CDC Volume 1 Flashcards
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The IP or battle position is normally how far from the target?
Between 4-14 miles
Who issues ROEs
Any competent military authority
What is the primary danger from laser designators?
Damage to the eyes
What is one of the real problems the army has when deploying helicopter gunships in a joint CAS environment?
Logistics
What is the first ROE for fire support?
Know your abort code.
What does the pilot say to end laser designation?
“Terminate”
What are the nine conditions required for successful CAS missions?
Air superiority, suppression of enemy air defenses, favorable weather, prompt response, target marking, appropriate ordinance, aircrew and terminal controller skill, communications, and command and control.
What will display in the AN/PEQ-1 SOFLAM reticle when designating a target?
XMT
What is one disadvantage of he ATI/LIA on the AC-130?
The gunship is also identified and is vulnerable to enemy attack.
Which aircraft is capable of using radar beacons as a target acquisition aid?
B-1B
What is the standard “danger close “ distance for the 105 mm Howitzer?
200 meter
What term describes light waves that are “in step” with each other?
Coherent
What is the beacon offset distance for the AC-130H gunship?
Less than 1,500 meters
What daytime friendly visual marking has the greatest range?
Signal mirror
The MK-76 is what type of bomb?
Practice
When an aircraft and artillery are attacking the same target which type of separation requires the most coordination?
Time
Direct and indirect controls are subdivisions of what level of weapon release authority?
Positive control
What regulation would you refer to for for detailed information on A-10 CAS?
MCM 3-1 Vol. III
What terminology is used to describe twirling a chemlight on a string?
Buzzsaw
What document would you consult to find information about a specifically tasked mission?
ATO/ITO
What is he ultimate goal of CCT in air base defense?
Teach security forces how to use the gunship
In a trail attack formation how far behind the lead is the number two aircraft?
About 30 seconds
What class of laser in the AN/PEQ-1SOFLAM?
Class 4
Which type of helicopter attack is the most accurate?
Hovering
In what threat environment are medium - altitude LGBs/ LLLGBs dive delivery tactics used?
Low to medium
What must you ensure the aircraft has when passing target locations derived from a handheld GPS?
Map datum being used
Which weapons on the AC-130 gunship can be used when operating below the weather and the ceiling is 3,500 feet?
Only the 25 mm cannon
What is the operating wavelength for the AN/PEQ-1SOFLAM?
1,064 nm
What is an effective method of preparing personnel in DFP to use the gunship?
Well-designed range cards
Which of the following IR pointers has the lowest power output?
LPL-30
Which frequency band is used to obtain a time hack from the US naval observation master clock?
HF
What aircraft tracks ground targets with radar?
J-STARS
For CAS missions what is the criterion for danger close?
When targets are inside 0.1percent incapacitation distance
What will an AC-130 gunship usually do if an unexpected high-threat weapons system shows up during an operation?
Probably leave the area immediately and return once the threat is neutralized
What publication would you consult to find the required OD requirement for laser eye protection?
MIL-HDBK - 828A
With what type of cannon are all A-10s equipped?
GAU-8 30 mm cannon
What methods of synchronized timing is used on CAS mission?
TOT and / or TTT
Unlike Army helicopters, Marine attack helicopters can be tasked?
By a sortie or as a unit
Which IR pointer has the has the highest power output?
IZ-LID-II
A TAC can expect to see aircraft use a split formation?
When the attack axis in not restricted.
What is the standard “ danger close” distance when using the 40 mm cannons?
125 meters
How would you pass target location and your position to Thea gunship when you are in a “ no radio” environment?
Use an IR pointer to “ rope” the aircraft and then point to the target
The 40 mm Bofors cannon on the AC-130U gunship is especially effective when used against?
Personnel under medium cover
What type of target is the Hellfire missile primarily used against?
Tanks
What is a variation of the preplanned CAS request?
On-call
Who is the expert on munitions dropped from a CAS aircraft?
The pilot.
What is the MSA for ATC purposes if the Max Ord is 4,300 feet and the artillery field elevation is 510 feet?
5,900 feet
Which pointer operates in the visible spectrum?
GBD-II
What document would you consult to find information on fire support coordination?
ACO
How far must he IP be from the target?
At least 60 seconds.
Which type of CAS request do Marine attack helicopters support?
Preplanned and immediate.
Which is not a category of night/limited visibility employment?
Sensory aided
What is he meaning of a red star cluster flare?
Call for fire
Which weapon has the lowest risk estimate distance?
AGM-65
Who must authorize the use of indirect control of targets?
Maneuver commander
What are the two types of air coordination areas?
Formal and informal
What is normally the maximum laser designation time?
20 seconds
What precaution must you employ when signaling an aircraft with a signal mirror in hostile areas?
Use as an aimed signal
Which procedure is the most accurate method of locating targets for beacon bombing?
Bearing and distance
What is the proper sequence to pass corrections to an AC-130 gunship?
From last round, north, five zero meters
Which altitude is within the effective range of the 105 mm Howitzer on the AC-130U gunship?
4,500 feet AGL
What is the effective range of the TOW missile?
3,750 meters
What is the effective range for the 40 mm cannon on the AC-130H
4,500 to 20,000 feet AGL
When multiple radar reflectors are used in a predetermined pattern the must be separated by at least?
10 feet
When is the abort code transmitted over the radio net?
In emergencies only
What is the meaning of a “10 second” warning call when aircrew’s do not have a TOT or TTT?
Alerts the TAC to begin target designation in 10 seconds
What is he maximum offset distance of the PPN-19 or SST-181 when using the AC-130?
1,500 meters
Which is not a USAF CAS fixed-wing Aircraft?
AH-64
What is the greatest limitation of radar beacon bombing?
Beacons are line of sight
Which type of helicopter attack normally results in the most accurate fire of unguided munitions?
Diving
Generally establish the control point?
Out side of the transition area and up wind
Which statement meets the AF requirement for water DZ?
Water depth must be a minimum of 10 feet and no moored craft with in 400 meters
To what degree of accuracy are GPS receivers rated?
+_ 1 meter
If an equipment drop is delayed which markings should be displayed?
Two parallel bars on the PI and perpendicular to the line of flight
What is the surface wind limitations when conducting a non- Air force equipment drop?
At the discretion of the unit DZSO
Which form is used to produce a landing zone survey?
AF form 3822
Which item is not a GMRS drop zone marking?
G
How is the proposed name of a HLZ determined?
The requesting unit will advise you of the proposed name
What is the maximum exit altitude for military free fall parachutist?
43,000 feet
Where is the standard placement for the TACAN on an AMP -3 runway?
150 feet right of centerline even with the first set of approach lights
Who is responsible for the fuel servicing operation at a forward area refueling point (FARP) site?
HRS ( hot refueling supervisor)
What document governs FARP survey criteria?
AFI 11-235
From what point on a circular drop zone would you select the restricted areas that prevent run-in headings?
This is normally done from the center of the drop zone
Which report is maintained by the AMC and used by DOD personnel?
ZAR
Drops on tactical drop zones are usually restricted to?
Resupply or single ship airdrops
What is the required distance between refueling points at a FARP site?
200 feet
Who conducts safety of flight reviews for pending drop zones?
Wing Tactics
What is the primary means of identification on a water drop zone?
A boat
What pattern is used when evaluating the soil on a landing zone with a pentrometer?
Readings are taken in a 12 inch diameter in an X pattern
Once you have completed your survey?
Give it to another team member for review
Tree stumps must be cut to with in how many inches of the ground in the clear zone?
6 inches of the ground
How many seconds prior to drop would you pass
“standby”to an aircraft when performing a VIRS drop?
5 seconds
When selecting a HLZ in mountainous terrain what time and location would be generally preferable?
Windward side at dawn
What is the minimum distance between the tanker aircraft and receiver aircraft on a FARP survey?
200 feet
Which would be the most appropriate point of origin for drop zone?
A road intersection
One of the most common methods of airborne resupply is the?
Low velocity CDS
What is the surface wind limitation when conducting a HAARS or high velocity CDS drop?
No restrictions
What glide slope ratio should be used when evaluating a HLZ?
10:1
It is important to annotate each waypoint saved in the GPS when conducting a drop zone survey so?
The coordinates can be accurately plotted out on a map during the report phase of the survey
The LZC must be?
Certified by the unit commander
What is the minimum distance between refueling points on an FARP survey?
200 feet
Except for emergencies radio communications are not authorized with in how many feet of a refueling operation?
10 feet
What is he constant assigned to personnel parachute when calculating wind drift?
3.0
Which form is use to complete an HLZ survey?
AF form 4303
The recommended minimum HLZ size for a MH-53 during a contingency is?
125 feet by 140 feet
How many lights are used to mark a HLZ at night?
Four or five
Who should you attempt to contact during the prep phase to assist you with information pertaining to the remarks section in reference to such things as restricted areas on the range, frequencies for the controlling facility, reporting procedures, and other special instructions?
The controlling agency and or range control facility for the area you are traveling to
What is the minimum personnel drop zone dimension for a 12 Stick jumping during the day?
600 yards wide x 1,450 yards long
The minimum width for a c-17 runway ( no turn required ) is?
90 feet
When evaluating the soil on a landing zone readings are taken to a depth of ?
24 inches
What is the most critical part of permission drop zone surveying?
Coordinating with the using unit
What is the maximum weight of a door bundle?
500 lbs
How far from the leading edge of a drop zone is the point of impact placed when dropping a CDS bundle from a c-17 during the day?
225 yards
What is the minimum distance required between refueling points and ditches on an FARP survey?
120 feet
Which phase of an HLZ survey mission is the most important?
Preparation
Within what maximum distance from the point of impact is the zone marker placed?
1,500 yards
What is the only constant to apply when conducting HLZ survey?
Survey what is there not what you need
Which condition is within tolerance for a c-17 landing Zone?
Ten inch tall grass in the clear zone
Which method of scoring an airdrop is used only as a last resort?
Estimating
What is the ground slope for a HLZ that would require a helicopter to hover only?
20 degrees
The least accurate angle measuring device when determining runway gradient is the ?
Clinometer
Who makes the final determination regarding minimum landing requirements?
Pilot in command of the Helicopter
How many years are landing zone surveys used before a resurvey is required?
5 years
