CDC Volume 1 Flashcards
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0
Q
The IP or battle position is normally how far from the target?
A
Between 4-14 miles
1
Q
Who issues ROEs
A
Any competent military authority
2
Q
What is the primary danger from laser designators?
A
Damage to the eyes
3
Q
What is one of the real problems the army has when deploying helicopter gunships in a joint CAS environment?
A
Logistics
4
Q
What is the first ROE for fire support?
A
Know your abort code.
5
Q
What does the pilot say to end laser designation?
A
“Terminate”
6
Q
What are the nine conditions required for successful CAS missions?
A
Air superiority, suppression of enemy air defenses, favorable weather, prompt response, target marking, appropriate ordinance, aircrew and terminal controller skill, communications, and command and control.
7
Q
What will display in the AN/PEQ-1 SOFLAM reticle when designating a target?
A
XMT
8
Q
What is one disadvantage of he ATI/LIA on the AC-130?
A
The gunship is also identified and is vulnerable to enemy attack.
9
Q
Which aircraft is capable of using radar beacons as a target acquisition aid?
A
B-1B
10
Q
What is the standard “danger close “ distance for the 105 mm Howitzer?
A
200 meter
11
Q
What term describes light waves that are “in step” with each other?
A
Coherent
12
Q
What is the beacon offset distance for the AC-130H gunship?
A
Less than 1,500 meters
13
Q
What daytime friendly visual marking has the greatest range?
A
Signal mirror
14
Q
The MK-76 is what type of bomb?
A
Practice
15
Q
When an aircraft and artillery are attacking the same target which type of separation requires the most coordination?
A
Time
16
Q
Direct and indirect controls are subdivisions of what level of weapon release authority?
A
Positive control
17
Q
What regulation would you refer to for for detailed information on A-10 CAS?
A
MCM 3-1 Vol. III
18
Q
What terminology is used to describe twirling a chemlight on a string?
A
Buzzsaw
19
Q
What document would you consult to find information about a specifically tasked mission?
A
ATO/ITO
20
Q
What is he ultimate goal of CCT in air base defense?
A
Teach security forces how to use the gunship
21
Q
In a trail attack formation how far behind the lead is the number two aircraft?
A
About 30 seconds
22
Q
What class of laser in the AN/PEQ-1SOFLAM?
A
Class 4
23
Q
Which type of helicopter attack is the most accurate?
A
Hovering
24
In what threat environment are medium - altitude LGBs/ LLLGBs dive delivery tactics used?
Low to medium
25
What must you ensure the aircraft has when passing target locations derived from a handheld GPS?
Map datum being used
26
Which weapons on the AC-130 gunship can be used when operating below the weather and the ceiling is 3,500 feet?
Only the 25 mm cannon
27
What is the operating wavelength for the AN/PEQ-1SOFLAM?
1,064 nm
28
What is an effective method of preparing personnel in DFP to use the gunship?
Well-designed range cards
29
Which of the following IR pointers has the lowest power output?
LPL-30
30
Which frequency band is used to obtain a time hack from the US naval observation master clock?
HF
31
What aircraft tracks ground targets with radar?
J-STARS
32
For CAS missions what is the criterion for danger close?
When targets are inside 0.1percent incapacitation distance
33
What will an AC-130 gunship usually do if an unexpected high-threat weapons system shows up during an operation?
Probably leave the area immediately and return once the threat is neutralized
34
What publication would you consult to find the required OD requirement for laser eye protection?
MIL-HDBK - 828A
35
With what type of cannon are all A-10s equipped?
GAU-8 30 mm cannon
36
What methods of synchronized timing is used on CAS mission?
TOT and / or TTT
37
Unlike Army helicopters, Marine attack helicopters can be tasked?
By a sortie or as a unit
38
Which IR pointer has the has the highest power output?
IZ-LID-II
39
A TAC can expect to see aircraft use a split formation?
When the attack axis in not restricted.
40
What is the standard " danger close" distance when using the 40 mm cannons?
125 meters
41
How would you pass target location and your position to Thea gunship when you are in a " no radio" environment?
Use an IR pointer to " rope" the aircraft and then point to the target
42
The 40 mm Bofors cannon on the AC-130U gunship is especially effective when used against?
Personnel under medium cover
43
What type of target is the Hellfire missile primarily used against?
Tanks
44
What is a variation of the preplanned CAS request?
On-call
45
Who is the expert on munitions dropped from a CAS aircraft?
The pilot.
46
What is the MSA for ATC purposes if the Max Ord is 4,300 feet and the artillery field elevation is 510 feet?
5,900 feet
47
Which pointer operates in the visible spectrum?
GBD-II
48
What document would you consult to find information on fire support coordination?
ACO
49
How far must he IP be from the target?
At least 60 seconds.
50
Which type of CAS request do Marine attack helicopters support?
Preplanned and immediate.
51
Which is not a category of night/limited visibility employment?
Sensory aided
52
What is he meaning of a red star cluster flare?
Call for fire
53
Which weapon has the lowest risk estimate distance?
AGM-65
54
Who must authorize the use of indirect control of targets?
Maneuver commander
55
What are the two types of air coordination areas?
Formal and informal
56
What is normally the maximum laser designation time?
20 seconds
57
What precaution must you employ when signaling an aircraft with a signal mirror in hostile areas?
Use as an aimed signal
58
Which procedure is the most accurate method of locating targets for beacon bombing?
Bearing and distance
59
What is the proper sequence to pass corrections to an AC-130 gunship?
From last round, north, five zero meters
60
Which altitude is within the effective range of the 105 mm Howitzer on the AC-130U gunship?
4,500 feet AGL
61
What is the effective range of the TOW missile?
3,750 meters
62
What is the effective range for the 40 mm cannon on the AC-130H
4,500 to 20,000 feet AGL
63
When multiple radar reflectors are used in a predetermined pattern the must be separated by at least?
10 feet
64
When is the abort code transmitted over the radio net?
In emergencies only
65
What is the meaning of a "10 second" warning call when aircrew's do not have a TOT or TTT?
Alerts the TAC to begin target designation in 10 seconds
66
What is he maximum offset distance of the PPN-19 or SST-181 when using the AC-130?
1,500 meters
67
Which is not a USAF CAS fixed-wing Aircraft?
AH-64
68
What is the greatest limitation of radar beacon bombing?
Beacons are line of sight
69
Which type of helicopter attack normally results in the most accurate fire of unguided munitions?
Diving
70
Generally establish the control point?
Out side of the transition area and up wind
71
Which statement meets the AF requirement for water DZ?
Water depth must be a minimum of 10 feet and no moored craft with in 400 meters
72
To what degree of accuracy are GPS receivers rated?
+_ 1 meter
73
If an equipment drop is delayed which markings should be displayed?
Two parallel bars on the PI and perpendicular to the line of flight
74
What is the surface wind limitations when conducting a non- Air force equipment drop?
At the discretion of the unit DZSO
75
Which form is used to produce a landing zone survey?
AF form 3822
76
Which item is not a GMRS drop zone marking?
G
77
How is the proposed name of a HLZ determined?
The requesting unit will advise you of the proposed name
78
What is the maximum exit altitude for military free fall parachutist?
43,000 feet
79
Where is the standard placement for the TACAN on an AMP -3 runway?
150 feet right of centerline even with the first set of approach lights
80
Who is responsible for the fuel servicing operation at a forward area refueling point (FARP) site?
HRS ( hot refueling supervisor)
81
What document governs FARP survey criteria?
AFI 11-235
82
From what point on a circular drop zone would you select the restricted areas that prevent run-in headings?
This is normally done from the center of the drop zone
83
Which report is maintained by the AMC and used by DOD personnel?
ZAR
84
Drops on tactical drop zones are usually restricted to?
Resupply or single ship airdrops
85
What is the required distance between refueling points at a FARP site?
200 feet
86
Who conducts safety of flight reviews for pending drop zones?
Wing Tactics
87
What is the primary means of identification on a water drop zone?
A boat
88
What pattern is used when evaluating the soil on a landing zone with a pentrometer?
Readings are taken in a 12 inch diameter in an X pattern
89
Once you have completed your survey?
Give it to another team member for review
90
Tree stumps must be cut to with in how many inches of the ground in the clear zone?
6 inches of the ground
91
How many seconds prior to drop would you pass
| "standby"to an aircraft when performing a VIRS drop?
5 seconds
92
When selecting a HLZ in mountainous terrain what time and location would be generally preferable?
Windward side at dawn
93
What is the minimum distance between the tanker aircraft and receiver aircraft on a FARP survey?
200 feet
94
Which would be the most appropriate point of origin for drop zone?
A road intersection
95
One of the most common methods of airborne resupply is the?
Low velocity CDS
96
What is the surface wind limitation when conducting a HAARS or high velocity CDS drop?
No restrictions
97
What glide slope ratio should be used when evaluating a HLZ?
10:1
98
It is important to annotate each waypoint saved in the GPS when conducting a drop zone survey so?
The coordinates can be accurately plotted out on a map during the report phase of the survey
99
The LZC must be?
Certified by the unit commander
100
What is the minimum distance between refueling points on an FARP survey?
200 feet
101
Except for emergencies radio communications are not authorized with in how many feet of a refueling operation?
10 feet
102
What is he constant assigned to personnel parachute when calculating wind drift?
3.0
103
Which form is use to complete an HLZ survey?
AF form 4303
104
The recommended minimum HLZ size for a MH-53 during a contingency is?
125 feet by 140 feet
105
How many lights are used to mark a HLZ at night?
Four or five
106
Who should you attempt to contact during the prep phase to assist you with information pertaining to the remarks section in reference to such things as restricted areas on the range, frequencies for the controlling facility, reporting procedures, and other special instructions?
The controlling agency and or range control facility for the area you are traveling to
107
What is the minimum personnel drop zone dimension for a 12 Stick jumping during the day?
600 yards wide x 1,450 yards long
108
The minimum width for a c-17 runway ( no turn required ) is?
90 feet
109
When evaluating the soil on a landing zone readings are taken to a depth of ?
24 inches
110
What is the most critical part of permission drop zone surveying?
Coordinating with the using unit
111
What is the maximum weight of a door bundle?
500 lbs
112
How far from the leading edge of a drop zone is the point of impact placed when dropping a CDS bundle from a c-17 during the day?
225 yards
113
What is the minimum distance required between refueling points and ditches on an FARP survey?
120 feet
114
Which phase of an HLZ survey mission is the most important?
Preparation
115
Within what maximum distance from the point of impact is the zone marker placed?
1,500 yards
116
What is the only constant to apply when conducting HLZ survey?
Survey what is there not what you need
117
Which condition is within tolerance for a c-17 landing Zone?
Ten inch tall grass in the clear zone
118
Which method of scoring an airdrop is used only as a last resort?
Estimating
119
What is the ground slope for a HLZ that would require a helicopter to hover only?
20 degrees
120
The least accurate angle measuring device when determining runway gradient is the ?
Clinometer
121
Who makes the final determination regarding minimum landing requirements?
Pilot in command of the Helicopter
122
How many years are landing zone surveys used before a resurvey is required?
5 years
123
Where do you position yourself when marshaling a helicopter?
Where the pilot has clear view of you
124
What is the drop score for a MFF drop that lands 20 yards short of the PI?
Not scored
125
What is the standard drop altitude for basic airborne students?
1250 feet
126
You would annotate bodies of water and power lines on your survey when they are within?
1,000 meters or less from the DZ boundary
127
The type of landing zone most likely to be located on a dry lakebed is?
Semi prepared
128
How do you handle a helicopter pilots request o depart from unlighted movement areas or areas not visible from the control point?
Issue advisory " departure will be at your own risk"
129
How is " Taxi into position and hold" phraseology modified for airfields with more than one runway?
"slam one two, runway three six, taxi into position and hold"
130
Simultaneous helicopter operations require how many feet at a minimum between the landing or departure points?
200 feet
131
What phraseology is commonly used to preface initial arrival taxiing instructions?
"if able"
132
When are cruising visual flight rules (VFR) aircraft exempt from complying with cruising altitudes?
When they are in a turn, when they are flying below 3000 feet, or when they are in a holding pattern of 2 minutes or less
133
Which situation describes a pilot conforming to general flight rules (GFR)?
A pilot exile citing a 100 degree bank turn 1500 feet above the clouds
134
When two aircraft are flying the same course but proceeding to different altitudes what separation is required?
3 minutes
135
Where does the initial segment of the overhead pattern begin?
3 to 5 miles from the pandit threshold
136
What separation is required for a small aircraft taking off after a large aircraft has performed an opposite direction low approach?
3 minutes, waiverable
137
What document published by an ATC facility defines areas of jurisdiction and conditions of use?
Letters of agreement (LOA)
138
What phraseology is used to advise a landing aircraft of the preceding landing aircrafts wake turbulence?
"eagle four niner six, number two to land follow heavy C one forty one on two mile final caution wake turbulence report 3 miles
139
In what instance would the FAA handbook 7110.65 not be the primary source for air traffic control (ATC) guidance on an airfield?
When it is preempted by a foreign country's regulation
140
What separation is required for a large aircraft departing from an intersection behind a departing heavy jet?
3 minutes nonwaiverable
141
In issuing traffic advisories in a nonradar environment what information is transmitted to the aircraft?
Type of aircraft, distance and direction from the fix, direction in which the traffic is proceeding
142
When a USAF aircraft is cleared for takeoff, you inform the pilot of the closest traffic on approach to the same runway when the arriving aircraft is within?
6 miles of the threshold
143
In the interest of safety and clarity, what phraseology must you never use while controlling aircraft?
"Behind landing traffic.
144
When runways cross or flight paths intersect, controllers must ensure that succeeding aircraft does not begin takeoff roll until the--?
Preceding aircraft has departed and has passed the intersection.
145
In which situation is it appropriate to issue a departure clearance to a waiting helicopter?
As soon as the preceding helicopter has left the take off area.
146
When pilots are "cleared to cruise" by what restriction are they bound?
After descending from an altitude they may NOT return to it later
147
What is the minimum altitude approved for altitude-restricted low approaches?
500 feet AGL
148
What is the standard USAF overhead traffic pattern altitude?
1500 feet above field elevation
149
What wake turbulence separation is required for a departing large aircraft flying through the flight path of a departing heavy Jet?
2 minutes , nonwaiverable
150
If able what two features should a VFR holding point have?
Easily recognizable from a known point and depicted on a sectional chart
151
What is the distance from cloud criteria for a VFR aircraft flying at 7000 feet MSL in controlled airspace?
500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet horizontally
152
Which situation requires a ground controller to coordinate with the local controller?
A departing aircraft is Taxied to a runway other than the active one
153
Concerning helicopters, what area can be described as a movement area?
Inactive runway
154
During the day, what minimum separation must exist for an arriving category II aircraft to land behind an arriving category I aircraft on the same runway?
4500 feet
155
During minimum interval and takeoff operations at what point does ATC accept responsibility for aircraft separation?
When pilots report approved ATC separation is established and separation is acknowledged by an ATC facility
156
During nonradar departure and arrival operations a departing aircraft must be off the ground and established on a course before the inbound aircraft reports?
4 mile final
157
What is the most correct phraseology to approve a VFR release of an aircraft on an IFR flight plan?
"VFR departure authorized"
158
An aircraft is considered over due if the elapsed time is--?
30 minutes after its estimated time of arrival
159
What is the minimum altitude over mountainous terrain with in a 5 nautical mile radius of the centerline of an IFR Aircrafts intended course?
2000 feet
160
At night when helicopter pilots request landing clearance to areas not on the airport what is the proper phraseology?
"Raider six one wind two seven zero at five landing will be at your own risk traffic"
161
A controller with a question on separation standards within the terminal area should consult what publication?
FAA handbook 7110.65
162
Never recommend downwind departures to helicopters is the tailwind exceeds what minimum speed?
5 knots
163
The FAA has imposed wake turbulence separation to protect landing aircraft that may fly through the airborne paths of a heavy jet how many minutes of separation at a minimum do these situations require?
2 minutes
164
An airport is considered to be " Below minimums" when?
Visibility is lower than the lowest published approach visibility
165
What is the controlling factor for all approaches that require circling to another runway?
Prevailing visibility
166
Where does the crosswind segment of a rectangular patter begin?
1/4 to 1/2 mile beyond the departure end of the runway
167
When controllers receive notice of a bomb on an Airborne aircraft besides the pilot and the immediate supervisor what organization must they also notify?
FAA office of civil aviation security operations
168
What is the ultimate goal of using timed approaches?
Reduce the landing intervals between holding aircraft
169
A USAF pilot's deviation from part 91 of the FAR must be reported to the pilots immediate supervisor or unit commander within
24 hours
170
During the day, when distance can more accurately be determined, what method of control allows you to move two successive departures off the airfield most quickly?
Category separation procedures
171
What are considered to be visual flight rules (VFR) minimums for ATC and combat controllers?
1500 feet ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility
172
During what portion of the rectangular pattern does he pilot configure the plane for landing?
Base
173
Which phraseology identifies correctly issued traffic information in a nonradar environment?
"traffic one zero miles east of Jackson VOR southbound C-130 descending to five thousand"
174
What is the cruising altitude for a westbound VFR flight?
Even thousands, plus 500 feet
175
What minimum distance is considered adequate separation when taxiing light aircraft in the vicinity of a hovering helicopter?
Three rotor diameters
176
What developing a standard rectangular traffic pattern at a USAF airfield what traffic pattern elevation would be published if the airfield elevation is 465 feet?
1500 feet MSL
177
How do pilots request successive landings an takeoffs?
"request closed traffic"
178
When would a controller stop issuing bird advisory information?
When visual observation or subsequent reports reveal the activity is no longer a factor
179
The minimum safe altitude prescribed by the general flight rules (GFR) for aircraft congested areas is?
1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a 2000 foot radius
180
The facility responsible for approving IFR clearance is the ?
One with IFR authority over the airspace in which the flight will be conducted
181
When may a USAF aircraft be flown in designated disaster areas?
When they are following ATC instructions
182
Simultaneous helicopter landing and takeoffs are permissible as long as landing or touchdown points are separated be a distance of at least-- feet?
200 feet
183
The term "high key" and "low key" are substitutes for what other two ATC terms?
Initial and break point
184
How far from the airfield are random- steep initial or entry points located?
4500 feet AGL and 3 to 4 NM from the airfield
185
The teardrop approach is similar to another type of approach known as?
Circling
186
How long is standard vertical separation applied for opposite direction nonradar aircraft?
10 minutes before and after the time they are estimated to have passed one another
187
Departing IFR aircraft are issued the official ceiling and visibility when?
The weather is below the highest published takeoff minimums
188
The minimum distance from clouds that pilots must maintain during (VFR) flights depends on the Aircrafts-- ?
Altitude inside controlled or uncontrolled airspace.
189
At what point does an aircraft in the overhead pattern begin its turn to final?
1/4 mile from the Landing threshold
190
During a hijacking, if communications with the national military command center (NMCC) cannot be maintained what agency is next in line to grant permission to stop delay tactics?
Major command responsible for the aircraft
191
An exception to the proximity rule of the (GFR) general flight rules applies to ?
Formation flights
192
How much separation is required between two Category II aircraft in daylight dep/arr conditions?
4500 feet
193
Aircraft that will fly diverging courses within 5 minutes of takeoff require how many minutes of separation?
2 minutes
194
What separation is required for a large aircraft departing from an intersection behind a departing heavy jet?
3 minutes, nonwaiverable
195
When the weather is marginal and there is no alternate missed approach procedures when can a succeeding aircraft be cleared for landing?
After the preceding aircraft has landed or canceled it's IFR flight plan
196
What does the phraseology "Taxi to runway three six" imply to pilots
A blanket authorization to cross all runways or taxiways between their present position and the departure runway
197
Before flying IFR in controlled airspace, a pilot must have?
An ATC clearance
198
If it is not possible to move a suspected bomb threat aircraft to a remote point on the airfield what minimum distance must other aircraft remain clear of that aircraft?
100 yards
199
An eastbound IFR flight is cruising at FL 290. What is the nearest available altitude above it for a west bound IFR traffic?
FL 310
200
Between the hours of official sun set and sunrise a takeoff or landing can be made only from?
Runway outlined by lights
201
Before controllers can apply DME separation what must exist?
Direct pilot controller communication
202
Hover Taxi operations are generally conducted at an altitude and speed of ?
25 feet and 20 knots
203
What is indicated be the strip marking T->(SW)^50?
Depart southwest climb and maintain five thousand
204
When one aircraft is using it's DME and another is not properly equipped what is the minimum separation between the two aircrafts?
30 DME
205
Flight check aircraft must operate during the day and --?
In visual meteorological conditions
206
What is the correct response to a UH-60 that requests a SVFR clearance if the reported visibility is 1/2mile?
" army copter two five six charleston airport visibility less than 1 mile say intentions
207
In the US or it's possessions what organization has exclusive responsibility for law enforcement activities during a hijacking involving in-flight airflcraft?
FAA
208
What constitutes a category II aircraft?
12500 pounds or less, twin-engine, propeller driven
209
When an aircraft reports vacating a previously assigned altitude what strip marking is most correct?
Draw a single line through the vacated altitude
210
Except for helicopters, the minimum visibility for VFR flights operating inside controlled airspace below 10,000 feet is--?
3 miles
211
Wake turbulence separation criteria apply to parallel runways separated by?
2500 feet or less
212
Vertical separation can be discontinued for opposite direction nonradar aircraft when both aircraft have reported passing the same intersection at least--?
3 minutes apart
213
On the airfield what does the instructions "air taxi" permit helicopter pilots to do?
Proceed at optimum airspeed and in-ground effect.
214
If a pilot uses the word " trip" after he call sign as in " Clark tower reach trip one two three" what does " trip" mean?
We cannot communicate in the clear
215
How long must VFR and IFR aircraft wait before departing in the opposite direction behind a heavy jet?
3 minutes, nonwaiverable
216
The minimum IFR altitude is identified on en route charts as either the
MEA or MOCA
217
Normally, IFR takeoff minimums are established on the
Lowest published landing minimums for the airport
218
Select the largest in terms of wake turbulence classification o the following helicopters?
UH-60
219
How often are radio equipment checks normally made while working an assault zone?
Each new shift
220
Which one of these scenarios is an example of "Anticipated separation"?
Clearing a succeeding aircraft to land before the preceding aircraft has taxied clear of the runway
221
What is the correct phraseology for issuing a transponder code?
"squawk one two zero zero"
222
Pilots must comply with IFR procedures when they are operating--?
In less than VFR conditions
223
To what ATC organization should you send information on an aircraft in need of emergency assistance?
Air route traffic control center responsible for that sector.
224
Which organization's rules take precedence when a combat controller is controlling a US army helicopter while assigned to a civilian air traffic control tower in Florida?
FAA
225
When two aircraft are approaching for a landing which one normally has the right of way?
The aircraft at the lower altitude
226
Which one of these is not a valid reason for canceling takeoff clearance?
Meeting the " expected departure clearance time" (EDCT)
227
During a random-steep approach how far out is the aircraft when the pilot reports "break"?
15 seconds
228
Choose the most correct phraseology from the following examples?
"circle the airport"
229
After receiving " hold instructions" a C-130 pilot responds " Albrook ground , king five four three, roger." how should the ground controller respond?
" King five four three, read back hold instructions"
230
What aircraft will travel the slowest downwind?
C-130
231
What is a pilot who changes the transponder from 7500 to 7700 trying to communicate?
Our situation appears desperate we want armed intervention.
232
When two aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude which air craft has the right of way?
The air craft on the right
233
Into what two categories are aircraft emergencies divided?
Urgency or distress
234
During a final approach, a pilot must operate landing or taxis lights unless direct continuous radio contact has been established with the --?
Tower or runway supervisory unit
235
In flying over nonmountainous terrain when no minimum IFR altitude has been established the pilot must fly at least how many feet above the highest obstacle within 5 nautical miles?
1000
236
Furring what phase of flight would an aircraft be most likely to produce the greatest amount of wake turbulence?
Entering the downwind leg of a traffic pattern
237
When taxiing an aircraft to a nonstandard position for departure what is the minimum information that the ground controller must give the local controller?
Aircraft call sign and pilot's departure position request
238
What is the proper way to clear an airplane for an altitude-restricted low approach?
"Danda one six three, wind calm, cleared for low approach at or above 1000 feet"
239
Why must controllers taxi smaller aircraft into position and have them hold well clear behind departing heavy jets?
Jet blast damage
240
If a pilot insists on using an unusable runway what should you do as a controller?
Tell the pilot that you can not issue a clearance
241
What is the correct phraseology for an unobserved aircraft requesting landing clearance?
"Colt two two three, not in sight, runway three six check wheels down wind calm cleared to land
242
What is a pilot implying when he transmits, " Bartow tower Tucker one two three now back on seven five zero zero"?
Leave us alone do not interfere
243
When two aircraft are within 35 miles of a navigation aid they may no closer than?
10 miles to each other
244
In a Dep/Dep situation where the succeeding aircraft is a helicopter, what method of separation may be applied instead of using distance minimums?
Visual separation
245
Who is responsible for the completeness and accuracy of a control position briefing?
Both the relieving controller and the relieved controller
246
What transponder code indicates " we are being hijacked"?
7500
247
How do controllers treat single-seat helicopters departure control frequency changes?
The same as fighters
248
What are basic USAF visual flying rules (VFRs) weather minimums?
Three miles visibility and 1500 foot ceiling
249
What are the lower and upper limits of jet routes?
18000 ft MSL up to and including FL 450
250
What advantage if any do the static-free and closely placed UHF and VHF navigational aid signals offer a pilot that non-directional beacons signals do not?
Pilots can cross check their position with other nearby NAVAIDs.
251
In class B airspace what category or categories of aircraft receive separation services?
All aircraft IFR and VFR
252
When a controller used the term " immediately" what does it imply?
Pilots action is required to prevent a dangerous situation
253
The METAR elements PO, DS, and SS fall into what category?
Lithometer
254
According to the international civil aviation organization what do the initials SARP stand for?
Standards and recommended practices
255
Bearing, course, heading, and wind direction are usually transmitted relative to?
Magnetic north
256
Under the hierarchy of the classes of airspace which class has precedence over all others?
Class A
257
What serves as a crash phone at a tactical airstrip?
A handheld radio
258
What does the response," Sabre three three two, standby" indicate to an arriving pilot in class C airspace?
Entry into terminal area is approved
259
Under what conditions should a controller stop transmitting safety alerts?
When the pilot take corrective actions
260
What light gun signal communicates to an aircraft on the ground that it must " taxi clear of the landing area"?
Flashing red
261
Besides velocity, what items of information are supplied to a global positioning system (GPS) receiver?
Time and position
262
What are the four types of airspace in the united states?
Controlled, uncontrolled, special use and other
263
What are the class C airspace basic visual flight rules (VFR) weather minimums?
3 statute miles visibility, cloud clearance 1000 ft above, 500 ft below, 2000 ft horizontally
264
How many eighths of sky coverage constitutes a sky condition of "Scattered"?
3/8 to 4/8
265
Why would a controller issue a "blanket" broadcast before a jump operation?
The shear volume of aircraft makes individual transmission impractical
266
How far is the outer marker normally located from the end of a runway?
4-7 miles
267
When does an approach clearance not automatically authorize an aircraft to fly the associated missed approach procedure?
When the aircraft flying the approach is VFR and only practicing IFR approaches
268
At what altitude do the class E airspace visual Flight rule (VFR) minimums increase?
10,000 ft MSL
269
What constitutes a wind gust?
Peaks and lulls of at least 10 knots within 2 minutes
270
Who is responsible for tracking the operational status of controlled firing areas (CFA)?
Flight service station FSS
271
When dangerous cargo is aboard an aircraft the aircrew is required to notify the base a minimum of how much time prior to arrival?
30 minutes
272
What precaution do you take when controlling an aircraft in a volcanic ash cloud?
Do not initiate climb clearances to turbine-powered aircraft
273
In the tower who is responsible for recording automatic terminal information service (ATIS) broadcast
Flight data
274
What agency manages he local airport advisory (LAA) program?
Flight service station (FSS)
275
Why do you customize weather reports?
To meet the needs of your customers
276
How is METAR code TSRA spoken?
Thunderstorm, light rain
277
What does the use of the code name " FLYNET" imply?
Aircraft is en route to a nuclear, chemical, or biological emergency
278
Who forwards instrument flight rules (IFR) flight plan information to air traffic control (ATC) authorities during normal operations at a USAF base?
BASEOPS
279
During daylight hours, an operating rotating beacon indicates ground visibility is less than?
3 miles and or the ceiling is less than 1000 feet
280
If the actual drop altitude is not listed on the ascent rate chart what figure do you use?
Select the next closest one
281
To constitute a squall, wind speed must increase by at least?
16 knots be greater than 22 knots and last longer than 1 minute
282
In what direction does a southerly wind blow?
360 degrees True
283
Why are temporary flight restrictions imposed?
To protect people and property
284
What light gun signal is used to instruct an aircraft in flight to " return for landing"?
Flashing green
285
What are the lower and upper limits of class A airspace?
18,000 ft MSL up to and including Flight Level 600
286
When visibility falls between two reportable values what do you do?
Use the lower value
287
How wide are airways?
8 NM
288
In measuring the ceiling what is the maximum distance an object can be from the control point and still be considered reliable?
1 1/2 miles
289
If more than one sector of visibility must be reported in a weather report how do you list them?
Clockwise starting with the northern most sector
290
Why are instrument approaches used?
Transition IFR aircraft from the approach point to the runway
291
What is the proper circumference of a nighttime 10- Gram helium balloon?
74 inches
292
What federal aviation regulation governs the use of regulatory airspace?
FAR part 73
293
What information does an instrument landing system (ILS) provide to landing aircraft?
Exact alignment and descent guidance
294
Which cloud coverage condition would require a controller to request a pilot report (PIREP)?
BKN 040
295
Where are yellow runway edge lights used?
The last half or last 2000 ft of an instrument, whichever is less
296
When would fog begin to form
When the dew point and air temperature fall within 3 degrees of each other reported in C
297
What publications provide guidance for flight and air traffic control in the national airspace system?
FARs
298
In class G airspace what are the two key factors used to determin flight visibility and cloud clearance?
Altitude and time of day
299
How is the time 09:29::05 stated on the radio?
" time zero niner two niner "
300
What weather instrument provides wind direction as well as speed?
TAMS
301
What is one advantage of using instrument departure procedures (DP) charts?
Reduces clearance delivery time
302
If a pilot reports cloud base 3000 ft and the airfield elevation is 300 ft how should the ceiling be reported?
Estimated 2700 ft
303
Which statement best describes the manner in which responsibilities for controllers and pilots are written?
They intentionally overlap.
304
What restriction applies to the use of commercial flight information publications?
They might. It be approved for for instrument approaches
305
How do you write " wind two two zero at one five gusts two five" in metro logical terminal aviation report (METAR) code?
22015G25KT
306
What are the lower and upper limits of the rectangular tube that make up an airway?
1200 ft AGL up to but not including 18000 feet MSL
307
Before visual separation can be applied what must the succeeding pilot confirm to the air traffic control?
Preceding aircraft is in sight.
