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EoM 3 > Cell Cycle, Mitosis, and Meiosis > Flashcards

Cell Cycle, Mitosis, and Meiosis Flashcards

1
Q

Abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell

A

aneuploidy

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2
Q

Four phases of the cell cycle

A

G1, S, G2, M

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3
Q

Resting phase of the cell cycle

A

G0

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4
Q

What is the committed phase of the cell cycle? (no going back)

A

S phase

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5
Q

Phase which comprises the largest segment of the cell cycle?

A

G1 phase

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6
Q

Early cell divisions of embryos proceed without which two phases

A

G1 or G2

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7
Q

Which phase of the cell cycle sees organelles replicated

A

G2 phase

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8
Q

Kinase activity during late G1/S that prevents re-initiation of replication

A

CDK2 / Cyclin A

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9
Q

What prepares the Origin Recognition Complex for initiating replication during late G1?

A

MCM helicase

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10
Q

After what does the animal cell no longer need growth factors continue with the cycle?

A

Restriction point (in G1)

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11
Q

Activate components of pathways responsible for DNA synthesis and even mitosis

A

Cyclin dependent kinases (CDK)

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12
Q

Regulate activity of cyclin dependent kinases

A

Cylcins

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13
Q

Provide additional cell cycle control in specific situations (eg absence of growth signals or the presence of DNA damage)

A

Cdk inhibitors

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14
Q

Quality control checks preventing progression in the presence of errors in the cell cycle. Can initiate apoptosis

A

checkpoints

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15
Q

The transition from G2 to M is regulated by…

A

Mitosis Promoting Factor (MPF)

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16
Q

Mutated protein kinases which inhibit the cell cycle

A

Cell division cycle (CDC) mutants

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17
Q

Components of the MPF complex

A

CDK1 and cyclin B

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18
Q

Adds the activating phosphate to CDK1

A

CDK Activating Kinase (CAK)

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19
Q

Adds the inhibitory phosphate to CDK1

A

Wee1 kinase

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20
Q

Removes inhibitory phosphate from CDK1

A

Cdc25 Phosphatase

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21
Q

Initiated by Cyclin B and CDK1

A

M phase

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22
Q

Ubiquinates cyclin B for degradation

A

APC

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23
Q

This CDK can be a placeholder for all others

A

CDK1

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24
Q

How do cyclins control CDKs?

A

Determine the target specificity

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25
Q

CDK/Cyclin combination active in Early G1 through R

A

Cdk4, 6 and Cyclin D

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26
Q

CDK/Cyclin combination active from G1 to S transition

A

Cdk2 and Cyclin E

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27
Q

CDK/Cyclin combination active from G2 to M transition

A

Cdk1 and Cyclin B

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28
Q

Four mechanisms of Cdk regulation

A

1) association of Cdks with cyclins
2) phosphorylation of Cdk
3) Dephosphorylation of Cdk
4) association with Cdk inhibitors

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29
Q

Binds CDK 4,6 and inhibits progression through G1

A

Ink 4 family

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30
Q

Binds Cdk2/Cyclin A or E and inhibits progress through G1 and S

A

Cip/Kip family

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31
Q

Growth factors binds to their receptors, initiating a signaling cascade leading to the synthesis of…

A

Cyclin D

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32
Q

The altered gene for this protein is responsible for retinoblastomas

A

Retinoblastoma protein (Rb)

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33
Q

Binds to E2F to repress transcription

A

Rb

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34
Q

When phosphorylated by Cdk4,6/Cyclin D,E Rb dissociates from what to activate transcription?

A

E2F

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35
Q

Before the restriction point, Cdk2/Cyclin E is inhibited by…

A

p27

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36
Q

What is initiated once Cdk2/Cyclin E is activated

A

DNA replication

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37
Q

As G1 progresses, more Cyclin E is synthesized. Repression by p27 is relieved in what three ways

A

1) p27 synthesis decreases
2) p27 binds Cdk4,6/Cyclin D
3) p27 also targeted for degradation

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38
Q

Protect the cell from replication errors or passing down damaged DNA

A

DNA damage checkpoints

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39
Q

Ensures chromosomes are aligned properly so each daughter cell receives one copy of each chromosome

A

Spindle assembly checkpoint

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40
Q

Three DNA damage checkpoints

A

1) G1 phase - ensures cell does not proceed to S phase with damaged DNA
2) S phase continuously monitors for errors in replication and DNA damage
3) G2 phase - final monitor for DNA damage before segregation of the chromosomes in M phase

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41
Q

Checkpoint monitoring the alignment of chromosomes on the metaphase plate. What phase is this in?

A

M phase

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42
Q

Kinase part of the complex recognizing double strand DNA damage

A

ATM

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43
Q

Kinase part of the complex recognizing single strand DNA damage

A

ATR

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44
Q

ATM kinase phosphorylates which downstream kinase in DNA damage checkpoints

A

ChK2

45
Q

ATR kinase phosphorylates which downstream kinase in DNA damage checkpoints

A

ChK1

46
Q

Chk1 and Chk2, both tumor suppression genes, phosphorylate what to continue DNA damage checkpoint pathway?

A

Cdc25

47
Q

What happens when Cdc25 is phosphorylated

A

Cdc25 is unable to activate Cdk1 and Cdk2

48
Q

Which two kinases phosphorylate p53

A

ATM and Chk2

49
Q

Transcription factor regulating transcription of the cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor p21

A

p53

50
Q

Inhibition target of p21

A

Cdk2/Cyclin E complex (causing G1 arrest)

51
Q

[Stage of Mitosis] Chromosomes condense, initial formation of mitotic spindles, nuclear envelop breaks down

A

Prophase

52
Q

[Stage of Mitosis] Spindle microtubules attach to kinetochore, chromosomes align at center of spindles

A

Metaphase

53
Q

[Stage of Mitosis] Sister chromatids separate and move to poles

A

Anaphase

54
Q

[Stage of Mitosis] Reformation of nuclear envelope, chromosome condensation

A

Telophase

55
Q

Positive feedback by MPF in mitosis

A

MPF (CDK1/Cyclin B) phosphorylates Aurora kinase which then phosphorylates Polo-like kinase. Polo-like Kinase then phosphorylates MPF (CDK1/Cyclin B)

56
Q

Why would chromosomes need to be condensed

A

to move them around

57
Q

Why would chromosomes need to be diffuse

A

to allow transcription / replication / etc

58
Q

Binds sister chromatids together side by side

A

Cohesin

59
Q

Chromosomes are condensed during ____ to facilitate separation

A

prophase

60
Q

Promotes condensation (of chromosomes) in a process that requires hydrolysis of ATP

A

Condensin complex

61
Q

The ____ complex is a target of MPF and Aurora B

A

Condensin complex

62
Q

Sister chromatids are held together by cohesin along their entire length in this phase

A

G2

63
Q

Cohesin is removed from most of the length of the chromosome arms but remains at the centromere in this phase

A

prophase

64
Q

Phosphorylate lamins to cause their deploymerization

A

MPF

65
Q

Lamins A and C disperse to where during nuclear envelope breakdown

A

cytoplasm

66
Q

Diffuse to the endoplasmic reticulum and form vesicles during nuclear envelope breakdown (2)

A

membrane proteins and lamin B

67
Q

Nuclear pore complexes disperse when _____ are phosphorylated

A

nucleoporins

68
Q

Attachment of chromosomes at the kinetochore

A

spindle formation

69
Q

Two types of microtubules which push spindle poles apart

A

Polar and Astral Microtubules

70
Q

Four Types of Microtubules in Mitosis

A

1) Kinetochore
2) Chromosomal
3) Polar - separates poles
4) Astral - position and orient spindle

71
Q

Regulate assembly and disassembly of microtubules

A

Microtubule Associated Proteins (MAPs)

72
Q

Drug that stabilizes the microtubules and interferes with the ability to align the chromosomes. Used in cancer

A

Paclitaxel (Taxol)

73
Q

Protein complex that binds centromere and spindle microtubules

A

Kinetochore

74
Q

Proteins associated with the centromere (think packaging)

A

Histone H3-like Centromeric Protein (CENP)

75
Q

Tension sensor transmitting information about microtubule attachment to regulatory complex during spindle checkpoint

A

CENP-E

76
Q

Four proteins in the Mitotic Checkpoint Complex (MCC)

A

BubR1, Bub3, Mad2, and Cdc20

77
Q

The required activator of APC which is blocked when part of the Mitotic Checkpoint Complex

A

Cdc20

78
Q

APC’s activation when all chromosomes are properly oriented triggers…

A

anaphase

79
Q

Destruction promotes chromosome separation by activating separase. Target of APC

A

Securin

80
Q

Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is what sort of enzyme

A

ubiquitin ligase (E3 enzyme)

81
Q

Chromosome segregation must be completed before ____ is degraded. Its degradation allow the cell to exit mitosis. Failure to complete chromosome segregation is called nondisjunction

A

Cyclin B

82
Q

Anaphase A

A

Sister chromatid separation

83
Q

Anaphase B

A

Separation of spindle poles

84
Q

When do cyclin b levels peak

A

during mitosis

85
Q

Decrease in its activity permits events of telophase and cytokinesis to proceed

A

MPF

86
Q

Nuclear envelope reassembled, chromosomes decondense, and the formation of the cleavage furrow

A

telophase

87
Q

Dephosphorylation by ___ promotes nuclear reassembly

A

Cdc14 phosphatase

88
Q

Signal for formation of contractile ring emitted during this phase of mitosis

A

cytokinesis

89
Q

Actin filaments attached to plasma membrane, active in cytokinesis

A

Contractile Ring

90
Q

Interacts with the actin filaments in sliding filament mechanism to contract ring

A

Bipolar Myosin II

91
Q

A transient increase in intracellular Ca2+ activates Myosin Light Chain (MLC) kinase. What does this trigger?

A

Contraction of the contractile ring

92
Q

Two nuclear and cell divisions without an intervening S phase

A

Meiosis

93
Q

Ploidy of haploid cells?

A

N

94
Q

Ploidy of diploid cells?

A

2N

95
Q

At the end of S phase when DNA synthesis is complete (meiosis), a diploid cell has a _C DNA content and is _N.

A

4C and 2N

96
Q

At the end of mitosis the daughter cells are _N and have _C DNA content

A

2N and 2C

97
Q

At the end of meiosis I, gametes have a _N chromosome number and _C DNA content

A

1N and 2C

98
Q

At the end of meiosis II, gametes have a _N chromosome number and _C DNA content

A

1N and 1C

99
Q

Exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes

A

recombination

100
Q

Purpose of the Synaptonemal Complex in meiosis

A

Hold the chromosomes together

101
Q

First part of the synaptonemal complex to appear, lining the chromatin loops and later forming lateral elements

A

Axial elements

102
Q

Zipper-like structure that holds Synaptonemal Complex together

A

Transverse filaments

103
Q

Site of recombinatin in the synaptonemal complex. Contains proteins mediating this process.

A

Recombination nodules

104
Q

Points of attachment of homologs. Sites of recombination. Required for proper segregation of homologous chromosomes.

A

Chiasmata

105
Q

stage female meiosis arrested at before puberty and in the absence of ovulation

A

diplotene stage of prophase I

106
Q

Two points of regulation for oocyte meiosis

A

1) Diplotene (Prophase I) – chromosomes decondense and are transcriptionally active
2) Metaphase II arrest

107
Q

Induces chromosome condensation, breakdown of nuclear envelope, and formation of spindle in oocyte meiosis

A

Cdk1/Cyclin B

108
Q

Responsible for maintaining Cdk1 activity in oocyte meiosis. Its essential component, Mos, is synthesized in oocytes following meiosis I – inhibits APC/C.

A

Cytostatic factor (CSF)

109
Q

Fertilization results in activation of APC/C via inhibition of Cytostatic Factor (CSF) by…

A

Emi2/Erp1 (cyclin B degraded and the second meiotic division completes)

EoM 3 (10 decks)

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