Cellular Final Flashcards

1
Q

Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? _______ have a nucleus; ________ have a nucleoid

A

Eukaryotes, Prokaryotes

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2
Q

Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? _______ have less DNA and fewer genes.

A

Prokaryotes

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3
Q

Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? __________ have a single circular DNA molecule; _____ have multiple linear chromosomes.

A

Prokaryotes, Eukaryotes

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4
Q

Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ________ contain an array of complex membranous & membrane-bound organelles.

A

Eukaryotes

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5
Q

Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ______ have a complex cytoskeleton.

A

Eukaryotes

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6
Q

Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ______ have 70S and 80S ribosomes

A

Eukaryotes

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7
Q

Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ______ have complex flagella and cilia.

A

Eukaryotes

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8
Q

Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes? ______ have greater diversity of metabolism and habitat.

A

Prokaryotes

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9
Q

The oldest ____ fossils are 2.7 billion years old. The oldest _____ fossils are 1.8 billion years old.

A

prokaryotic, eukaryotic

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10
Q

Sequencing ____ places all organisms into three Domains: Bacteria, Archaea, and Eucarya?

A

16s and 18s rRNAs

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11
Q

Sequencing of organisms shows evidence of _______ between prokaryotes, and between eukaryotes and their ____.

A

lateral gene transfer, symbionts

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12
Q

Genes involved in transcription, translation, and DNA replication are less likely to be involved in _____, so are the best subjects for determining phylogeny.

A

gene transfer

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13
Q

What is the Endosymbiosis theory?

A

An anaerobic, heterotrophic Archaea ancestor ingested a small aerobic Eubacteria ancestor. These endosymbionts evolved into mitochondria.

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14
Q

How did other organelles evolve?

A

by gradual evolution

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15
Q

Early eukaryotes then ingested cyanobacteria ancestors giving rise to ______.

A

chloroplasts

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16
Q

What are 3 factors of a virus structure?

A

Protein coat or capsid, Nucleic acid, Some have an envelope

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17
Q

________ proteins must attach to host cell for infection to occur.

A

Capsid or envelope

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18
Q

_____ are not cells.

A

Viruses

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19
Q

Viruses are all ________.

A

obligate intracellular parasites

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20
Q

Which is smaller, bacteria or viruses?

A

Viruses

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21
Q

____ contain no cytoplasm.

A

Viruses

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22
Q

A covalent bond is the _____.

A

sharing of electron pairs

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23
Q

A chemical bond formed between two ions with opposite charges. They form when one atom gives up one or more electrons to another atom.

A

Ionic bonds

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24
Q

A weak bond between two molecules resulting from an electrostatic attraction between a proton in one molecule and an electronegative atom in the other.

A

Hydrogen bonds

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25
Q

The interactions between nonpolar molecules are called ______.

A

Hydrophobic interactions

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26
Q

Weak, short-range electrostatic attractive forces between uncharged molecules, arising from the interaction of permanent or transient electric dipole moments.

A

van der Waals force

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27
Q

Strong electrostatic attractive forces between molecules or atoms that occur after the transfer of electrons.

A

ionic bonds

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28
Q

Place in order by bond strength. Hydrogen bonds, van der Waals force, Covalent bonds, Hydrophobic interactions, Ionic bonds

A
Covalent bonds
Ionic bonds
Hydrogen bonds
Hydrophobic interactions
van der Waals force
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29
Q

simple sugars differ by number of carbons in the backbone; each carbon has a hydroxyl or carbonyl group

A

Carbohydrates

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30
Q

amino acids that each have an amine and carboxyl group, but have different R-groups: polar charged, polar uncharged, nonpolar and unique.

A

Proteins

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31
Q

nucleotides that are made of a sugar, phosphate and base, they have different sugars and bases: ribose/deoxyribose, A/T/G/C/U

A

Nucleic acids

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32
Q

Glucose is a carbohydrate in its (monomer/polymer) form.

A

monomer

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33
Q

Starch is a carbohydrate in its

A

polymer

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34
Q

Amino acids are proteins in their (monomer/polymer) form.

A

monomer

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35
Q

Chemists call these monomers “nucleotides.” The five pieces are uracil, cytosine, thymine, adenine, and guanine.

A

Nucleic acids

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36
Q

RNA and DNA are polymers of ____.

A

Nucleic acids

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37
Q

_____ Amino Acid R-Groups form ionic bonds in tertiary and quaternary protein structure, and with other molecules

A

Polar charged

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38
Q

can form hydrogen bond in secondary, tertiary and quaternary protein structure, and with other molecules.

A

Polar non charged

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39
Q

_____ Amino Acid R-Groups form van der Waals and hydrophobic interactions in tertiary protein structure.

A

Non polar

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40
Q

_____ Amino Acid R-Groups in which glycine adds flexibility to the polypeptide, proline produces kinks and hinges in the secondary structure, cysteine produces disulfide bridges in tertiary and quaternary structure.

A

Unique amino acids

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41
Q

The smallest amino acid is ____. It is made up of -H.

A

Glycine

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42
Q

____ is a non polar ring of amino acids.

A

Proline

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43
Q

____ is an amino acid made up of -S-H

A

Cysteine

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44
Q

Tertiary protein structure: Most proteins are composed of _____.

A

two or more distinct domains

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45
Q

Tertiary protein structure: Many proteins have arisen by the fusion of _____.

A

gene parts from different ancestral proteins

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46
Q

Tertiary protein structure: Shuffling of domains creates proteins with ______.

A

unique combinations of activities

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47
Q

Quaternary protein structure – most proteins are composed of _______.

A

more than one polypeptide chain

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48
Q

proteins in different organisms that come from a common ancestral gene, natural selection has produced different variants of the protein.

A

Homologous proteins

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49
Q

The proteins of halophiles have more acidic amino acids directed outside, while thermophiles have more acidic and basic amino acids directed inside. This is an example of a ______.

A

Homologous protein

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50
Q

different versions of a protein found in the same organism adapted to function in different tissues or at different developmental stages. These two proteins arose from a single ancestral gene

A

Isoforms

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51
Q

proteins that have arisen from a single ancestral gene. Over time the gene undergoes a series of duplications. The duplicate genes evolve independently. These proteins may evolve to perform different functions.

A

Protein families

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52
Q

What do these all have in common? Protein catalysts, Required is small amounts, Have no affects on the thermodynamics of a reaction, Lower the energy of activation required, High level of catalytic activity, High level of specificity

A

They are properties of enzymes.

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53
Q

analogue of the substrates for transpeptidases, irreversible inhibiting by going into the active sites and forming covalent bonds.

A

Penicillin

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54
Q

destroys penicillins

A

Penicillinase

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55
Q

Initially no disease causing bacteria contained ______, but picked them up from other bacteria by conjugation, transduction and transformation.

A

penicillinase

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56
Q

penicillinase resistant penicillin

A

Methicillin

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57
Q

How have other bacteria developed resistance to penicillins?

A

by cell wall modification, membrane pumps, and reduce affinity of the transpeptidase for the antibiotics.

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58
Q

binds to the peptide substrate causing the transpeptidases to end the polymer incorrectly .

A

Vancomycin

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59
Q

____ strains have aquired several enzymes from Enterococcus faecium to become resistant to antibiotics.

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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60
Q

the enzyme pathway that breaks down glucose to form ATP, NADH, and pyruvate.

A

Glycolysis

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61
Q

Which steps of glycolysis add phosphates from two ATPs to the glucose molecule?

A

steps 1-3

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62
Q

Which steps of glycolysis produce two glyceraldehyde phosphate molecules per glucose?

A

steps 4 and 5

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63
Q

Which steps of glycolysis produce four ATPs, two NADHs, and two pyruvates per glucose?

A

steps 6-10

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64
Q

Products and Energy Obtained when Cells Oxidize Glucose: Anaerobic oxidation: ____ produces pyruvate and a small amount of ATP, while ____ keeps it going and produces products like ethyl alcohol and lactic acid.

A

glycolysis, fermentation

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65
Q

Products and Energy Obtained when Cells Oxidize Glucose: Aerobic oxidation produces ___ and ___ and _____.

A

CO2 and H2O and large amounts of ATP

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66
Q

Reactions in Glycolysis: Steps 1 and 3 are coupled to ____.

A

ATP hydrolysis

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67
Q

Reactions in Glycolysis: Steps 7 and 10 involve _____.

A

substrate phosphorylation

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68
Q

Reactions in Glycolysis: Steps 6 depends on _____.

A

fermentation or aerobic respiration.

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69
Q

amphipathic, embedded in the bilayer, functions include surface receptors, channels and transporters

A

Integral membrane proteins

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70
Q

associated with the membrane by weak electrostatic bond, usually on the cytoplasmic side; some remain on the surface, some come and go from the surface, and some penetrate the bilayer

A

Peripheral membrane proteins

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71
Q

covalently bound usually to the outside surface, function as receptors, enzymes, and cell-adhesion protein

A

Lipid anchored membrane proteins

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72
Q

What is Band 3 in integral membrane proteins?

A

a channel that allows movement of Cl- and HCO3- in and out of the cell

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73
Q

What is Glucophorin A in integral membrane protein? What does it have?

A

the protozoan that causes malaria attaches to this protein. It has oligosaccharides outside that make RBCs repel each other.

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74
Q

What is spectrin in peripheral proteins?

A

fibrillar membrane skeleton that determines the biconcave disk shape

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75
Q

What does ankyrin do in peripheral proteins?

A

links spectrin covalently to the inside surface of the plasma membrane

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76
Q

_____ is a member of the spectrin family of proteins that is found in the membranes of muscle cells.

A

Dystrophin

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77
Q

Mutations in dystrophin are the cause of ______.

A

muscular dystrophy

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78
Q

Cystic fibrosis an ___ disease.

A

inherited

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79
Q

What is cystic fibrosis caused by?

A

a defective CFTR protein which controls the movement of ions across mucus membranes.

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80
Q

_____ leads to decreased fluid bathing the epithelial cells of the respiratory lining caused by abnormal flux of Cl-, HCO3-, and Na+. This causes increase mucus viscosity and impairs cilia.

A

CFTR deficiency

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81
Q

______ binds to the extra cellular end of the CFTR protein, which may lead to its ingestion and destruction. This bacterium is a leading cause of death of cystic fibrosis patients.

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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82
Q

How might the heterozygous CFTR condition may confer an advantage?

A

From the effects of cholera and From typhoid fever

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83
Q

What does cholera cause that is an advantage of the heterozygous CFTR condition?

A

thicker mucus in the intestine

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84
Q

What does typhoid fever cause that is an advantage of the heterozygous CFTR condition?

A

the salmonella bacteria attaches to the CFTR protein to enter

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85
Q

The bacterial KcsA K + Channel and the eukaryotic voltage-regulated K + channel are _______.

A

virtually identical

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86
Q

When a ____ moves into the KcsA K + channel, the K+ at the opposite end is ejected into the cell. ___ opens the channel by causing a conformational change in the M2 helices which hinge open at the cytoplasmic side.

A

third K+, Low pH

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87
Q

Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Inner membrane contains ______ such as devoid of cholesterol, rich in the lipid cardiolipin.

A

bacterial characteristics

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88
Q

Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Outer membrane contains characteristics of ____, in that they have porins.

A

Gram–bacteria outer membranes

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89
Q

Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Mitochondrial matrix contains ______ and _____.

A

70S ribosomes, circular DNA

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90
Q

Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Mitochondria can ______.

A

split in two and fuse

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91
Q

Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: _____ of mitochondrial genes are similar to eubacteria.

A

Nucleotide sequences

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92
Q

Evidence for the evolution of mitochondria from ancient aerobic bacterium: Mitochondrial genome has (few/many) genes.

A

few

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93
Q

The outer membrane of mitochondria have ___, while the inner membrane has ___.

A

porins, cristae

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94
Q

Where does ATP synthase and electron transport take place?

A

The cristae of mitochondria.

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95
Q

Where can a high concentration of protons be found in mitochondria?

A

The intermembrane space

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96
Q

The matrix of mitochondria contains what? It is the sight of the ____.

A

circular DNA and ribosomes; TCA cycle/Krebs cycle/citric acid cycle

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97
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

the cytoplasm

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98
Q

What provides most of the electrons for the ETC?

A

The TCA Cycle

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99
Q

What happens in step one of the TCA cycle?

A

acetyl coA + oxaloacetate produce citrate

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100
Q

TCA Cycle: Other than succinate dehydrogenase all its enzymes are _____.

A

soluble in the matrix

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101
Q

What waste is produced in the TCA cycle?

A

CO2

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102
Q

In the ETC, _____ transfers a pair of electrons from NADH to ubiquinone while pumping four protons.

A

Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase)

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103
Q

In the ETC, _____ feeds electrons from succinate to FAD and then to ubiquinone.

A

Complex II

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104
Q

In the ETC, Ubiquinone transfers electrons to _____.

A

complex III

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105
Q

In the ETC, _____ transfers electrons from ubiquinol to cytochrome C, while pumping four protons.

A

Complex III

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106
Q

In the ETC, _____ transfers electrons from cytochrome C to Oxygen while pumping two protons.

A

Complex IV

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107
Q

The Spherical F1 head of ATP synthase, is made of _______.

A

alternating α and β peptides with the γ peptide running through the middle

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108
Q

The Fo portion of ATP synthase is made of _______.

A

three polypeptides imbedded the membrane

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109
Q

Beta subunits’ affinity changes with what?

A

proton movement

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110
Q

Three affinity states occur in the binding change mechanism. What are those three?

A

Loose binding of ADP/Pi, Tight bonding of ADP/Pi and, Very loose binding of ATP

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111
Q

During ATP synthesis, ____ molecules of ATP are produced with one 360° turn.

A

3

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112
Q

In proton driven ATP synthesis, a proton from the intermembrane space enters ___________.

A

a half-channel within an a subunit.

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113
Q

Proton Driven ATP Synthesis: The proton binds to an acidic residue on a c subunit causing a conformational change that moves the ring ___.

A

30 degrees

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114
Q

Proton Driven ATP Synthesis: The proton is carried full circle and release into the ___ by _____________.

A

matrix, a second half channel

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115
Q

The outer envelope of ____ contains several kinds of porins, while ____ only have one.

A

chloroplast, mitochondria

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116
Q

The inner envelope membrane of chloroplast is highly ________.

A

impermeable

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117
Q

The thylakoid membrane of chloroplast is flattened into sacs and the space inside is called the ___.

A

lumen

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118
Q

The thylakoid membrane of chloroplast contains the ____, ____, and _____.

A

photosystems, ETC, and ATP synthase

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119
Q

______ contain a single outer membrane and the inner membrane has cristae joined to it at the organelle boundary.

A

Mitochondria

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120
Q

The stroma of chloroplast contains what?

A

the Calvin cycle, circular ds DNA, and ribosome

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121
Q

The stroma of chloroplast contains what?

A

a high concentration of protons

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122
Q

What are chlorophylls?

A

the primary photosynthetic pigments

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123
Q

What are chlorophylls made of?

A

porphyrin ring + phytol tail

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124
Q

Chlorophylls absorb _____ light, while carotenoids absorb _____ light.

A

blue and red, blue and green

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125
Q

What are carotenoids?

A

secondary light collectors that draw excess energy from chlorophyll preventing production of singlet oxygen

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126
Q

How are carotenoids made up?

A

linear system of double bonds

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127
Q

The chloroplast pH gradient is largely a _____ not a ____ because proton movement is followed by anions.

A

pH gradient not a voltage gradient

128
Q

ATP Synthase in the thylakoid membrane produces ATP by ______.

A

chemiosmosis

129
Q

The Calvin cycle begins and ends with ____.

A

RuBP

130
Q

Products of the Calvin cycle include _____.

A

G3P sucrose in the cytosol and G3P starch in the chloroplast

131
Q

________ are proteins of the ECM. They form fibers of great strength.

A

Collagens

132
Q

__% of a human’s protein may be collagens.

A

25

133
Q

Collagens are made by ______.

A

fibroblasts, muscle and epithelial cells

134
Q

Collagen ___ come together to form rod-shaped fibers.

A

trimers

135
Q

Fibrillar collagens form _________.

A

large cable-like fibers

136
Q

Cross linking of fibrillar collagen continues throughout life strengthening the fibers, but leads to _______.

A

decreased elasticity of skin and brittleness of bones in the elderly

137
Q

What is scar tissue due to burns or trauma caused by?

A

an accumulation of fibrillar collagen

138
Q

Scurvy is due to a ____.

A

vitamin C deficiency

139
Q

____ is a coenzyme for the enzymes that bind the collagen trimers together.

A

Vitamin C

140
Q

Symptoms of scurvy include: (4.5)

A

inflamed gums, poor wound healing, brittle bones, and weakening of the lining of blood vessels, causing internal bleeding.

141
Q

___ is a protein of the ECM which binds cations that bind water to act like packing material that resist crushing.

A

Proteoglycans

142
Q

___ is a protein of the ECM. It is two polypeptide chains that provide binding sites for EMC molecules and cells, and guides cells during embryonic development.

A

Fibronectin

143
Q

___ is a protein of the ECM. It is extra cellular glycoproteins made of three polypeptides linked by sulfide bonds which can influence migration, growth and development.

A

Laminin

144
Q

scattered, discrete sites where an integrin attaches to an outside surface and with adaptor molecules to actin of the cytoskeleton. These adhesions are dynamic and are involved in attachment and movement.

A

Focal Adhesions (Cell Attachments to the ECM)

145
Q

the tightest attachment between a cell and its ECM. They contain a dense layer of keratin filaments projecting out from the plasma membrane.

A

Hemidesmosome

146
Q

bind cells of similar type together to form a “cell-adhesion zipper”

A

Cadherins

147
Q

Cadherins bind ______, are ____ dependent, and have _____ construction.

A

the cadherins of other cells, calcium, modular

148
Q

thought to be responsible for the dynamic changes in adhesive contacts that lead to morphogenesis

A

Cadherins

149
Q

Selectins bind ____, mediate interactions between ______, are ____ dependent, and have ______ construction.

A

oligosaccharides, leukocytes and vessel walls at sites of inflammation, calcium,
modular

150
Q

Ig like proteins that bind to many different cell surface proteins

A

Immunoglobulin Superfamily (IgSF)

151
Q

Immunoglobulin Superfamily (IgSF) mediate _____, have ____ construction, are calcium _____, are found in ________.

A

reactions between lymphocytes and macrophages, modular, independent, invertebrates that do not have a classic immune system

152
Q

What did Immunoglobulin Superfamily (IgSF) originally evolved as?

A

antibodies or T-cells receptors???

153
Q

common in epithelia, like that in the intestine, where they encircle cells at apex with a belt

A

Adherens Junctions

154
Q

Cadherin proteins connect external environment with actin in cytoplasm. These are called _____.

A

Adherens Junctions

155
Q

can provide pathway for signals into the cell

A

Adherens Junctions

156
Q

Disc shaped adhesive junctions

A

Desmosomes

157
Q

numerous in cells subjected to stress like cardiac muscle

A

Desmosomes

158
Q

Cadherins attach to dense cytoplasmic plaque and intermediate filaments

A

Desmosomes

159
Q

pipelines made from six connexin proteins.

A

Gap Junctions

160
Q

Gap junctions allow diffusion of molecules of ______.

A

1,000 Daltons

161
Q

Gap junctions are ____ channels that open in (high/low) concentrations.

A

non-selective, high

162
Q

Gap junctions are important for what?

A

non vascular tissue and cell-cell communication

163
Q

What do gap junctions do to the cytoplasm of cells?

A

makes it continuous

164
Q

pipelines between plant cell walls

A

Plasmodesmata

165
Q

Lined with desmotubule formed from ER

A

Plasmodesmata

166
Q

Plasmodesmata makes the cytoplasm ____, dilate to allow passage of ____, ____ and ____ can pass. Plasmodesmata can lead into the ____ which means it can lead to the whole plant.

A

continuous, 5000 Dalton molecules, proteins and RNAs, vascular system

167
Q

a network of organelles that shuttle materials and membranes back and forth.

A

Endomembrane System

168
Q

Organelles that are part of the system include endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, plasma membrane, transport vesicles, vacuoles, endosomes, and lysosome, nuclear membrane.

A

Endomembrane System

169
Q

What organelles are not part of the endomembrane system?

A

Mitochondria, chloroplasts, and peroxisomes

170
Q

Transport vesicles always move ____ which is ____ direction.

A

forward, anterograde

171
Q

Membranes can move ____ or in a ____ direction. This can return membrane materials and some contents to ________.

A

backward, retrograde, the original cisterna

172
Q

What are sorting signals on proteins made of?

A

amino acid sequences and oligosaccharides

173
Q

What do vesicle receptors do?

A

recognize sorting signals

174
Q

RER or SER? Has ribosomes.

A

RER

175
Q

RER or SER? Has flattened cisternae.

A

RER

176
Q

RER or SER? Has tubular cisternae.

A

SER

177
Q

RER or SER? Is continuous with the outer nuclear membrane.

A

RER

178
Q

RER or SER? cisternae form an interconnecting system

A

SER

179
Q

RER or SER? produces rough-surfaced vesicles

A

RER

180
Q

RER or SER? produces smooth-surfaced vesicles

A

SER

181
Q

The ___ produces steroid hormones,detoxification in the liver, sequesters Ca++ in cytoplasm of skeletal and muscle cells, and regulates release of Ca++ to trigger contraction.

A

SER

182
Q

What is the function of the RER?

A

production of proteins, phospholipids, and carbohydrates that journey through cell membranes

183
Q

a family of small GTP-binding proteins that specifically tether vesicles to targets by recruiting tethering proteins

A

Rabs

184
Q

A _____ protein on a vesicle interacts with a ______ on the target membrane forming a four stranded α-helical bundle that brings the two membranes into contact.

A

v-SNARE, t-SNARE

185
Q

________ pull the two membranes together with enough force to fuse the membranes.

A

SNARE proteins

186
Q

Lysosomal proteins are synthesized on _____, and carried to the ____

A

ribosomes of RER, Golgi complex

187
Q

Lysosomal proteins are recognized by _____, which _________.

A

enzymes in the Golgi cisternae, add a phosphate group to a mannose residues

188
Q

Only _________ possess phosphorylated mannose residues, so they act as recognition signals.

A

lysosomal enzymes

189
Q

_______ are integral membrane proteins in the TGN that forms clathrin-coated vesicles.

A

Mannose 6-phosphate receptors (MPR)

190
Q

____ are a family of proteins that are adaptors which connect the clathrin protein with the sorting signal.

A

GGAs

191
Q

Targeting Lysosomal Proteins: The ___is release and the ______ moves on to its destination.

A

clathrin coat, uncoated vesicle

192
Q

____ move materials from the ER “forward” to the ERGIC (ERG intermediate complex) and Golgi complex.

A

COPII-coated vesicles

193
Q

______ move materials in a retrograde direction from the Golgi complex to the ERGIC and ER, and from the Trans Golgi cisternae to the cis cisternae.

A

COPI-coated vesicles

194
Q

_______ move materials from the TGN to endosomes, lysosomes, and vacuoles.

A

Clatherin-coated vesicles

195
Q

What are the three rolls of lysosomes?

A

Intracellular digestion, Autophagy, and Protection against intracellular threats like abnormal protein aggregates or bacteria.

196
Q

Intracellular digestion is done by ____.

A

single-celled organisms or phagocytes

197
Q

an organelle that is surrounded by a double membrane. The outer membrane fuses with a lysosome to replace old organelles, or cannibalize.

A

Autophagy

198
Q

____ build up in cells may play a role in aging.

A

Lipofuscin granules

199
Q

A ______ chaperone uses energy from ATP to pull the polypeptide through the pore.

A

Force-generating

200
Q

A ____ chaperone binds to the polypeptides as they start through the pore, preventing them from moving back out. Continued binding ratchets the polypeptide through.

A

Biased diffusion

201
Q

The Types of Cytoskeleton Filamentous Structures

A

Microtubules, Microfilaments, Intermediate filaments

202
Q

Name their motor proteins: Microtubules, Microfilaments, Intermediate filaments

A

Kinesins and dyneins, Myosins, none

203
Q

What are microtubules composed of?

A

tubulin

204
Q

What are microfilaments composed of?

A

actin

205
Q

are long, hollow, unbranched tubes

A

Microtubules

206
Q

are solid thinner structures, often organized into a branching network

A

Microfilaments

207
Q

are tough, rope-like fibers

A

Intermediate filaments

208
Q

____ are long, hollow, unbranched tubes composed of tubulin. Kinesins and dyneins are motor proteins that work with them.

A

Microtubules

209
Q

_______ are solid thinner structures, often organized into a branching network. They are composed of actin. Myosins are motor proteins that work with them.

A

Microfilaments

210
Q

_______ are tough, rope-like fibers, composed of a variety of related proteins. They have no motor proteins.

A

Intermediate filaments

211
Q

Note: Each type of cytoskeleton filament is:

A

a polymer of protein subunits, held together by weak, noncovalent bonds, able to rapidly assemble and disassemble, and found in animal cells

212
Q

Axonal transport is done by two motor protons called ____.

A

kinesin and dynein

213
Q

____ moves vesicles and organelles out (anterograde direction).

A

Kinesin

214
Q

____ moves vesicles and organelles inward to the cell body (retrograde direction).

A

Dynein

215
Q

motors that move over actin filaments in the plus direction. A two motor head binds actin and hydrolyzes ATP to drive the myosin motor. Function in muscle contraction and cytokinesis.

A

Conventional Myocin II

216
Q

What does Conventional Myocin II function in?

A

muscle contraction and cytokinesis

217
Q

one of two motor heads remains attached as the other head walks over the first. Myosin V neck is 3X longer than that of myosin II, so it can take very long steps.

A

Unconventional Myosin V

218
Q

initiates the formation of an actin filament.

A

Nucleating proteins (An actin binding protein)

219
Q

prevent all of the monomers in the cell from being polymerized

A

Monomer – sequestering proteins (An actin binding protein)

220
Q

cap either end of the filament preventing the addition or deletion of monomers.

A

End blocking proteins (An actin binding protein)

221
Q

promotes the growth of actin filaments.

A

Monomer-polymerizing protein (An actin binding protein)

222
Q

promote depolymerization, rapid turnover of actin, essential for cell locomotion, phagocytosis and cytokinesis.

A

Actin filament depolymerizing proteins (An actin binding protein)

223
Q

can cross link two or more filaments to produce 3-D elastic gels or parallel arrays

A

Cross-linking proteins (An actin binding protein)

224
Q

can break a filament into producing free ends for growth or may cap them

A

Filament-severing proteins (An actin binding protein)

225
Q

peripheral membrane proteins that aid actin in phagocytosis and cytokinesis

A

Membrane binding proteins (An actin binding protein)

226
Q

What are the 5 Components of the Nuclear Envelope?

A

Two membranes, nuclear pores, Outer membrane is studded with ribosomes,Integral membrane proteins, Nuclear lamina

227
Q

The nuclear-membranes of the nuclear envelope are fused together _____.

A

at the pores

228
Q

Proteins and RNAs are targeted to move across the nuclear envelope by transport receptor proteins called _____.

A

importins and exportins.

229
Q

condensed, compacted DNA, found at the nuclear periphery

A

Heterochromatin

230
Q

diffuse, dispersed DNA

A

Euchromatin

231
Q

stays condensed in all cells at all times. Most is found at the flanks of telomeres and centromeres, and contains few genes.

A

Constitutive heterochromatin

232
Q

inactivated during certain stages of an organism’s life or in different cell types.

A

Facultative heterochromatin

233
Q

a second X chromosome in a female mammal condensed into a heterochromatin clump

A

Barr Body

234
Q

histone tail modifications alter the docking sites for recruitment of specific nonhistone protein arrays which determine the level of compaction and likelihood a gene is transcribed.

A

Histone code hypothesis

235
Q

caps at the ends of chromosome

A

Telomeres

236
Q

Types of Upstream Regulatory Sequences: name the 4 types.

A

Proximal promoter elements, Distal promoter elements, Enhancer sequences, Insulator sequences

237
Q

TATA box is a proximal promoter element and is the site of ______.

A

transcription initiation

238
Q

CAAT and GC boxes are proximal promoter elements that ________.

A

regulate transcription frequency

239
Q

GRE is an example of what?

A

Distal promoter elements

240
Q

______ are a type of upstream regulatory sequence that are more distal elements.

A

Enhancer sequences

241
Q

______ are a type of upstream regulatory sequence that cordon off a promoter and its enhancers.

A

Insulator sequences

242
Q

Inheritance that is not dependent on a DNA sequence

A

Epigenetic

243
Q

What are the 3 epigenetic inheritances?

A

DNA methylation, Histone methylation, Centromere determination

244
Q

maintains DNA in an inactive state. Responsible for imprinting

A

DNA methylation

245
Q

histone proteins in heterochromatin is largely methylated

A

Histone methylation

246
Q

the function of the centromere is independent of the underlying sequence.

A

Centromere determination

247
Q

The ______ is made from two subunits, a kinase, and cyclin.

A

Maturation-Promoting Factor (MPF)

248
Q

What does High MPF kinase activity cause?

A

entry into the M-phase

249
Q

The cyclin subunit is in low concentration, MPF activity is (high/low).

A

low

250
Q

When cyclin is in high concentration, MPF kinase _____.

A

active

251
Q

_____ starts with the dissolution of the nuclear envelope.

A

Prometaphase

252
Q

In prometaphase, mitotic spindle assembly is ______. Kinetochores ____. Chromosomes are _____ and spindle checkpoint _____.

A

completed, attach to microtubules, moved to the center of the cell by kinetochore motor proteins, delays separation until misplaced chromosomes take their positions

253
Q

Anaphase starts when _____. The ____ leads the arms.

A

sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles.

The centromere

254
Q

During prometaphase the longer chromosomal microtubes _____ while the shorter microtubules ____ lengthen.

A

shorten, lengthen

255
Q

During metaphase _____ occurs. Subunits are added at the ____ end near the kinetochore and are lost at the _____ end.

A

microtubule flux, plus, minus

256
Q

During anaphase subunits are lost at the ________ end. The kinetochore depolymerase aids this ______. This triggers the movement of the chromosomes.

A

plus and minus, subunit loss

257
Q

_____ is movement of chromosomes toward the poles.

A

Anaphase A

258
Q

In ____, subunits are added to the plus end of polar microtubules while being removed from the chromosomal tubules.

A

Anaphase B

259
Q

______ is caused by failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis I or sister Chromatids during meiosis II.

A

Meiotic Nondisjunction

260
Q

Failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis I or sister Chromatids during meiosis II results in ______.

A

Aneuploidy

261
Q

all chromosomes are lethal at an early embryonic stage or during fetal development

A

Autosomal monosomy

262
Q

most chromosomes are fatal during early development.

A

Autosomal trisomy

263
Q

This is an example of what? Trisomies for chromosomes 13 and 18 are born alive but die soon after.

A

Aneuploidy

264
Q

_____ - a trisomy for chromosome 21 resulting in mental impairment, alteration of body features, circulatory problems, increased risk of leukemia, early Alzheimer’s onset. 95% can be traced to nondisjunction in the oocyte.

A

Down syndrome

265
Q

Down syndrome increases with ____.

A

age of the mother

266
Q

An example of Monosomy of sex chromosome is ______.

A

Turner syndrome

267
Q

XO female with slightly abnormal body structure, sterile.

A

Turner syndrome

268
Q

An example of Trisomy of sex chromosomes is _______.

A

Klinefelter syndrome

269
Q

XXY male with mental retardation, underdeveloped genitalia and some feminine physical characteristics

A

Klinefelter syndrome

270
Q

A XYY results in a ____ with Klinefelter syndrome.

A

normal male

271
Q

What are the 4 types of receptors?

A

G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs), Receptor protein-tyrosine kinases, Ligand-gated ion channels, Steroid hormone receptors

272
Q

Cancer is a ______ disease. However, in most cases, cancer is not _______.

A

genetic, inherited

273
Q

Most cases of cancer are caused as ______.

A

mutations accumulate in somatic cells during the lifetime of an individual

274
Q

Only _ cancers are known to be contagious. One is ___.

A

three, Devil facial tumor disease

275
Q

Cancer cells no longer respond to _____ or _____. Therefore, they have loss of growth control.

A

growth inhibiting influences or requiring growth factors

276
Q

Cancer cells have presence of ____ and ___.

A

telomerase, Immortality

277
Q

A property of cancer cells is aneuploidy which is _______.

A

the presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell

278
Q

Cancer cells have highly _______.

A

deranged chromosomes

279
Q

Cancer cells have an increased _______.

A

reliance on anaerobic metabolic pathways.

280
Q

Cancer cells have the tendency to ____ and cause changes to _________.

A

spread, histological and cellular appearance

281
Q

___ is a transcription factor that activates the expression of a large number of genes involved in cell cycle regulation and apoptosis.

A

p53

282
Q

p53 is a ________.

A

tumor-suppressor gene

283
Q

More than 50% of human cancers contain cells with mutations in what gene?

A

TP53

284
Q

p53 activates ______ which inhibits the cyclin-dependent kinase that normally drives the cell through the G1 checkpoint.

A

expression of p21

285
Q

Without p21 cell division can occur without what?

A

time for DNA repair

286
Q

p53 activates ______ whose product initiates apoptosis.

A

expression of the BAX gene

287
Q

Innate and Adaptive Immune Responses: Both require what?

A

the ability to distinguish self from foreign

288
Q

Innate responses occur ____, while Adaptive requires ___.

A

immediately, a lag period

289
Q

Innate responses occur without ___.

Adaptive is more ___.

A

previous contact, specific

290
Q

Adaptive immunity _______, innate immunity ______. (Fill in the blank concerning memory)

A

a memory has, does not

291
Q

_____ have some type of innate immunity. ______ mount an adaptive immune response.

A

All animals, Only vertebrates

292
Q

Note: These are Types of Innate Immune Responses

A

Inflammation, Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils, Defensins from many of the body’s cells disrupt membranes of pathogens, Complement proteins in blood, Natural killer cells – kill virus infected cells, Interferons produced by virus infected cells

293
Q

The _____ consists of a membrane-bound immunoglobulin that binds to an intact antigen, while the ______ binds to a small fragment of an antigen that is held at the surface of another cell.

A

B-cell receptor (BCR), T-cell receptor

294
Q

(BCRs/TCRs) are part of large membrane-bound protein complexes that include invariant proteins.

A

Both

295
Q

The _____ associate with BCRs and TCRs and transmit signals to the interior of the B and T cells to activate them.

A

Invariant polypeptides

296
Q

Each subunit of a TCR contains two Ig-like domain indicating they share a common ancestry with what?

A

BCRs

297
Q

Both antigen receptors of B and T cells share a similar _____.

A

three-dimensional shape

298
Q

Virtually all cells of the body express _____ where they present fragments of their normal proteins, cancer proteins, or pathogen proteins.

A

MHC class I molecules

299
Q

___ cells recognize self MHC class I proteins and will not kill a cell expressing them.

A

Natural killer (NK)

300
Q

___ cells recognize their antigen associated with MHC class I molecules and destroy them.

A

Cytotoxic T

301
Q

These cells (NK and Cytotoxic T?) can kill by binding to a cell receptor which activates ___, or by releasing _____.

A

apoptosis, perforins and granzymes

302
Q

MHC class II molecules are found predominately on __________.

A

B cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages

303
Q

______ recognize antigen associated with MHC class II molecules. Once an antigen is presented to it, it can stimulate a ____ to produce antibodies.

A

Helper T cells, B cell

304
Q

G protein-coupled receptors bind ligands that include __(7)____.
G proteins transmit the signal from the receptor to _____ (like adenylyl cyclase). Then that activates a _____.

A

hormones, neurotransmitters, opium derivatives, chemoattractants, odorants, tastants, and photons; an effector; secondary messenger

305
Q

____ bind GPCRs (G protein-coupled receptors) that activate a G protein which activates adenylyl cyclase.

A

Glucagon and Epinephrine

306
Q

Adenylyl cyclase activates ____ which activates PKA.

PKA activates a _____ that results in the breakdown of glycogen to glucose and inhibition of glycogen synthesis.

A

cAMP, cascade of enzymes

307
Q

The insulin receptor is an example of a ______.

A

receptor protein-tyrosine kinase (RTK).

308
Q

Ligand binding to RTKs causes ___. Insulin binds to the ___ which causes the ___ to come together. When the dimer forms, ____ residues on the cytoplasmic domains of the beta subunits occurs. The activated beta subunits phosphorylate tyrosine residues on substrates.

A

dimerization of the receptor, alpha subunits, beta subunits, autophosphorylation of tyrosines

309
Q

Calcium Concentration in the Cytosol is ___.

A

low

310
Q

Ca2+ in the ER is 10,000 times higher/lower than in the cytosol.

A

higher

311
Q

Ca2+ ion channels in the plasma and ER membranes normally remain opened/closed.

A

closed

312
Q

Energy-driven Ca2+ transport systems of the plasma and ER membranes pump Ca2+ in/out of the cytosol.

A

out

313
Q

What opens Calcium ion channels in the ER? Opening of Ca2+ channels in ER does what?

A

Calcium, increases cytosol Ca2+ concentration

314
Q

Targets of Executioner Caspase Cleavage: Protein kinases like focal adhesion kinase, which is responsible for what?

A

maintaining a cell’s attachment to neighboring cells

315
Q

Targets of Executioner Caspase Cleavage: Lamina which makeup what?

A

the inner lining of the nuclear envelope

316
Q

Targets of Executioner Caspase Cleavage: ____ of the cytoskeleton and DNase inhibitory protein.

A

Proteins