ______.
mutations accumulate in somatic cells during the lifetime of an individual
Only _ cancers are known to be contagious. One is ___.
three, Devil facial tumor disease
Cancer cells no longer respond to _____ or _____. Therefore, they have loss of growth control.
growth inhibiting influences or requiring growth factors
Cancer cells have presence of ____ and ___.
telomerase, Immortality
A property of cancer cells is aneuploidy which is _______.
the presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell
Cancer cells have highly _______.
deranged chromosomes
Cancer cells have an increased _______.
reliance on anaerobic metabolic pathways.
Cancer cells have the tendency to ____ and cause changes to _________.
spread, histological and cellular appearance
___ is a transcription factor that activates the expression of a large number of genes involved in cell cycle regulation and apoptosis.
p53
p53 is a ________.
tumor-suppressor gene
More than 50% of human cancers contain cells with mutations in what gene?
TP53
p53 activates ______ which inhibits the cyclin-dependent kinase that normally drives the cell through the G1 checkpoint.
expression of p21
Without p21 cell division can occur without what?
time for DNA repair
p53 activates ______ whose product initiates apoptosis.
expression of the BAX gene
Innate and Adaptive Immune Responses: Both require what?
the ability to distinguish self from foreign
Innate responses occur ____, while Adaptive requires ___.
immediately, a lag period
Innate responses occur without ___.
Adaptive is more ___.
previous contact, specific
Adaptive immunity _______, innate immunity ______. (Fill in the blank concerning memory)
a memory has, does not
_____ have some type of innate immunity. ______ mount an adaptive immune response.
All animals, Only vertebrates
Note: These are Types of Innate Immune Responses
Inflammation, Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils, Defensins from many of the body’s cells disrupt membranes of pathogens, Complement proteins in blood, Natural killer cells – kill virus infected cells, Interferons produced by virus infected cells
The _____ consists of a membrane-bound immunoglobulin that binds to an intact antigen, while the ______ binds to a small fragment of an antigen that is held at the surface of another cell.
B-cell receptor (BCR), T-cell receptor
(BCRs/TCRs) are part of large membrane-bound protein complexes that include invariant proteins.
Both
The _____ associate with BCRs and TCRs and transmit signals to the interior of the B and T cells to activate them.
Invariant polypeptides
Each subunit of a TCR contains two Ig-like domain indicating they share a common ancestry with what?
BCRs
Both antigen receptors of B and T cells share a similar _____.
three-dimensional shape
Virtually all cells of the body express _____ where they present fragments of their normal proteins, cancer proteins, or pathogen proteins.
MHC class I molecules
___ cells recognize self MHC class I proteins and will not kill a cell expressing them.
Natural killer (NK)
___ cells recognize their antigen associated with MHC class I molecules and destroy them.
Cytotoxic T
These cells (NK and Cytotoxic T?) can kill by binding to a cell receptor which activates ___, or by releasing _____.
apoptosis, perforins and granzymes
MHC class II molecules are found predominately on __________.
B cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages
______ recognize antigen associated with MHC class II molecules. Once an antigen is presented to it, it can stimulate a ____ to produce antibodies.
Helper T cells, B cell
G protein-coupled receptors bind ligands that include __(7)____.
G proteins transmit the signal from the receptor to _____ (like adenylyl cyclase). Then that activates a _____.
hormones, neurotransmitters, opium derivatives, chemoattractants, odorants, tastants, and photons; an effector; secondary messenger
____ bind GPCRs (G protein-coupled receptors) that activate a G protein which activates adenylyl cyclase.
Glucagon and Epinephrine
Adenylyl cyclase activates ____ which activates PKA.
PKA activates a _____ that results in the breakdown of glycogen to glucose and inhibition of glycogen synthesis.
cAMP, cascade of enzymes
The insulin receptor is an example of a ______.
receptor protein-tyrosine kinase (RTK).
Ligand binding to RTKs causes ___. Insulin binds to the ___ which causes the ___ to come together. When the dimer forms, ____ residues on the cytoplasmic domains of the beta subunits occurs. The activated beta subunits phosphorylate tyrosine residues on substrates.
dimerization of the receptor, alpha subunits, beta subunits, autophosphorylation of tyrosines
Calcium Concentration in the Cytosol is ___.
low
Ca2+ in the ER is 10,000 times higher/lower than in the cytosol.
higher
Ca2+ ion channels in the plasma and ER membranes normally remain opened/closed.
closed
Energy-driven Ca2+ transport systems of the plasma and ER membranes pump Ca2+ in/out of the cytosol.
out
What opens Calcium ion channels in the ER? Opening of Ca2+ channels in ER does what?
Calcium, increases cytosol Ca2+ concentration
Targets of Executioner Caspase Cleavage: Protein kinases like focal adhesion kinase, which is responsible for what?
maintaining a cell’s attachment to neighboring cells
Targets of Executioner Caspase Cleavage: Lamina which makeup what?
the inner lining of the nuclear envelope
Targets of Executioner Caspase Cleavage: ____ of the cytoskeleton and DNase inhibitory protein.
Proteins
