CELL - BLOOD Flashcards
which membrane is characterized by a trilaminar appearance under an electron microscope?/
A. Plasmalemma
B. Mitochondria
C. Nucleus
D. All of these
A. Plasmalemma
Feulgen reaction demonstrates:
A. Nuclear chromatin
B. Golgi complex
C. Nucleolus
D. Centrosome
C. Nucleolus
The process of controlled degradation of otherwise healthy cells
A. Necrobiosis
B. Autophagy
C. Heterophagy
D. Apoptosis
D. Apoptosis
Basal bodies or kinetosomes are derived from which of the ff:
A. Centrioles
B. Lysosomes
C. Intermediate filaments
D. Peroxisomes
A. Centrioles
Which is not a property of heterochromatin?
A. Section of coiled DNA
B. Determines typing of cell
C. Visible and stainable in light microscopy
D. Represents the genes that are being expressed in an interphase
D. Represents the genes that are being expressed in an interphase
Which of the ff microtubule associated proteins from the cross bridges between neighboring microtubes
A. Kinesin
B. Dynamin
C. Dynein
D. Filaggrin
C. Dynein
Clathrin-coated vesicles are observed in the process of?
A. Phagocytosis
B. Fluid-phase pinocytosis
C. Exocytosis
D. Selective pinocytosis
A. Phagocytosis
Activation of capases leads to apoptosis of a cell which releases cytochrome c of by which organelle?
A. Mitochondria
B. Golgi Apparatus
C. Lysosomes
D. Proteasomes
A. Mitochondria
COP-I mediates transport of vesicles from which of the ff membranous organelles
A. rER to GA
B. GA to ER
C. Plasma membrane to endosomes
D. GA to lysosomes
B. GA to ER
Protein degradation that involves tagging of ubiquitin:
A. Chaperone mediated
B. Receptor mediated
C. Clathrin dependent
D. Proteasome-mediated
D. Proteasome-mediated
The term karyokinesis refers to?
A. Division of the nucleus
B. Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase
C. Fragmentation of the nucleus in cell death
D. Reconstruction of the nuclear membrane in telophase
A. Division of the nucleus
Cyclin A-CdK1 regulates which part of the cell cycle?
A. Entry to S phase
B. Progression of S phase
C. Entry to M phase
D. Progression of M phase
C. Entry to M phase
Replication of DNA occurs during;
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. None of the Above
D. None of the Above
Replication of DNA occurs at S phase
The microtubules of the mitotic spindle attach to which part of the chromosome:
A. Kinetochores
B. Kinetosomes
C. Synaptonemal complex
D. Telomeres
A. Kinetochores
Which of the ff events marks the start of prophase in mitotic division:
A. Appearance of chromosomes in the nucleus
B. Disappearance of the nucleolus
C. disappearance of the nuclear membrane
D. Replication and movement of the centrioles to opposite pole
A. Appearance of chromosomes in the nucleus
The restriction point occurs in which part of the cycle?
A. between G1 and S phase
B. between G2 and mitosis
C. between mitosis and G1 phase
D. between S phase and G2 phase
A. between G1 and S phase
Colchicine arrests mitoses in which phase?
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Interphase
D. Telophase
B. Metaphase
Which statements does not accurately describe epithelium as a tissue?
A. Devoid of blood supply and are nourished through diffusion
B. Made up of contiguous cells w/ sparse intercellular substance
C. Rests on lamina propria w/ basement membrane in between
D. Capable of transforming into different type of epithelium
E. None of the above
D. Capable of transforming into different type of epithelium
This type of tissue is characterized by multiple layers of cells w/ the topmost layer containing nuclei that are oval and elongated with its long axis parallel to the surface of the epithelium?
A. Simple squamous
B. Stratified squamous
C. Simple columnar
D. Stratified columnar
B. Stratified squamous
This surface specialization of the epithelium functions as a mechanoreceptor of the sensory hair cells of the inner ear.
A. Stereocilia
B. Microvilli
C. Nodal cilia
D. Motile cilia
A. Stereocilia
The difference of the microvilli and stereocilia is the absence of this protein in the tip of the former
A. Fimbrin
B. Actin
C. Villin
D. Ezrin
C. Villin
A young girl w/ intense abdominal pain and diarrhea was positive for Clostridium perfringes
A. Enterotoxin binds to the claudin molecule of zonula occludens
B. Carboxy-terminus forms pores w/in the apical domain of the plasma membrane
C. The toxin targets both ZO-1 and JAM proteins and disrupts the zonula occludens
D. All of the above
A. Enterotoxin binds to the claudin molecule of zonula occludens
Attributes of cells in the immune system characterized by release of molecules that bind to receptors on the same cell that produces them:
A. Autocrine
B. Paracrine
C. Merocrine
D. Halocrine
A. Autocrine
Mutation in the gene encoding type VII collagen results in an inherited skin disease in which the epithelium becomes detached below the basement membrane. Which structures are specifically affected in this disease?
A. Fibrillin microfibrils
B. Hemidesmosomes
C. Anchoring fibrils
D. Focal adhesion
C. Anchoring fibrils
inherited skin disease is dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa
A mechanism in production secretion in which the secretory cell undergo destruction by apoptosis is best exemplified by which gland:
A. Mammary gland
B. Sebaceous glands of the skin
C. gland of Brunner
D. Eccrine sweat gland
B. Sebaceous glands of the skin
Describe the serous and mucous gland
Mucous - viscous and slimy
Serous - watery
Which complex junction forms the Primary Intracellular Diffusion Barrier
A. Occluding J
B. Anchoring j
C. Nexus
D. Junction
A. Occluding J
Specific name given to simple squamous epithelium lining the blood vessels
Endothelium
Aside from forming the backbone of Zona occludens, what is the other function of claudins?
A. Required in the epidermal growth factor-receptor signaling mechanism
B. Forms and regulates aqueous channels used for paracellular diffusion
C. maintains barrier between apical and lateral cell surface
D. Mediates interactions between endothelial cells and monocyte adhesions
B. Forms and regulates aqueous channels used for paracellular diffusion
The extracellular matrix of Mucous Connective Tissue is composed mainly of:
A. Chondroitin Sulfate
B. Hyaluronan
C. heparan Sulfate
D. Keratan Sulfate
B. Hyaluronan
In renewing cell population the longest phase in the cell cycle is:
A. M phase
B. G1 phase
C. S phase
D. G2 phase
B. G1 phase
The t tubules of skeletal muscles are located:
A. I band
B. I-A band
C. M band
D. H band
B. I-A band
Contractions in the smooth muscle may be initiated by which of the ff stimuli:
A. Chemical
B. Electrical
C. Mechanical
D. A&B
D. AOTA
D
The sarcomeres of muscle fibers refer to aggregates of:
A. Polyribosomes
B. ER
C. Lysosomes
D. Mitochondria
D. Mitochondria
Ability of the cell to take up another color than the stain
Metachromasia
True of plasma cell:
A. Round oval shape
B. Heterochromatin w/ clock face appearance
C. Perinuclear halo due to golgi apparatus and centromere
B. Heterochromatin w/ clock face appearance
Primary function is to produce large quantities of antibodies;
A. Phagocytes
B. Macrophage
C. Plasma Cell
C. Plasma Cell
Type of collagen in basal lamina of epithelim, kidney glomeruli, and lens capsule
Type IV
Repeated fractures, brittle bones
A. Osteogenesis imperfecta - collagen I
B. Kneist Dysplasia - collagen II
C. Ehlers Danlos Syndrome - collagen III
A. Osteogenesis imperfecta - collagen I
Function in cellular recognition of proteins ligands, axonal guidance, cell motility, corneal transparency, and embryo implantation. GAGS found in cartilage, bone, and cornea
A. Chondroitin sulfate
B. Hyaluronan
C. Heparan Sulfate
D. Keratan Sulfate
D. Keratan Sulfate
Linear molecules; binds via a link protein to hyaluronan. Responsible for hydration of ECM of cartilage.
A. Aggrecan
B. Decorin
C. Syndecan
D. Versecan
A. Aggrecan
True of macrophages, Except:
A. Phagocytes derived from monocytes, abundant in lysosomes
B. Antigen-presenting cells, present antigen CD4+ T-lymphocytes
C. Activated macrophage, M1 Macrophage Illicit chronic inflammation and tissue injury
D. Are the first cells to reach an injured area, the first to recognize foreign organisms or infectious agents and initiate destruction
D. Are the first cells to reach an injured area, the first to recognize foreign organisms or infectious agents and initiate destruction
- Neutrophil first arrived at the site of injury
When macrophages encounter large foreign bodies, they may fuse to form a large cell w/ as many as 100 nuclei that engulfs the foreign body. These multinucleated cells are called
A. Langhans cells
B. Myofibroblast
C. Neutrophils
D. Plasma Cells
A. Langhans cells
The absence of these cells in the brain and spinal cord prevents the disruptive damages of edema and allergic reactions:
A. Macrophage
B. Mast cells
C. Monocytes
D. Plasma cells
B. Mast cells
Type of collagen that forms the bulk of the fibrils in hyaline cartilage
A. Type 1
B. type 2
C. Type 9
D. Type 10
B. type 2
True of osteoarthritis, except:
A. It is a degenerative joint disease related to aging and injury of articular cartilage
B. There is a decrease in proteoglycan content, which results in reduction in intercellular water content in the cartilage matrix
C. By producing IL-1 and TNF-a, the production of metalloproteinases is stimulated, whereas synthesis of type II collagen and proteoglycans by the chondrocyte is inhibited
D. Destruction of the cartilage does not extend to the bone
D. Destruction of the cartilage does not extend to the bone
Region that is more removed from the immediate vicinity of the chondrocytes. It surrounds the isogenous group and contains a randomly arranged network of type II collagen fibrils w/ smaller quantities of type IX collagen:
A. Capsular matrix
B. Extracellular matrix
C. territorial matrix
D. Interterritorial matrix
C. territorial matrix
A region that occupied the space between groups of chondrocytes:
A. Capsular matrix
B. Extracellular matrix
C. territorial matrix
D. Interterritorial matrix
D. Interterritorial matrix
Staining reaction of hyaline cartilage and why is this so?
Basophilic because of GAGs
In adults, red bone marrow restricted to the spongy part of which locations?
A. Sternum
B. Iliac crest
C. Tibia
D. A&B
E. AOTA
D. A&B
Sternum & Iliac crest (flat bones)
Which statement best describes osteoblast?
A. Highly basophilic due to abundance of ribonucleic protein
B. Relatively undifferentiated cells capable of multiplication as well as functional and structural specialization
C. The cytoplasm is acidophilic and highly vacuolated due to the presence of lysosomal vesicles
D. When released during bone reabsorption, they are capable of modulating back to osteogenic cells or osteoclast
A. Highly basophilic due to abundance of ribonucleic protein
The active site of resorption in the osteoclast:
A. Basolateral zone
B. Clear zone
C. Howship lacuna
D. Ruffled Border
B. Clear zone
Remnant Lamella formed from previous osteons disrupted by remodeling:
A. Interstitial Lamella
B. Concentric Lamella
C. Outer Circumferential Lamellae
D. Inner Circumferential Lamellae
A. Interstitial Lamella
Bone formed in endochondral ossification:
A. Clavicle
B. Long bone only
C. Femur and vertebrae
D. Mandible
C. Femur and vertebrae
Intramembranous ossification - flat bones (skull, mandible, clavicle)
Endochondral ossification - all other bones
True about osteoblast, EXCEPT:
A. They produce osteoid which mostly collagen 1
B. They cover the bone spicules
C. They wander around and resorb bone on surfaces where bone is being removed or remodeled.
D. Their basophilic cytoplasm is from the synthesis of protein in osteoid.
C. They wander around and resorb bone on surfaces where bone is being removed or remodeled.
What glands secretes PTH hormone?
Parathyroid gland
The first sign of endochondral ossification
A. Appearance of a distinctive cuff of periosteal bone around the cartilage model in the diaphyseal portion or the developing bone
B. Mesenchymal cells migrate and aggregate in areas where bone will form
C. The chondrocytes in the mid-region of the cartilage model become hypertrophic
D. A cuff of periosteal bone is established around the cartilage model in the epiphyseal portion of the developing bone
B. Mesenchymal cells migrate and aggregate in areas where bone will form
Site where primary ossification first happens:
A, Primary Spongiosa
B. Secondary spongiosa
B. Secondary spongiosa
This bone is cuboidal or columnar in shape; has eccentrically placed nucleus; cytoplasm is basophilic due to abundant ribonucleoprotein, PAS reaction reveals pink staining granules in the cytoplasm which are the precursors of the bone matrix; and developing bones. What cell is being described?
A. Osteoblast
B. Osteoclast
C. Osteoprogenitor cell
D. Osteocyte
A. Osteoblast
Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) is the most important regulator of calcium and phosphate levels in the ECF. which of the following cells do not have the PTH receptor?
A. Osteoclasts
B. Osteoblasts
C. Osteocytes
D. T lymphocytes
A. Osteoclasts
The order of the zones of the epiphyseal cartilage beginning w/ the zone most distal to the diaphyseal center of ossification and proceeding toward that center
Zone of reserve cartilage -> Zone of Proliferation -> Zone of hypertrophy and maturation -> zone of calcified cartilage -> zone of resorption
What zone of the epiphyseal plate contains chondrocytes that remain metabolically active where they continue to secrete type II collagen while increasing their secretion of type X collagen, and the cartilage matric is compressed to form linear bands between the columns of cells>
A. Zone of hypertrophy
B. Zone of calcified cartilage
C. Zone of proliferation
D. Zone of reserve cartilage
A. Zone of hypertrophy
Sequestration and release of calcium necessary for muscle contraction
A. sER
B. Mitochondria
C. rER
D. Synaptic vesicle
A. sER
True for Smooth Muscle, except:
A. Variation in sizes of fiber in cross section
B. Absence of striations
C. Entire muscle fiber as functional and structural unit
C. Entire muscle fiber as functional and structural unit
Content of A band
A. only myosin
B. Only actin
C. Both
D. None
C. Both actin & myosin
Width of contraction will remain constant whether during muscle contraction or relaxation:
A. I band
B. H band
C. A band
D. None
C. A band
Regeneration of skeletal muscles after injury involves:
A. fibroblast
B. macrophage
C. Satellite cells
D. Endothelial cells
C. Satellite cells
Tubules of skeletal muscle located
A. Z line
B. H zone
C. A_I junction
D. M line
C. A_I junction
Troponins that binds to actin, inhibiting actin-myosin interaction
A. troponin A
B. Troponin C
C. Troponin T
D. Troponin I
D. Troponin I
Characterized by presence of sarcomeres and longitudinal striations:
A. Smooth
B. Skeletal
C. Cardiac
D. Atrial myocyte
B. Skeletal
The ff statements are true dendrites:
A. Appears spiky due to cytoplasmic processes
B. Forms bundles known as fiber tract in the CNS
C. Contains mitochondria neurofilaments
D. Forms branches w/ acute angles
D. Forms branches w/ acute angles
Nerve cell bodies in the PNS are located in:
A. Nucleus
B. Ganglion
C. Gray Matter
D. White Matter
B. Ganglion
Most neurons in the nervous system are:
A. Sensory neurons
B. Interneurons
C. Motor neurons
D. Autonomic neurons
B. Interneurons
Which of the ff represents the intraperiod line of the myelin sheath:
A. apposition of the outer surfaces of the schwann cell membrane
B. apposition of the cytoplasmic surfaces of the schwann cells
C. apposition between the schwann cell mebrane and the outermost layer of the myelin lamellae
D. the basal lamina that covers the schwann cells externally
Amphicytes are small cells that surround the following:
A. Neuron in ganglia
B. Muscle fibers
C. Neurons in nuclei
D. Neural Processes
A. Neuron in ganglia
In a x-section of a nerve, myelin is best demonstrated by which stain:
A. H&E
B. Osmium
C. Silver
D. Cresyl Violet
B. Osmium
Types of neurons found in nasal olfactory
A. Unipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Pseudounipolar
D. Multipolar
B. Bipolar
Clefts of lantermann
A. Interval sites of concentric lamellae
B. interval sites between successive schwann cells
C. Interval sites where axons emerge
A. Interval sites of concentric lamellae
Which of the ff statements about degeneration and regeneration is TRUE:
A. chromatolysis involves degeneration of the myelin sheath in a damaged nerve
B. the time for functional recovery of a peripheral nerve is about 1-2 mm/day
C. Wallerian degeneration involves death of the schwann cells in the distal nerve
D. Gliosis is an area of fibrosis in the CNS containing abundant collagen
C. Wallerian degeneration involves death of the schwann cells in the distal nerve
Which of the ff glial cells possess numerous “perivascular feet” that are attached to brain capillaries, thus, serving as component of the blood brain barrier:
A. Mesoglia
B. Astrocytes
C. Microglia
D. Oligodendrocytes
B. Astrocytes
The ff are requirements for successful regeneration of axons, EXCEPT:
A. Formation of band fibers of Bungner
B. Formation of glial scar
C. Approximation of proximal & distal stumps
D. Removal of myelin debris
B. Formation of glial scar
The ff membrane bound organelles, EXCEPt:
A. Mitochondria
B. no exception mention
C. Annullate lamellae
D. Centrioles
D. Centrioles
Feulgen reaction will demonstrate which component of the cell:
A. Nucleolus
B. Centrosome
C. Nuclear chromatin
D. golgi complex
C. Nuclear chromatin
The organelle that duplicate itself similar to the binary fission of bacteria:
A. Centriole
B. Lysosome
C. Ergatoplasm
D. Mitochondrion
D. Mitochondrion
In receptor-mediated pinocytosis the membrane vesicles are initially enclosed in
A. clathrin
B. calmodulin
C. dystrophin
d. syndesmin
A. clathrin
Chronic administration of lipid-soluble drugs will result to hypertrophy of which organelles in the liver cells:
A. annulate drugs
B. sER
C. peroxisomes
D. golgi complex
B. sER
Which intermediate filaments predominate in
cells of mesenchymal origin:
A. keratin
B. vimentin
C. glial filaments
D. desmin
B. vimentin
Which of the following statements is true of the
protein component of the cell membrane:
A. they are free to move about from
apical to the basal or lateral surfaces
of epithelial cells
B. serve as receptors that enable the cell to recognize and bind specific molecules
C. they are largely responsible for the permeability of the membrane to diffusion of ions & gases in solution
D. they are responsible for the trilaminar appearance of the membrane under the electron microscope
B. serve as receptors that enable the cell to recognize and bind specific molecules
“Storage diseases” in children are due to deficiency of enzymes in which organelle:
A. lysosome
B. peroxisome
C. no option is correct
D. mitochondrion
A. lysosome
*lysosomal storage diseases
The motor protein kinesin moves vesicles along microtubules towards:
A. either end
B. the minus end
C. the plus end
D. in neither direction
C. the plus end
The following cytological changes are observed in apoptosis, EXCEPT:
A. fragmentation of the cell into
membrane-bounded globules
B. swelling of the cell followed by
cytolysis
C. condensation of the nuclear chromatin
D. degradation of DNA by endonucleases
B. swelling of the cell followed by
cytolysis
Colchicine arrests mitoses in which phase?
A. Prophase
B. metaphase
C. interphase
D. Telophase
B. metaphase
A chromosome is classified as metacentric if the centromere is located:
A. at the very end
B. between midpoint & one end
C. midpoint in the chromosome
D. near one end
C. midpoint in the chromosome
Which of the following events marks the start of prophase in mitotic division:
A. appearance of chromosomes in the nucleus
B. disappearance of the nucleolus
C. disappearance of the nuclear
membrane
D. replication and movement of the
centrioles to opposite poles
A. appearance of chromosomes in the nucleus
Synapsis of chromosomes starts to occur in which phase of meiotic prophase:
A. pachytene
B. diplotene
C. zygotene
D. leptotene
C. zygotene
The basis for classifying stratified epithelia into different subtypes:
A. number of layers
B. surface specializations present
C. shape of superficial cells
D. shape of cells in all layers
C. shape of superficial cells
The following statements are true regarding epithelia in general, EXCEPT:
A. They are capable of changing from one type to another
B. Maybe derived from any of the 3 germ layers
C. Their phenotype & functions are
influenced by the basal lamina
D. They are vascular & well supplied by nerves
D. They are vascular & well supplied by nerves
Kartagener’s syndrome is characterized by chronic respiratory problems & infertility. This is brought about by defect in which motor protein:
A. kinesin
B. dynamin
C. filaggrin
D. dynein
D. dynein
Which of the following structure will contain nine triplet microtubules:
A. basal body
B. flagellum
C. no option is correct
D. cilium
D. cilium
The type of epithelium that is least commonly found in the human body:
A. transitional epithelium
B. stratified columnar
C. simple columnar ciliate
D. glandular epithelium
B. stratified columnar
Which of the following membrane
specializations DO NOT contribute to cell-tocell adhesions or communication:
A. zonula adherens
B. hemi-desmosome
C. gap junction
D. zonula occludens
D. zonula occludens
Neuroepithelium is basically which type of epithelium:
A. pseudostratified columnar
B. stratified epithelium
C. simple columnar
D. no option is correct
A. pseudostratified columnar
The following statements are true concerning simple epithelia in general, EXCEPT:
A. The component cells of all subtypes will appear polygonal on surface view
B. They may be derived from any of the 3 germ layers
C. All component cells possess 3
functional surfaces
D. They are made up of a single row of cells
B. They may be derived from any of the 3 germ layers
During ciliogenesis, basal bodies can arise de novo, without participation of centrioles, from
small spherical dense bodies known as:
A. microbodies
B. deuterosomes
C. kinetosomes
D. procentrioles
D. procentrioles
Which epithelium is best suited for stretching to accommodate the expansion of the urinary bladder when full of urine:
A. transitional epithelium
B. stratified columnar epithelium
C. pseudostratified epithelium
D. simple columnar epithelium
A. transitional epithelium
Based on gland-cell participation in secretion, sebaceous gland is classified as:
A. Holocrine
B. Miscellaneous
C. apocrine
D. Merocrine
A. Holocrine
Which of the following is classified as a simple coiled tubular gland?
A. sebaceous gland
B. sweat gland
C. Mammary gland
D. Gland of Lieberkuh
A. sebaceous gland
True for serous membrane:
A. All options are correct
B. It’s overlying epithelium is variable depending on location
C. It is moistened by secretions from glands beneath the epithelium
D. It lines inner surfaces of the body
D. It lines inner surfaces of the body
Naming a gland simple or compound in the morphological classification is based on:
A. Whether the gland is composed of a single or 2 or more secretory types
B. Whether the duct is branched or
unbranched
C. The shape or morphology of the
secretory end-pieces
D. Whether the secretory portion is
branched or unbranched
B. Whether the duct is branched or
unbranched
Prominent connective tissue papillae is a feature of which epithelium?
A. Stratified squamous
B. Stratified columnar
C. Transitional
D. Pseudostratified
A. Stratified squamous
The following statements concerning pseudostratified epithelium are true, EXCEPT:
A. as a simple epithelium, all component cells possess a free surface
B. unlike stratified epithelia, all
component cells are attached to the
basal lamina
C. maybe differentiated from stratified epithelia by the presence of a nucleifree zone near the free surface
D. the epithelium maybe plain, ciliated, or with stereocilia
A. as a simple epithelium, all component cells possess a free surface
Which of the following junctional specialization is closely associated to the terminal web:
A. zonula adherens
B. zonula occludens
C. gap junction
D. macula adherens
A. zonula adherens
The following statements is true concerning the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle:
A. it forms a continuous network
surrounding each muscle fiber
B. the tubular network become confluent with the terminal cisterna at the Z line
C. the tubular network is surrounded by membrane with associated ribosomes
D. between 2 adjacent junctional
reticulum is a T-tubule
C. the tubular network is surrounded by membrane with associated ribosomes
Which of the following statements is true for red fiber type of skeletal muscle:
A. they are the largest of the skeletal muscle fiber types
B. contain smaller & fewer mitochondria than white fibers
C. they are best suited for maintenance of posture & balance
D. their generation of ATP depends on anaerobic glycolysis
C. they are best suited for maintenance of posture & balance
The sarcosomes of muscle fibers refer to aggregates of:
A. polyribosomes
B. endoplasmic reticulum
C. lysosomes
D. mitochondria
Diminished acetylcholine receptors due to an autoimmune disease is the underlying disorder in which of the following condition:
A. Marfan’s syndrome
B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
C. myasthenia gravis
D. Kartagener’s syndrome
C. myasthenia gravis
This is the name of epithelium that lines and coversthe close body cavity like pericardial and pleural cavity
A. Mesothelium
B. Endothelium
C. Mesentery
D. Mesocardium
A. Mesothelium
What is the most common type of epithelium metaplasia that usually occurs in glandular epithelium
A. Squamous to columnar
B. Cuboidal to columnar
C. Columnar to squamous
C. Columnar to squamous
The microtubule organization of motile cilia that allows them to beat in a synchronous manner
A. 9+0
B. 9+1
C. 9+2
D. 9+3
C. 9+2
This protein forms the backbone of zona occludens strand
A. Jam
B. Cam
C. Occludin
D. Claudins
D. Claudins
Which protein makes up the most volume of basal lamina?
A. Collagen
B. Laminins
C. Entactin
D. Proteoglycans
D. Proteoglycans
What type of connective tissue is the perichondrium
A. DRCCT
B. DICT
C. Dense Elastic conective tissue
D. adipose connective tissue
B. DICT
True of the plasma cells, EXCEPT
A. Centrally-located nucleus with peripherally dispersed heterochromatin materials in a “clock-face” pattern.
B. Round to oval shape
C. A perinuclear halo corresponds to the location of the centrosome and golgi apparatus.
D. In H&E stain, intensely basophilic cytoplasm due to the high content of rough endoplasmic reticulum
A. Centrally-located nucleus with peripherally dispersed heterochromatin materials in a “clock-face” pattern.
Connective tissue of the umbilical cord
(non-verbatim xD)
A. Mesenchymal CT
B. Loose areolar CT
C. Mucous CT
D. Reticular CT
C. Mucous CT
Which of these components found in the ECM but not in the ground substance?
Collagen bundle
Fibronectin
GAGs
Hyaluronan
Proteoglycans
Fibronectin
What cells numerous in loose connective tissue are
filled with secretory granules and stain with
metachromasia?
A. Macrophages
B. Mast cells
C. Fibroblasts
D. Lymphocytes
B. Mast cells
Responsible for hydration of ECM of Cartilage?
A. Aggrecan
B. Fibronectin
C. Hyaluronan
D. Heparan Sulfate
A. Aggrecan
Which statement about the general characteristicof connective tissue is FALSE?
a. Component cells are far apart.
b. There are fibers in the extracellular matrix.
c. It has sparse intercellular substance.
d. All options are true.
c. It has sparse intercellular substance.
Residual cartilage in the proximal and distal end of bone contains columns of cartilage cells responsible for growth in length of bones until adulthood stature is
attained.
a. Endochondral ossification center
b. Epiphyseal growth plates
c. Primary ossification center
d. Secondary ossification center
b. Epiphyseal growth plates
True of fibrocartilage
A. Type II and IV cartilage
B. It calcifies
C. -
D. Dense regular CT + hyaline cartilage
D. Dense regular CT + hyaline cartilage
Constitutes the bone remodeling unit:
A. Epiphyseal line (ill get back to this later)
B. A cutting cone and a closing cone
C. Osteoblast resorption and osteoclast synthesis
D. Both B and C
E. All of the above
B. A cutting cone and a closing cone
Which “zone” of endochondral ossification in the growing femur is the farthest from that bone’s
secondary ossification center?
A. Zone of reserve cartilage
B. Zone of ossification
C. Zone of calcified cartilage
D. Zone of hypertrophy
E. Zone of proliferation
B. Zone of ossification
True concerning the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle
A. A continuous network surrounded by muscle fiber
B. A tubular network something something ribosomes
C. A tubular network forms at Z-line
D. Junctional at T-tubules
D. Junctional at T-tubules
Resistance to stretch exhibited by striated muscle fibers is highly attributed to which structural protein:
A. Z filaments
B. Filamin
C. Titin
D. Costamere
C. Titin
Muscle that releases a natriuretic that acts as diuretic
A. Skeletal muscle
B. Smooth muscle
C. Cardiac, ventricular
D. Cardiac, atria
D. Cardiac, atria
The following statements regarding neurons are true, EXCEPT:
A. Nissl bodies are found in the axon hillock but not in
the axoplasm.
B. Mitochondria are found in both dendrites & axons.
C. Lipofuscin granules tend to
accumulate with age.
D. Centrioles are found in both
neuroblasts & mature neurons.
A. Nissl bodies are found in the axon hillock but not in
the axoplasm.
Type of neuron in dorsal root ganglion
A. Unipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Pseudounipolar
D. Multipolar
C. Pseudounipolar
Which of the following encapsulated nerve endings
are found in the dermal papillae of the skin?
A. Meissner’s corpuscles
B. Bulbs of Krause
C. Vater-Pacinian corpuscles
D. Golgi-Mazzoni corpuscles
A. Meissner’s corpuscles
- Which of the following represents the intraperiod
line of the myelin sheath:
A. apposition of the outer surfaces of the Schwann cell membrane
B. apposition of the cytoplasmic surfaces of the Schwann cell membrane
C. apposition between the Schwann cell membrane & the outermost layer of the myelin lamellae
D. the basal lamina that covers the Schwann cells externally
A. apposition of the outer surfaces of the Schwann cell membrane
Which of the following serve as pain receptors?
A. Cylinders of Ruffini
B. Free Nerve Endings
C. Bulbs of Krause
D. Meissner’s Corpuscles
B. Free Nerve Endings
Function of Neuroglia EXCEPT
A. Maintenance of Ionic something
B. Formation of Myelin Sheath
C. Transmission of Impulse
D. None
C. Transmission of Impulse
This accounts for the intense acidophilia of the secondary granules of the eosinophils
Major Basic Protein
A blood smear sample shows crenated erythrocyte means that the blood sample is exposed to the
following solution:
Isotonic solution
Hypotonic solution
Hypertonic solution *
Solution with low osmotic pressure
Hypertonic solution *
What are the polypeptide chains responsible for the principal form of hemoglobin in the fetus?
A. α2β2
B. α2δ2
C. α2γ2
D. None of the above.
C. α2γ2
G6PD deficiency
A. Howell Jolly Bodies
B. Heinz Bodies
C. Rouleaux Formation
B. Heinz Bodies
Patient Type A+; False statement
A. Patient RBC has A antigen on surface
B. Patient serum has antibodies to A antigen
C. Patient can receive blood from Types A+ & O+
D. Patient can donate blood to Types A+ & AB+
B. Patient serum has antibodies to A antigen
This zone of thrombocyte contains thick coat of glycocalyx
A. Peripheral
B. Structural
C. Organelle
D. Membranous
A. Peripheral
