Cell Bio Midterm #1 Flashcards

Lec 1 - 10

1
Q

what do cell cultures allow us to do

A

propagate and maintain cells in the lab

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2
Q

what does cell cultures refer to

A

the maintenance of cells outside of an organism (in vitro)

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3
Q

what are cells bathed in during a cell culture and what does it do

A

bathed in a culture medium that mimics the extracellular fluid

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4
Q

what does the culture medium contain

A

nutrients, ions, growth factors, and often antibiotics

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5
Q

what are culture dishes coated with

A

proteins that are found in the extracellular matrix

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6
Q

what degree Celsius and CO2 levels are most mammalian cells incubated at

A

37 celsius and 5% CO2

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7
Q

what does our genome carry

A

the necessary instructions for the differentiation of a single fertilized egg into all of diverse cell types in the human body

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8
Q

what makes up the cell culture environment

A

temp, pH, ionic strength, nutrients, special surfaces, antibiotics

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9
Q

what are the two main forms of cultured cells

A

primary cells and cell lines

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10
Q

what are primary cells

A

cells that are directly generated from multicellular organisms

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11
Q

do primary cells divide

A

finite division and some do not divide at all

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12
Q

what are cell lines

A

cells that were originally primary cells but have acquired mutations that allow them to grow and survive indefinitely

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13
Q

what do these “transformed” cells have the characteristics of?

A

cancer cells

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14
Q

what is passaging

A

extracting transformed cell lines and transferring them to another culture dish to expand that culture

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15
Q

what does microscopy do

A

enables us to magnify objects so that we can observe them in greater amount of detail

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16
Q

what is cryopreservation

A

freezing a subset of these transformed cells for later use

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17
Q

what is the average cell length

A

tens of microns (millionth of a meter)

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18
Q

which lens provides the greatest amount of magnification

A

objective lens

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19
Q

what is the quality of the magnified image affected by

A

contrast and resolution

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20
Q

what is contrast

A

the ability to distinguish between the sample and the background

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21
Q

what is resolution

A

the ability to distinguish between two closely apposed objects

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21
Q

how do brightfield microscopes illuminate specimens

A

use white light (all wavelengths of light) to illuminate

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22
Q

how do fluorescence microscopes work

A

they direct light of a single wavelength of narrow range at the specimen

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23
Q

what are the two orientations of microscopes

A

upright (objective lens above and light below) and inverted (objective lens below and light above)

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24
Q

what does a fluorophore possess

A

an electron that can be readily excited by light of a narrow range of wavelengths (excitation wavelengths)

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25
Q

what is fluorescence microscopy used for

A

detection of fluorescent molecules (fluorophores)

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26
Q

what is a dichroic mirror and what microscope uses it

A

a fluorescence microscope uses it and a dichroic mirror reflects the excitation wavelength toward the specimen and passes emission wavelength produced by the specimen to the eyepiece

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27
Q

what type of fluorophores can be used in live cells

A

membrane-permeable fluorophores

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28
Q

how doe sa fluorophore stay inside the cell once it enters

A

it is enzymatically cleaved so it can no longer cross the membrane

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29
Q

the gene encoding a specific protein can be modified to produce what

A

the normal protein fused to a fluorescent protein

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30
Q

what is immunocytochemistry used for

A

used to fluorescently label specific proteins in preserved cells

(i.e., what cells expressed the protein, when the protein was expressed, and where it is located)

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31
Q

what is specificity provided by

A

antibodies

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32
Q

through what are antibodies produced

A

naturally produced by the plasma cells of the mammalian immune system

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33
Q

what is an antigen

A

the specific binding region of a antibody

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34
Q

what are fluorophores attached to

A

antibodies

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35
Q

what does direct immunocytochemistry do

A

uses a single antibody to label the protein of interest

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36
Q

what is antibody specific to

A

target protein and contains a fluorophore

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37
Q

what does indirect immunocytochemistry do

A

uses two antibodies to label the protein

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38
Q

what does the primary antibody do

A

binds to antigen on target protein

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39
Q

what does secondary antibody do

A

binds to antigen on primary antibody and contains fluorphore

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40
Q

how is signal amplified

A

when multiple secondary antibodies bind to a primary antibody

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41
Q

what do conventional fluorescence microscopes do

A

pick up emitted light from all depths in the cell
- causes blurring of resultant image

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42
Q

what do confocal fluorescent microscopes pick up

A

only detected emitted light from a single focal plane
- multiple images from different planes can be combined to make 3D image

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43
Q

what does electron microscopy do

A

directs a high-velocity electron beam at the sample instead of visible light

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44
Q

electrons are directed at sample by what

A

electromagnetic lenses instead of optical lenses

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45
Q

what happens in flow cytometry

A
  1. isolated cells are labelled with antibodies that possess fluorophores
  2. cells are sent single file through a tube into flow cytometer
  3. light is directed at the cells to excite fluorophores
  4. flow cytometer detects emitted light
  5. flow cytometer also determines the degree to which light is scattered by the cell
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46
Q

what is fluorescence-activated cell sorting

A

an application of flow cytometry that can be used to separate cells based on their expression of surface molecules

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47
Q

what does flow cytometry allow you to do

A

culture a pure population of cells

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48
Q

what is the process of a western blot

A
  1. a heterogeneous mixture of proteins isolated from wells or tissues
  2. protein mixture is incubated in sodium dodecyl sulphate (SDS)
  3. SDS coated proteins are then loaded into a well of a polyacrylamide gel
  4. a potential difference is applied across the gel and proteins will move toward the positive end
  5. proteins on polyacrylamide gel are transferred to a nitrocellulose membrane
  6. membrane is incubated in antibiotics
  7. gel is placed on an imager that excited the fluorophores and detects emitted light
  8. only the protein of interest is visible on gel
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49
Q

how are proteins separated in a western blot

A

based on weight

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50
Q

biomembranes consist of:

A

a lipid bilayer, embedded proteins, glycoproteins, and glycolipids

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51
Q

what does the lipid bilayer provide

A

selective permeability

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52
Q

embedded proteins participate in

A

cell signalling, cell-cell and cell-matric adhesions, energy transduction

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53
Q

what is the lipid bilayer primarily made up of

A

phospholipids

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54
Q

what are phospholipids

A

amphipathic molecules that contain a hydrophilic phosphate head group and a hydrophobic tail group

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55
Q

what is the most abundant phospholipid in eukaryotic biomembranes

A

phosphoglycerides

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56
Q

what does each phosphoglyceride consist of

A

phosphate group attached to variable head group (R), glycerol, fatty acid

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57
Q

what are two other amphipathic molecules commonly found in eukaryotic biomembrances

A

sphingolipids and cholesterol

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58
Q

each layer of the lipid bilayer is known as a what

A

leaflet

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59
Q

how does the lipid bilayer exhibit fluidity

A

they readily move laterally within each leaflet
- can also rotate or wave

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60
Q

what is degree of fluidity dependent on

A

temperature and composition of the bilayer

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61
Q

what is the membrane like at each temp

A

gel-like at low temps and more fluid at high temps

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62
Q

what are fatty acids

A

long hydrocarbon chains

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63
Q

what do saturated fatty acids not contain

A

carbon-carbon double bonds

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64
Q

what do unsaturated fatty acids contain

A

one or more carbon-carbon double bond that place a kink in the hydrocarbon chain

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65
Q

how do unsaturated fatty acids affect fluidity

A

the greater the amount of unsaturated fatty acids in the bilayer, the greater the fluidity

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66
Q

what do long fatty acids provide

A

more intermolecular interactions between phospholipids

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67
Q

how do fatty acids affect fluidity of the biomembrane

A

the greater the proportion of long fatty acids, the lower the fluidity

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68
Q

what do longer fatty acids also do

A

increase the thickness of the lipid bilayer

69
Q

what does cholesterol do

A

stabilized the membrane and prevent sit from becoming too fluid or too gel-like

70
Q

what does fluidity of the lipid bilayer allow

A

allows embedded proteins to move laterally within the membrane
- enables proteins to interact with their target

71
Q

what are lipid rafts

A

small segments of the lipid bilayer that contain a high degree of cholesterol (and are therefore more stable)

72
Q

do all regions of lipid bilayer exhibit the same degree of fluidity

73
Q

what do integral proteins do

A

spam plasma membrane

74
Q

what are the three domains in an integral protein

A

extracellular domain, transmembrane domain, cytosolic domain

75
Q

where are lipid-anchored proteins anchored

A

the hydrophobic core

76
Q

what do peripheral proteins attach to

A

hydrophilic phospholipid head groups, integral membrane proteins or lipid-anchored proteins

77
Q

how are phospholipids transferred between leaflets of the biomembrane

A

moved by membranes known as flippases

78
Q

what are the three types of flippases and which ones require ATP

A

flippase - require ATP
floppase - require ATP
scrambles - no ATP requirement

79
Q

what are glycoproteins

A

integral membrane proteins that are covalently bound to carbohydrates

80
Q

what are glycolipids

A

membrane lipids that are covalently bound to carbohydrates

81
Q

what are biomembranes

A

dynamic structures that grow and retract according to changing cell needs and ongoing cellular processe

82
Q

what needs to happen for a biomembrane to grow

A

new phospholipids, sphingolipids and cholesterol must be synthesized and incorporated into an existing biomembrane

83
Q

process of fatty acid synthesis

A
  1. synthesized in the cytosol from two-carbon acetyl groups present in the acetyl-CoA
  2. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase converts other acetyl-CoA molecules to malonyl-CoA (3-carbon molecule
  3. Growth continues via addition of malonyl-CoA until full fatty acid is produced
84
Q

what is the process of phosphyglyeride synthesis

A
  1. Fatty acid is converted to fatty acyl-CoA in the cytosol
  2. Enzymes embedded in the membrane of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum catalyze the reaction between 2 fatty acyl-CoA molecules and glycerol 3-phosphate
  3. This generates phosphatidic acid which is inserted into the cytosolic leaflet of ER membrane
  4. Head groups are then added to phosphatidic acid to generate the phosphoglyceride
  5. Fatty acids can acquire double bonds via desaturase enzymes that act on phosphoglycerides
85
Q

sphingolipid synthesis

A
  1. Occurs in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
  2. Palmatoyl-CoA (a 16 carbon fatty acyl CoA) enters ER and binds to serine
  3. Second fatty acyl CoA then binds to palmatoyl-serine to form ceramide
  4. Ceramide is sent to the Golgi where a head group is added to form a sphingolipid
  5. Sphingolipids are sent from the Golgi to final destinations in cell
86
Q

cholesterol synthesis

A
  1. Cholesterol precursors are synthesized in the cytosol
  2. These precursors become embedded in the cytosolic leaflet of the smooth ER membrane
  3. Enzymes in the ER membrane convert these precursors into cholesterol
87
Q

what are the 5 things rate of simple diffusion is affected by

A
  1. temp
  2. magnitude of the concentration gradient
  3. surface area of the biomembrane
  4. hydrophobicity of the molecule
  5. size of the molecule
88
Q

what is facilitated transport

A

movement of molecules down their concentration gradients using integral membrane proteins, including uniporters and ion channels

89
Q

what is active transport

A

the movement of molecules against their concentration gradient by ATP-powered pumps

90
Q

what is co-transport

A

the movement of one molecule against its concentration gradient while the other molecule moves down its concentration gradient

91
Q

when do transporters exhibit saturation

A

when there is a high concentration of the molecule to be transported

92
Q

what is the main source of energy for eukaryotic organisms

93
Q

where does energy production occur

A

inside the cell

94
Q

where is glucose transported from and where does it go to

A

transported from extracellular fluid into the cytosol

95
Q

what are GLUT proteins

A

uniporters that move glucose down its concentration gradient

96
Q

how is a low concentration of glucose achieved inside the cell

A

rapid conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate

97
Q

how many different isoforms of GLUT proteins are there

98
Q

how do cells modify the amount of glucose uptake

A

regulate the number of GLUT proteins in the plasms membrane

99
Q

what do sodium-coupled glucose transporters do

A

move glucose against its concentration gradient and sodium down its concentration gradient

100
Q

what are glucose transporters important for

A

epithelial cells lining the gastrointestinal tract that want to absorb glucose from food and send it to the bloodstream

101
Q

how to determine the flow of water during water transport

A

look at the osmolarities of the solutions on both sides of the membrane

102
Q

what is osmolarity

A

the number of solute particles per unit volume

103
Q

what is concentration

A

the number of molecules per unit volume

104
Q

what is water

A

a polar molecule that is only slightly permeable to the lipid bilayer

105
Q

how can water transport be accelerated

A

aquaporins

106
Q

what influences cell size

A

movement of water across the membrane

107
Q

what do ATP-powered pumps generate

A

concentration gradients in the cell

108
Q

how do ATP-powered pumps work

A

use energy from ATP to move molecules against their concentration gradients

109
Q

what are the 4 main classes of ATP-powered pumps

A

P-class pumps
V-class proton pumps
F-class proton pumps
ABC superfamily

110
Q

what is ATP used to phosphorylate

A

the cytosolic face of the pump protein

110
Q

what do P-class pumps do

A

move ions against their concentration gradients using energy from ATP

111
Q

what do V-class proton pumps do

A

pump protons (H= ions) against their concentration gradient using energy from ATP

112
Q

what uses V-class proton pumps

113
Q

what can ABC transports do

A

transport certain drugs out of the cell

114
Q

what are ion channels

A

transmembrane proteins that create pores in the plasma membrane that are permeable to select ions

115
Q

what are ions selectively permeable for

A

K+, Na+, Ca2+

116
Q

what are the 4 categories of ion channels

A
  1. non-gated ion channels
  2. ligand-gated ion channels
  3. mechanosensitive ion channels
  4. voltage-gated ion channels
117
Q

what do all eukaryotic cells contain

A

ion channels

118
Q

what are leak channels

A

non-gated ion channels that allow K+ to freely pass across the membrane

119
Q

what is potential difference

A

the inside of the cell becomes more negative than the outside when K+ leaves

120
Q

what is membrane potential

A

the potential difference across a cell membrane

121
Q

how does the electrical gradient become greater

A

more K+ leaving the cell

122
Q

what is the equilibrium membrane potential for K+

123
Q

what are leak channels largely responsible for

A

setting the resting membrane potential

124
Q

what is resting membrane potential

A

refers to the membrane potential of a cell in the absence of any stimulus

125
Q

where is Na+ and Ca2+ more concentrated

A

outside the cell

126
Q

what are Ca2+ ions important in

A

signalling molecules

127
Q

what is Ca2+ involved in

A

molecule signalling, neuronal communication, exocytosis, gene expression, muscle contraction

128
Q

what are excitable cells

A

specialized cells that possess gated ion channels that open in response to specific stimuli

129
Q

what are the three specific stimuli that excitable cells respond to

A
  1. changes in voltage
  2. stretching of the membrane
  3. presence of extracellular or intracellular signalling molecules (ligands)
130
Q

what is depolarization

A

membrane potential becoming more positive

131
Q

what is hyperpolarization

A

membrane potential becoming more negative

132
Q

what are voltage-gated ion channels sensitive to

A

changes in membrane potential

133
Q

what is the main energy currency for eukaryotic cells

A

adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

134
Q

where does ATP store energy

A

in the bonds connecting its phosphate groups

135
Q

what releases the greatest amount of energy

A

hydrolysis of the terminal phosphate group

136
Q

what are the two main mechanisms through which ATP production occurs

A
  1. substate-level phosphorylation
  2. oxidative phosphorylation
137
Q

what does oxidative phosphorylation involve

A

the transfer of electrons from nutrients to high-energy intermediate molecules

138
Q

how do F-class proton pumps function

A

opposite of V-class proton pumps where protons move down their concentration gradient

139
Q

what is the outer mitochondrial membrane permeable to

A

ions and most small molecules

140
Q

what does the inner mitochondrial membrane require

A

protein transporters to move most molecules

141
Q

what is a Cristal

A

the inward folding inner membrane

142
Q

what is the mitochondrial matrix

A

the innermost region of the mitochondrion which is surrounded by the inner mitochondrial membrane

143
Q

where does pyruvate decarboxylation, the citric acid cyle, and B-oxidation occur

A

mitochondrial matrix

144
Q

what do electron shuttles do

A

shuttles high energy electrons from NADH produced in the cytosol into the mitochondrial matrix

145
Q

when is oxidative phosphorylation not possible

A

in the absence of O2

146
Q

what do we need a constant supply of to keep glycolysis going

147
Q

when oxygen is not available what does glycolysis produce in animal cells

A

lactic acid

148
Q

during pyruvate decarboxylation what happens in the presence of oxygen

A

pyruvate is transported into the mitochondrial matrix

149
Q

what does the citric acid cycle represent

A

a series of enzymatic reactions that catabolized acetyl-CoA to CO2 and strip electrons from acetyl-CoA to form NADH and FADH2

150
Q

what is succinate dehydrogenase attached to

A

inner mitochondrial membrane

151
Q

what does the electron transport system consist of

A

4 multiprotein complexes (I-IV) and 2 electron carries known as Coenyme Q and cytochrome C

152
Q

what do the electron transport proteins assemble into

A

supercomplexes

153
Q

what does Respirasome consist of

A

complexes I-IV, coenzyme Q, and cytochrome C

154
Q

what does the electron transport system use to pump proteins into the membrane space

A

the energy from electrons from NADH and FADH2

155
Q

what is a redox potential

A

affinity of a molecule for electrons

(more positive the redox potential, the higher the affinity for electrons)

156
Q

what is NADH oxidized by

157
Q

what is the proton motive force

A

an electrochemical gradient established by the pumping of protons into the intermembrane space

159
Q

how is ATP synthesized

A

using the energy stored in the proton motive force

160
Q

how do protons move

A

through the enzyme ATP synthase down their electrochemical gradient

161
Q

what type of pump is ATP synthase

A

F-class proton pump

162
Q

what does F0 do

A

forms the transmembrane subunit that spans the inner mitochondrial membrane

163
Q

what does F1 do

A

binds to ADP and Pi and catalyzes the synthesis of ATP

164
Q

how many protons must pass through ATP synthase for each molecule of ATP synthesized

A

at least 2

165
Q

what does B-oxidation refer to

A

the enzymatic catabolism and oxidation of fatty acyl-CoA

166
Q

what are the 4 parts of a neuron

A

dendrites, cell body, axon, axon terminals

167
Q

what part of a neuron can self-propagate along an axon

A

action potential

168
Q

what does action potential do

A

depolarize the axon terminals, activating the Ca2+ channels, allowing Ca2+ to enter

169
Q

what is exocytosis

A

the process through which elevations in intracellular Ca2+ levels promote neurotransmitter release