Cell Bio Midterm #2 Flashcards

lec 11-

1
Q

what happens in protein targeting

A

messenger RNA (mRNA) is transcribed in the nucleus, then transported to the cytoplasm where it is translated by ribosomes to specific proteins.

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2
Q

What are the two mechanisms of protein targeting

A

signal-based targeting and vesicle-based targeting

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3
Q

what is signal-based targeting used by

A

proteins that are destined to the ER, mitochondria, nucleus, chloroplasts, and peroxiosomes

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4
Q

what is vesicle-based targeting used by

A

proteins that are excreted into the extracellular space, inserted into plasms membrane, and by proteins that are destined for the Golgi or lysosomes

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5
Q

what is signal-based targeting encoded and directed by

A

specific amino acid sequences in the protein

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6
Q

what do the specific amino acid proteins in signal-based targeting serve as

A

adaptors for other proteins and protein complexes that are responsible for moving protiens arounf the cell

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7
Q

the nucleus contains two membranes that make up the what

A

nuclear envelope

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8
Q

what does Tom stand for

A

translocon of outer membrane

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9
Q

what does the N-terminal signal sequence bind to

A

the Tom protein complex on the outer mitochondrial membrane

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10
Q

What does the N-terminal and Tom complex contain

A

a receptor that recognizes the signal sequence and a channel that allows the protein to pass through the outer membrane

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11
Q

what happens in Vesicle-based trafficking

A

proteins are transported from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) lumen through the golgi apparatus to other membrane compartments

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12
Q

what is the golgi apparatus responsible for

A

transporting, modifying, and packaging proteins and lipids into vesicles for delivery to targeted destinations

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13
Q

What types of proteins use the vesicle-based trafficking mechanism to reach their final destination

A
  • proteins that are secreted from the cell via exocytosis
  • plasma membrane porteins
  • lysosomal proteins
  • golgi proteins
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14
Q

what is budding

A

the formation of a vessicle from an organelle, such as the ER of Golgi

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15
Q

what is budding facilitated by

A

coat proteins and GTP-binding proteins that bind to the cytosolic face of the organelle membrane

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16
Q

what do coat proteins do

A

generate curvature in the membrane, help determine which proteins will be loaded into the vesicle that is forming, and ensure that v-SNAREs are present

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17
Q

what do proteins such as dynamin do

A

associate with the neck region of the forming vesicle and pinch the vesicle off of the donor membrane

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18
Q

what energy source does dynamin require to associate with the neck region of the forming vesicle

A

energy in the form of GTP

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19
Q

once the vesicle has formed what happens

A

the coat proteins are shed

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20
Q

what causes the relase of the coat proteins

A

GTP-binding proteins hydrolyzing GTP to GDP

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21
Q

what is the benefit of v-SNAREs interacting with t-SNAREs

A

The vesicle membrane is brought into close proximity to the target membrane

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22
Q

what are the 3 classes of vesicles

A

1) COPII vesicles
2) COPI vesicles
3) clathrin vesicles

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23
Q

what class of vesicles are used during endocytosis

A

clathrin vesicles

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24
Q

what do CopII vesicles do

A

move cargo from the ER to the cis-Golgi

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25
Q

what do COPI vesicles do

A

move cargo between Golgi compartments and from cis-Golgi to ER

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26
Q

what do Clathrin vesicles do

A

move dysfunctional proteins from trans-Golgi to lysosomes for degradation

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27
Q

what is endocytosis

A

a process where cells can engulf material from the extracellular matrix

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28
Q

how are endocytic vesicles foemed during endocytosis

A

the plasma membrane surrounds the material to be engulfed and fuses to form endocytic vesicles

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29
Q

what is the purpose of endocytosis

A

to internalize material from the extracellular environment

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30
Q

how is degradation achieved

A

by lysosomal enzymes and acidic pH created by V-class proton pumps

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31
Q

why do plasma membranes need to be degraded

A

so they can be endocytose

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32
Q

what is the endosome membrane used for

A

used to form internal vesicles which are then releases into the lysosome for degradation

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33
Q

what is the purpose of autophagy

A

to degrade and therby recycle old organelles and protiens found in the cytosol

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34
Q

what are the 4 general steps

A
  • Double-cup membrane structure formed
  • This autophagosome surrounds material to be degraded
  • The autophagosome fuses with the lysosome
  • Lysosomal enzymes degrade material, allowing for the recycling of cellular components
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35
Q

when is autophagy often initiated

A

during periods of nutrient deprivation

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36
Q

how does autophagy begin

A

with the formation of an autophagosome (double-membrane cup-shaped structure) that envelops the material to be degraded

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37
Q

what does a autophagosome fuse with and what happens once it fuses

A

fuses with a lysosome
contents are then degraded and recycled

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38
Q

in multicellular organisms what is cell signalling required for

A
  • organismal development
  • organization into tissues
  • co-ordination of activities
  • control od growth and division
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39
Q

in single-cell roganisms what is cell signalling required for

A

adaption to changes in the environment

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40
Q

what is signal transduction

A

conversion of an extracellular signal into a cellular response

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41
Q

why do we need signal transduction

A

because cells must be able to change aspects of their structure in response to signals in their environment

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42
Q

what are the 4 common types of signals

A
  • chemical
  • physical
  • endogenous
  • exogenous
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43
Q

what are endogenous signals

A

signals that can be generated internally

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44
Q

what are endogenous signals divided into

A

endocrine, paracrine, autocrine, and plasma membrane-attached protein signals

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45
Q

what are exogenous signals

A

signals that can be generated from the outside of the organism

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46
Q

what do exogenous signals include

A

photons of light, odors, medications, invading micro-organisms

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47
Q

what are endocrine signallers calles and what do they do

A
  • endocrine signaling molecules are called hormones (e.g., insulin, epinephrine)
  • released into bloodstream to access distant target cells
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48
Q

what happens in paracrine signaling

A
  • a signal is released by a nearby cell onto a target cell
  • can create a gradient of signalling molecules
  • e.g., neurotransmitters, growth factors
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49
Q

what is an autocrine signal

A

a signal that acts on the cell that released it
- e.g., cytokines, certain growht factors

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50
Q

what are plasma membrane-attached protein signalling

A
  • signaling molecules embedded in the plasma membrane of one cell to activate receptors on another cell following direct contact
  • these molecules can also be cleaved from the membane and become soluble signals
  • e.g, adhesion molecules on immune cells
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51
Q

why do we need plasma membrane receptors

A
  • receptors provide exquisite selectivity for particular signals
    -They allow for graded responses depending upon the amount of signal present
  • They allow a single signal to produce different responses in different cell types
  • They provide signal amplification
  • Most signals are not able to cross the plasma so they detect these signals and initiate intracellular responses
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52
Q

what bonds to the receptor

A

ligand or agonist

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53
Q

what does receptor activation really mean

A

activation refers to a change in the conformation of the receptor that signals the presence of the ligand

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54
Q

what is the only way for a cell to respond to a signal

A

if it possesses a receptor for that particualr signal

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55
Q

what are receptors

A

proteins that physically interact with the signal they are sensitive to

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56
Q

what is a ligand

A

a molecule that can tightly bind to a receptor and activate it (aka receptor agonist)

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57
Q

how is an intracellular transduction pathway activated

A

when a ligand binds to its receptor, the receptor undergoes a confomational change

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58
Q

what can a conformational change do (other than activating an intracellular transduction pathway)

A
  • turn on enzymatic activity off the receptor
  • open pore in receptor for ions to flow through
  • activate a kinase bound to the receptor
  • activates a G-protein
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59
Q

what are plasma membrane receptors used to detect

A

signals that cannot cross the plasma membrane

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60
Q

what are the three regions that plasma membrane receptors consist of

A
  • extracellular domain
  • transmembrane domain
  • intracellular (cytoplasmic) domain
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61
Q

what does the extracellular domain possess

A

a specific binding site for signal

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62
Q

where is the transmembrane domain

A

embedded in the plasma membrane

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63
Q

what is the intracellular comain associated with

A

enzymes or other proteins that can help transduce signal

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64
Q

what are the three main classes of plasma membrane receptors

A

G-protein coupled receptors
- ligand-gated ion channels
- enzyme-linked receptors

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65
Q

what happens with G-protein coupled receptors

A
  • Receptor interacts with heterotrimeric G-protein
  • Ligand binding causes G-protein to dissociate from receptor
  • Activated G-proteins interact with intracellular targets to regulate cell function
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66
Q

what happens with ligand-gated ion channel

A
  • Ligand binds to receptor, causing opening of pore in the receptor
  • Ions flow freely through the pore
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67
Q

what happens with enzyme-linked receptors

A
  • Receptor either has intrinsic enzyme activity or associates with an enzyme
  • Ligand binds to receptor, causing activation of enzyme
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68
Q

what do intracellular receptors detect

A

signalling molecules that have crossed the plasma membrane
(e.g., steroids and thyroid hormones)

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69
Q

what do intracellular receptors regulate

A

gene expression

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70
Q

ligands bind to the binding site of the receptor using what type of bond

A

non-covalent interactions

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71
Q

what does affinity of ligand refer to

A

the strength of interaction between ligand and receptor

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72
Q

what does specificity refer to

A

the ability of receptor to discriminate between ligands

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73
Q

what does binding of molecules to allosteric site modify

A

degree of receptor activation by ligand

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74
Q

what are the 3 factors that affect the magnitude of cellular response to receptor activation

A

1) amount of signaling molecule present: response increases with increases concentration
2) affinity of receptor for signaling molecule: higher affinity results in a response at a lower dosage
3) receptor expression: maximal response increases with increasing number os receptors

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75
Q

what do antagonists do

A

inhibit receptor activation by agonists.
- reversible or irreversible

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76
Q

what are the two types of antagonist

A

competitive: competes with agonist for binding site
non-competitive: binds to allosteris site on receptor

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77
Q

how does a competitive agonist influence cells

A

increases agonist concentration required to achieve desired effect

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78
Q

how does non-competitive agonist influence cells

A

either alters the ability of agonist to bind to a receptor, or ability of receptor to undergo conformational change

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79
Q

why does the activation of a receptor does not directly induce a change in cell function

A

several proteins or small molecules are required to transduce this signal

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80
Q

what are the 3 common intracellular transduction pathways

A
  • second messenger systems
  • protein phosphorylation/ dephospho rylation
  • GTP-binding proteins
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81
Q

what are second messengers

A

small molecules produced following receptor activation

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82
Q

what are some second messengers

A

cAMP, ca2+, IP3, DAG, cGMP

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83
Q

what is the purpose of second messengers

A
  • provide signal amplification
  • transmit signal from plasma membrane to cytosol
  • activate downstream targets to further propagate the signal
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84
Q

what are the 7 cellular responses following receptor activation

A
  • proliferation
  • apoptosis
  • contraction
  • secretion
  • movement
  • differentiation
  • altered metabolism
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85
Q

what are the main mechanisms that promote these types of changes

A
  • modification of existing proteins
  • changes in gene expression
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86
Q

how do we modify an existing protein

A
  • phosphorylation/ dephosphorylation
  • binding to second messenegrs
  • binding to nucleotides
  • binding to upstream signaling proteins which can alter the conformation of the target protein
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87
Q

what is protein phosphorylation

A

the addition of a phosphate group to a protein. performed by protein kinases

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88
Q

what is protein dephosphorylation

A

the removal of a phosphate group. performed by protein phosphotases

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89
Q

what does phosphorylation modify

A
  • the function of the target protein
  • enzyme activity
  • binding site for additional protein
  • protein dimerization
90
Q

where does phosphprylation typically occur

A

on tyrosine, serine, and theronine amino acids

91
Q

what does phosphorylation provide

A

molecular memory of pathway activation

92
Q

what can protein kinases do to a receptor

A

be cytosolic, intrinsic, or attached

93
Q

what do protein kinases do

A

add phosphates to specific amino acids, phosphorylate more than one target protein

94
Q

how are protein kinases directed to a phosphorylation site

A

surrounding amino acid sequence

95
Q

why do proteins have multiple phosphorylation sites

A

to allow for complex regulation of function

96
Q

how can protein kinases be directly activated

A

following ligand binding to a receptor

97
Q

what do protein phosphatases do

A

exhibit specificity where they remove phosphate groups from specific amino acids, dephosphorylate specific substrates

98
Q

what is cAMP

A

cyclic adenosine 3’-5’-monophosphate
a cyclic nucleotide derived from ATP via adenylyl cyclase

99
Q

what is adenylyl cyclase

A

a membrane bound protein with a cytosolic catalytic domain

100
Q

what regulates cAMP’s activity

A

G-proteins and phosphorylation

101
Q

what does cAMP regulate

A

the functions of cAMP-dependent proteins
- ex, protein kinase A, Ion channels

102
Q

what is cAMP degraded by

A

nucleotide phosphodiesterases

103
Q

what does plasma membrane contain

A

PIP2 (phosphatidylinositol-4,5-biphosphate)

104
Q

PIp2 is broken down by phospholipase C to generate:

A
  • inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate (IP3)
  • diacylglycerog (DAG)
105
Q

what is IP3

A

souble second messenger that can diffuse through cytosol

106
Q

what is DAG

A

membrane-bound second messenger which activates protein kinase C

107
Q

what are IP3 receptors

A

Ca2+ channels that open when bound to IP3, thereby releasing Ca2+ into the cytosol

108
Q

what does IPs produced by phospholipase C bind to

A

IP3 receptors present on the ER membrane

109
Q

what does IP3 stimulate

A

Ca2+ released from the endoplasmic reticulum

110
Q

how does Ca2+ enter the cell from outside

A

voltage gated Ca2+ channels, Ligand-gated ion channels

111
Q

how do voltage-gated Ca2+ channels let Ca2+ enter

A

open in response to membrane depolarization

112
Q

how do ligand-gated ion channels let Ca2+ enter

A

open in response to ligand binding to a channel

113
Q

how are cyrosolic cellular Ca2+ levels kept at rest

A

extremely low

114
Q

what are trnasient elevations in ca2+ used as

A

intracellular signals

115
Q

what is an example of a Ca2+ binding protein

A

calmodulin

116
Q

Ca2+ that enters through ion channels or is released from the ER is removed from the cytosol through what

A
  • Na+/Ca2+ exchanger and plasma membrane Ca2+-ATPase
  • Sarcoplasmic/ endoplasmic reticulum Ca2+-ATPase
117
Q

what do GTP binding proteins posess a binding site for

A

GTP and GDP

118
Q

what happens when a protein is bound to GTP

A

protein is able to bind to downstream targets and regulate their functions

119
Q

when is protein function inhibited

A

when GTP is dephosphorylated to GDP, protein function is inhibited

120
Q

what are the two main forms of GTP-binding proteins

A

heterotrimeric G-proteins, small G-proteins

121
Q

what is optogenetic Rac

A

a small GTPase that controls cell motility

122
Q

what does GPCRs represent

A

the largest and most diverse class of plasma membrane receptors (approximately 1000 differnt ones in humans)

123
Q

what do GPRCs do

A

regulate almost every physiological function in the human body

124
Q

what are the differnt physical and chemical signals that GPCRs can detect

A
  • photons of light
  • ions
  • lipids
  • proteins/ peptides
  • small organic molecules such as odorant’s, tastants, neurotransmitters
125
Q

what do heterotrimeric G-proteins consist of

A

an α-subunit, a β-subunit and a γ-subunit

126
Q

What are some of the key features of the α-subunits of heterotrimeric G-proteins

A
  • a binding site for the intracellular region of the GPCR
  • a binding site for GDP and GTP
  • a binding site for the β subunit
  • an intrinsic GTPase
127
Q

what do we know about the β and γ subunits

A
  • they remain as a dimer even during receptor activation
  • they are largely interchangable for the different alpha subunits
  • they are able to activate their own effectors
128
Q

Where must effectors be located in order to interact with activated G-proteins

A

They must be membrane-bound because the G-proteins are embedded in the membrane

129
Q

What factors affect the duration of GPCR signaling

A
  • hydrolysis of GTP to GDP
  • breakdown of second messengers
  • phosphorylation/ dephosphorylation of proteins
  • removal of Ca2+ from cytosol
130
Q

what are the 3 main classes of G-protein α-subunits

A

-Gαs
-Gαi
-Gαq

131
Q

What effector protein does each α-subunit regulate

A

Gαs – activates adenylyl cyclase (increasescAMP)
Gαi – inhibits adenylyl cyclase (decreases cAMP)
- Gαq – activates phospholipase C (produces DAG and IP3)

132
Q

What transcription factor is commonly used to regulate gene expression via GPCRs

133
Q

How is this transcription factor (CREB) activated

A

phosphorylation by protein kinase A

134
Q

what activated protein kinase A

135
Q

what is TrkA Receptor

A

plasma membrane receptor tyrosine kinase that is expressed by developing and mature neurons

136
Q

what type of neurons are trkA receptors highly expressed in

A

sympathetic neurons

137
Q

what is the TrkA receptor primarily activated by

A

nerve growth facor (NGF)

138
Q

what is NGF secreted by

A

targets of sympathetic neurons

139
Q

what happens when TrkA receptor produces more neurons than are required

A
  • excess neurons are pruned
  • NGF activation of TrkA leads to neuronal survival
  • NGF also promotes axon development
140
Q

Where are receptor tyrosine kinases found

A

Receptor tyrosine kinases are transmembrane proteins that are embedded in the plasma membrane

141
Q

What conformation do they possess in the absence of a ligand

A

In the absence of a ligand, receptor tyrosine kinases exist as monomers

142
Q

Briefly describe the mechanism responsible for receptor tyrosine kinase activation

A
  • Ligand binds to receptor monomer which stimulates dimerization
  • Each receptor has an intrinsic tyrosine kinase that is inactive when the receptor is a monomer
  • Dimerization brings tyrosine kinases from the interacting receptors in close proximity
  • Tyrosine kinases phosphorylate each other
  • Additional tyrosines on the receptor are also phosphorylate
143
Q

What are some of the consequences of receptor tyrosine kinase phosphorylation

A
  • Increased activity of tyrosine kinase
  • Generation of binding sites for additional protein
144
Q

What are some of the downstream effectors of receptor tyrosine kinases

A
  • Ras
  • MAP kinase
145
Q

What are some of the general characteristics of Ras

A
  • Ras is a small G-protein
  • Has GDP/GTP binding site and intrinsic GTPase
  • Does not directly interact with receptors
146
Q

What are some of the general characteristics of MAP kinase

A
  • MAP kinases are protein kinases
  • MAP kinase activity is increased by phosphorylation
  • Exists as a monomer in the cytosol, where it can phosphorylate cytosolic transcription factors
  • Following MAP kinase phosphorylation, it can become a dimer that is able to enter the nucleus to phosphorylate nuclear transcription factors
147
Q

Where must a transcription factor be located to regulate gene expression

A

the nucleus

148
Q

How could nuclear localization of a transcription factor be used to regulate gene expression

A

Nuclear localization could modify the ability of a transcription factor to enter the nucleus

149
Q

what do Toll-like receptors do

A
  • detect soncerved molecular sequences on foreign micro-organisms
  • serve as one of the first methods of detecting invaders
  • upon activation, receptors initiate intracellular signaling pathways that activate NF-κB
150
Q

what is a TLR-4 ligand

A

a lipipolysaccharide component of the bacterial cell wall

151
Q

what happens when something binds to TLR-4

A

receptor dimerization
(dimerization results in recruitment of accessory cytosolic proteins)

152
Q

what happens during protein cleavage

A
  • Receptor activation leads to cleavage of receptor or some type of inhibitor
  • Releases/produces transcription factor which can then enter nucleus
153
Q

what is the notch/delta signalling pathway

A

Notch is a plasma membrane receptor that is activated by a plasma membrane-associated protein known as delta

154
Q

what happens when the delta binds to the notch receptor

A

the notch receptor undergoes two consecutive cleavages:
- cleavage of the extracellular region of the receptor
- cleavage of the intracellular region of the receptor

155
Q

what is notch cleavage mediated by

A

an intramembrane protease known as gamma-secretase

156
Q

The cleavage product derived from the intracellular region of the notch receptor acts as a what

A

transcription factor

157
Q

what happens upon cleavage in the notch pathway

A

the intracellular domain of Notch translocates to the nucleus where it then alters gene expression

158
Q

what are ligand-gated ion channels expressed by

A

skeletal muscle cells, certain neuronal populations and various other tissues throughout the body

159
Q

why is the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor called “nicotinic”

A

because it can be activated by nicotine, in addition to acetylcholine

160
Q

what does acetylcholine bind to

A

the extracellulr surface of the α subunits

161
Q

Upon binding of agonist, the receptor undergoes a conformational change that does what

A

opens the central pore

162
Q

the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor channel opening allows what cations to pass through

A

Na+, Ca2+ and K+

(Na+, Ca2+ enter the cell and K+ leaves the cell)

163
Q

what is the new effect of nicotinic acetylchline receptor opening

A

cell depolarization

164
Q

what are skeletal musce cells innervated by

A

lower motor neuron which release acetylcholine

165
Q

what does activation of nicotonic acetylcholine receptor via acetylcholine cause

A

an opening of receptor pore where Na+ and Ca2+ enter the cell, causing a depolarization

166
Q

what happens if depolarization reaches threshold in signaling pathways in skeletal muscle cells

A

voltage-gated Na+ channels are activated and an action potential is fired

167
Q

action potentials activate a special type of voltage-sensor known as what

A

the dihydropyridine receptor

168
Q

what does dihydropyridine receptor activation cause

A

Ca2+ release from te sarcoplasmic reticulum

169
Q

what is the contractile machinery in skeletal muscle cells is made up of

A

actin and myosin proteins organized into sarcomeres

170
Q

Interaction between actin and myosin is dependent upon what

A

cytosolic Ca2+ levels

171
Q

what are the two regulatory proteins that actin is associated with

A

troponin and tropomyosin

172
Q

what happens when Ca2+ levels are elevated

A

Ca2+ binds to troponin causing a conformational change that shifts tropomyosin away from the myosin binding site

173
Q

what happens when myosin binds to actin

A

actin filaments are pulled towards the centre of the sarcomere, shortening cell length and generating force

174
Q

what do F-actin bundles do

A

direct the initiation and orientation of lamellipodia through adhesion-based signaling

175
Q

where are endocytic vesicles transported durind cell movement

176
Q

where are exocytotic vesicles trnasported during cell movement

A

plasma membrane

177
Q

where do immune cells migrate

A

to regions containing micro-organisms

178
Q

where do fibroblasts migrate

A

injured tissues

179
Q

What are some of the key characteristics of myosin?

A
  • Myosin is a motor protein associated with the microfilament system of the cytoskeleton
  • Myosin can bind to actin and uses energy from ATP hydrolysis to move actin filaments
  • Myosin is a multimeric protein consisting of heavy and light chains
180
Q

Each myosin heavy chain contains…

A
  • A head region that is able to bind to actin and ATP/ADP and possesses an intrinsic ATPase
  • A tail region that determines what cargo can be carried and helps form myosin dimers
  • A neck region bound to myosin light chain
181
Q

what is myosin V used to transport

A
  • secretory vesicles
  • organelles
  • endocytic vesicles
182
Q

Where does myosin V bind to, and how does it transport cargo

A

binds to its cargo via tail domain and transports cargo by crawling along actin filaments

183
Q

what is Myosin II abundant in and what does it do

A

specialized contractile cells, such as skeletal muscle cells (also important in non-muscle cells). Associates with each other to form thick bundles with multiple myosin heads at each end

184
Q

How does myosin cause cell contraction? What structures are involved and how are they altered during contraction?

A

In skeletal muscle, these thick myosin bundles (thick filaments) are strategically organized with respect to actin filaments (thin filaments) to generate structures known as sarcomeres

185
Q

what is cell movement mediated by

A

microfilament reorganization and membrane recycling

186
Q

what is the process of cell movement mediation

A
  • Membrane protrusion
  • Attachment of protruding membrane to extracellular matrix
  • Movement of cytosol and membrane to leading edge of cell
187
Q

what is membrane protrusion casued by

A

actin polymerization

188
Q

what is nucleation promoted by

189
Q

where does elongation occur and what is it promoted by

A

occurs at positive end of F-actin and promoted by cofilin and profiling

190
Q

how does actin synthesis work

A
  • actin synthesis pushes membrane outwards, forming protrusions known as lamellopodia
191
Q

How do the positive and negative ends of actin differ structurally

A
  • Orientation of G-actin molecules is different
  • Positive end has ATP-bound G-actin while negative end has ADP-bound G-actin
192
Q

How are microfilaments synthesized in vitro

A

Nucleation, elongation and steady state

193
Q

What conditions are required for spontaneous microfilament assembly

A
  • The concentration of ATP-G-actin in solution must be high enough
  • Critical concentration
194
Q

What is the critical concentration?

A

The concentration of ATP-G-actin in solution that results in an equal rate of F-actin assembly and disassembly

195
Q

Concentrations of ATP-G-actin above the critical concentration result in what

A

elongation of F-actin

196
Q

Concentrations of ATP-G-actin below the critical concentration result in what

A

shortening of F-actin

197
Q

How does the critical concentration differ between the positive and negative ends of F-actin

A

The Critical concentration at the positive end is lower than at the negative end

198
Q

Which step in F-actin synthesis determines when and where this protein assembly will be produced

A

nucleation

199
Q

What protein enables linear actin filaments to be synthesized

200
Q

Define the term treadmilling

A

Refers to the cycling of G-actin molecules from the negative end of F-actin to the positive end

201
Q

when does treadmilling occur

A

Occurs when the concentration of ATP-G-actin in solution falls between the critical concentrations of the positive and negative ends

202
Q

What proteins affect treadmilling in vivo

A

Profilin, cofilin, and Capping proteins

203
Q

What protein enables branched actin networks to be synthesized

204
Q

what are microtubules made up of

A

polymers of α-tubulin and β-tubulin

205
Q

Describe the various structural elements of a microtubule

A
  • αβ-tubulin forms linear polymers known as protofilaments
  • Protofilaments associate laterally to form cylindrical, hollow tubes known as microtubules
206
Q

what are protofilaments

A

α/β-tubulin dimers that associate with each other

207
Q

what is the microtubule structure

A

13 protofilaments that associate with one another along the longitudinal axis of the tubule

208
Q

what does the alignment of protofilaments provide

A

polarity to the microtubule. The positive end contains β-subunits and the negative end contains α-subunits

209
Q

Describe the process of dynamic instability

A

–Microtubules undergo periods of growth, disassembly and re-growth
(Catastrophe and rescue)

210
Q

What mechanism is responsible for dynamic instability in microtubules

A

The positive end of the microtubule terminates in a GTP-α/GTP-βtubulin cap

211
Q

what must αβ-tubulin dimers contain to be added to the microtubule

A

GTP bound to both subunits

212
Q

Why is dynamic instability useful to the cell?

A
  • Microtubules will extend outward from MTOC, growing and retracting until appropriate target is reached
  • Association between microtubule and target stabilizes microtubule
213
Q

Where does microtubule nucleation occur

A

Microtubule organizing centres (MTOCs), Centrosome, and Basal bodies

214
Q

what do animal cells and cilia/ flagella use as their microtubule-organizing centres

A

animal cells: centrosomes
cilia/ flagella: basal bodies

215
Q

Nucleation in the centrosome is primarily achieved by what

A

γ-tubulin ring complex

216
Q

what does the γ-tubulin ring complex do

A
  • Serves as a template for microtubule synthesis
  • Microtubule elongates at positive end
217
Q

what do microtubule associated proteins do

A

Interact with microtubules to regulate their stability and growth

218
Q

how can α- and β-tubulin molecules be post-translationally modified

A
  • Glutamic acid residues, glycine residues or acetyl groups can be added
  • Tyrosine can be removed
219
Q

what are the purpose of microtubules

A

serve as tracks for motor proteins that transport various types of cellular cargo

220
Q

what are the wo main microtubule-based motor proteins

A

kinesins: move cargo toward the positive end directly
dyneins: move cargo towards the negative end when intermediate protein is present

221
Q

What are the main similarities between kinesins and dyneins

A
  • Both transport cargo in the cell using microtubules as tracks
  • Both use ATP to power their movement
222
Q

what is the movement of kinesin and dynein

A

walks along a single protofilament within the microtubule using ATP hydrolysis to fuel this process