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13-217 Flashcards

0
Q

What is the minimum DZ size for CDS drops (C-130)

Up to 600 feet

A

400x400 yards

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1
Q

How long prior to use should landing zone surveys be requested

A

120 days

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2
Q

What is the minimum DZ size for CDS drops (C-17)

Up to 600 feet

A

450x590 yards

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3
Q

What is the minimum DZ size for personnel drops

Up to 1000 feet

A

600x600 yards

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4
Q

What is the minimum DZ size for heavy equipment

Up to 1100 feet

A

600x1000 yards

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5
Q

What should DZ selection be based on

A

Enemy threats, mission requirements, A/C and aircrew capabilities, parachutist capabilities, types of parachutes, type of equipment dropped

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6
Q

How do jump masters determine. Minimum DZ size for MFF

A

Based on number of personnel to be dropped, jumper proficiency, and prevailing winds

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7
Q

What is a random approach DZ

A

A DZ with any axis of approach as long as the resulting DZ remains within boundaries of the original surveys DZ

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8
Q

What are the dimensions for an area DZ

A
  • no more than 15 NM in length
  • 1 NM in width
  • elevation change can not exceed 300 feet within 1/2 NM of centerline
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9
Q

What is the criteria for a water DZ

A
  • minimum of 10 feet and must be clear of obstructions to that depth
  • free of debris with 400 meters of center of DZ
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10
Q

What is the standard point of impact placement for CDS (C-130)

A

200 yards / day
250 yards / night

From the approach end

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11
Q

What is the standard point of impact placement for personnel (C-130)

A

300 yards / day
350 yards / night

From the approach end

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12
Q

What is the standard point of impact placement for equipment (C-130)

A

500 yards / day
550 yards / night

From the approach end

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13
Q

What is the standard point of impact placement for CDS (C-17)

A

225 yards / day / night / IMC
275 yards / night PDA

From approach end

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14
Q

What is the standard point of impact placement for personnel (C-17)

A

300 yards / day / night / IMC
350 yards / night PDA

From approach end

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15
Q

What is the standard point of impact placement for equipment (C-17)

A

500 yards / day / night / IMC
550 yards / night PDA

From approach end

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16
Q

What is a “water obstacle” defined as?

A

Any body of water that has a depth of 4 ft or more, length and width of more that 40 ft

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17
Q

Bravo-3 message format is used for which type of DZ

A

Hasty/tactical DZ

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18
Q

What are the aerial power line restrictions for DZs

A
  • must be outside of 1000 meters from any DZ boundary
  • if within 1000 meters, must. Be shut off NLT 15 min. prior to TOT
    (Applies to power lines of 50 volts or greater)
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19
Q

What is the surface wind limitation for USAF equipment

A

17 knots

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20
Q

What is the surface wind limitation for USAF CDS bundles (G-12 parachutes)

A

13 knots

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21
Q

What is the surface wind limitation for USAF CDS bundles (G-13/14 parachutes)

A

20 knots

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22
Q

What is the surface wind limitation for HAARS, HV CDS, HSLLADS, or, HV-LCADS

A

No restriction

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23
Q

What is the surface wind limitation for USAF training bundles (SATB)

A

25 knots

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24
Q

What is the surface wind limitation for RAAMZ/CRRC

A

25 knots

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25
Q

What is the surface wind limitation for non USAF equipment

A

At discretion of supported force DZSO

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26
Q

What is the surface wind limitation for USAF static line land/intentional tree

A

13/17 knots

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27
Q

What is the surface wind limitation for USAF static line water

A

25 knots

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28
Q

What is the surface wind limitation for USAF MFF land/intentional tree

A

18/22 knots

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29
Q

What is the surface wind limitation for USAF MFF water

A

25 knots

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30
Q

What is the surface wind limitation for USAF tandem

A

18 knots

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31
Q

What is the surface wind limitation for non USAF personnel

A

Discretion of unit DZSO

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32
Q

What is the circumference for a day and night 10 gram weather balloon

A

57” day

74” night (or two 60” balloons)

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33
Q

What are the authorized standard DZ marking letters

A

J, C, A, R, S

H, O (circular DZ)

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34
Q

What is the minimum size and number of panels for DZ block letters

A

35’x 35’ (11 meters x 11 meters)

9 panels minimum

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35
Q

Where are the flanker lights placed on a DZ at night

A

250 meters left and right abeam the PI

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36
Q

Where is the trailing edge beacon located on a night DZ

A

1000 meters from the PI or at the DZ trailing edge; whichever is closer

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37
Q

What are the two MFF DZ markings

A

Wind arrow and two light system

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38
Q

How do you set up a two light system

A

1 green light and 1 red light which is placed on the desired impact point 15-50 meters upwind

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39
Q

What are the dimensions for a MFF wind arrow

A

7 meters between lights/panels

14 meters between lights/panels at base

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40
Q

What is the preferred method of marking a water DZ

A

The recovery boat

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41
Q

What is the minimum amount of time prior to TOT to pass a drop clearance

A

2 minutes

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42
Q

How would you cancel a drop clearance

A 
Radio transmission
Red smoke
Red flares
Red lights
Scramble panels
Any other pre-planned signal
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43
Q

How early should you transmit a “no drop” to the pilot

A

Early enough to allow time for authentication and NLT 1 min. prior to TOT unless an emergency arises

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44
Q

How far away from the PI must the controller be when CDS or HE are being dropped

A

200 yards / CDS

300 yards / HE

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45
Q

What are the standard GMRS markings

A

4 letter L
6 letter T
7 letter H

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46
Q

Where is the first panel placed in the GMRS

A

100 meters left of the line of flight

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47
Q

Where is the final panel placed in the GMRS

A

150 meters away from the previous panel

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48
Q

Where is the authentication light place din the GMRS

A

15 meters right of the first marker panel

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49
Q

What is the formula for dispersion distance

A

1/2SxE=L

S (aircraft speed)
E (exit time in seconds)
L (length of dispersion in yards)

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50
Q

What is the formula for wind drift

A

D=KAV

D (drift in yards)
K (load drift constant)
A (drop altitude in hundreds of feet)
V (velocity)

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51
Q

What is the load drift constant for personnel (static line)

A

3.0

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52
Q

What is the load drift constant for HE

A

1.5

53
Q

What is the load drift constant for CDS

A

1.5

54
Q

What is the load drift constant for HV-CDS

A

0

55
Q

What is the load drift constant for door bundles

A

1.5

56
Q

What is the load drift constant for SATB

A

2.4

57
Q

What is the GMRS/VIRS forward throw distance for personnel (static line)/door bundle

A

250 yards (C-130/C-17)

58
Q

What is the GMRS/VIRS forward throw distance for personnel (MFF)

A

328 yards (C-130/C-17)

59
Q

What is the GMRS/VIRS forward throw distance for HE (C-130)

A

500 yards

60
Q

What is the GMRS/VIRS forward throw distance for HE (C-17)

A

700 yards

61
Q

What is the GMRS/VIRS forward throw distance for CDS (C-130)

A

550 yards

62
Q

What is the GMRS/VIRS forward throw distance for CDS (C-17)

A

725 yards

63
Q

What is the GMRS/VIRS forward throw distance for SATB (C-130)

A

160 yards

64
Q

How are strike reports given to the pilot

A

Distance from PI in yards and relative clock direction

65
Q

What is considered a PI

A

Any drop landing within yards of the PI

66
Q

What are the three methods for scoring a drop

A

Estimating
Pacing
Measuring

67
Q

What Air Force form is used for DZ surveys

A

AF 3823

68
Q

What is the Air Force form for an HLZ

A

AF 4303

69
Q

What is the Air Force form for LZs

A

AF 3822

70
Q

What Air Force form do you use for LZ/DZ

A

AF 4304

71
Q

What is the minimum runway dimensions for a U-28

A

2000 x 30 feet

72
Q

What is the minimum runway dimensions for a C-130

A

3000 x 60 feet

73
Q

What is the minimum runway dimensions for a C-17

A

3500 x 90 feet

74
Q

What is the minimum runway dimensions for a C-5

A

6000 x 150 feet

75
Q

What must you do with soil balls or dirt clods up to 6 inches in diameter and hardened clay up to 4 inches in diameter

A

Pulverize or remove from traffic area

76
Q

What must you do to tree stumps in the traffic area

A

Remove and fill holes. Compact soil to weight bearing capacity of surrounding surface

77
Q

When must potholes, depressions, and soil mounds be filled in on the traffic area

A

When they exceed 15 inches across the top and 6 inches in depth or height

78
Q

What is the criteria for runway shoulders

A

10 feet wide with a maximum positive/negative grade of 3%

79
Q

What is the criteria for a runway graded area

A

Graded area are adjacent to runway shoulder and should not have any obstacle greater than 4 inches in height(excluding runway markings). The width of the graded area varies from 35 to 375 feet. The minimum grade is 2% and the maximum grade is 5%

80
Q

What is the runway clear zone

A

A clear area located at the ends of the runway with a width equal to that of the runway shoulders and length of 500 feet or 1000 feet.

81
Q

What is the transitional area of a runway

A 
An area extending outward beyond the graded area with a maximum positive slope of 10% and a maximum negative slope of 20%. 
Width:
C-130 / 60 feet
C-17 /  70 feet
U-28 / 30 feet
82
Q

What are the runway approach zones

A

A trapezoidal area extending outward from each clear zone within which no object may penetrate the glide slope angle.

83
Q

What is the glideslope ratio for a U-28/C-130

A

35:1

84
Q

What is the glideslope ratio for a C-17

A

20:1

85
Q

What is the glideslope ratio for C-5

A

50:1

86
Q

What is the runway overrun

A

A portion of the clear zone located as an extension to the end of the runway. Usually 10% of the runway length and used for safety and to minimize risk to aircraft on takeoff or landing

87
Q

What is the minimum overrun for all LZ Operations

A

300 feet

88
Q

What is AMP 1

A

Panels/lights will be placed a minimum of 500’ to a maximum of 1000’ apart. There will be two approach/departure boxes at both ends of the runway marking the touchdown zone.

89
Q

What is AMP 2

A

Two touchdown boxes established on both the approach and departure end of the runway. Distance between panels/lights is 500 to 1000 feet.

90
Q

What is AMP 3

A

A 500’ box is established on the approach end of the runway while two panels(day) or a single light(night) is placed at the beginning of the overrun on the departure end of the runway

91
Q

What is AMP 4

A

No markings on airfield

92
Q

Where are mobile TACANS placed on an LZ

A

150 feet right of centerline and even with first set of approach panels/lights

93
Q

What does a steady green light signify to an A/C on ground/air

A

Cleared for takeoff / cleared to land

94
Q

What does a flashing green light signify to an A/C on ground/air

A

Cleared to taxi / return for landing

95
Q

What does a steady red light signify to an A/C on ground/air

A

Stop / Give way to other A/C

96
Q

What’s does a flashing red light signify to an A/C on ground/air

A

Taxi leave of runway / Do not land

97
Q

What does a flashing white light signify to an A/C on the ground

A

Return to starting point

98
Q

What does an alternating red and green flashing light signify to A/C

A

Use caution

99
Q

How long are LZ surveys good for

A

5 years

100
Q

How long does an HLZ survey last

A

12 months and needs to be updated every 6 months

101
Q

What is the rotor diameter for a MH-53

A

75 feet

Contingency HLZ size : 125 width x 140 length

102
Q

What is the rotor diameter for a CV-22

A

85 feet

Contingency HLZ size: 135 width x 110 length

103
Q

What is the rotor diameter for a UH-1

A

50 feet

Contingency HLZ size: 25 foot clearance from any portion of the helicopter

104
Q

What is the rotor diameter for a HH-60

A

60 feet

Contingency HLZ size: 25 foot clearance from any portion of the helicopter

105
Q

What is the rotor diameter for a MH-47

A

100 feet

Contingency HLZ size: 110 width x 140 length

106
Q

What is the rotor diameter for a AH-6/MH-6

A

27 feet

Contingency HLZ size: 35 width x 40 length

107
Q

What is the formula to determine percent grade

A

Rise/Run(100)=percent grade

108
Q

Tree stumps must be cut to within how many inches of the ground in the clear zone

A

6 inches

109
Q

How far away must ditches be away from the extended runway centerline in the clef zone

A 
75 feet (C-130)
90 feet (C-17)
110
Q

What glide slope ratio should be used when evaluating an HLZ

A

10:1

111
Q

What percentage of slope would require a helicopter to hover only

A

15% slope

112
Q

What is the ceiling minimum for USAF training drops

A

300 foot ceiling and half mile visibility

113
Q

What must you do when the ceiling is less than 600 feet during training drops

A

Clear all personnel from the DZ no later than 5 min prior to scheduled TOT and remain off until airdrops are complete

114
Q

How do you express steepness as a ratio

A

Vertical distance/horizontal distance

Example: how big an object can be 10,500 feet away using a 35:1 approach zone ratio

1/35=x/10,500
1/35(10,500)=x
300 feet=x

115
Q

What is the length if the inner approach zone

A

10,500 feet

116
Q

What is the width of the clear zone

A

500 feet

117
Q

What is the formula for determining if an object exceeds the maximum positive slope in the transitional area

A

10%=rise/run(100)

118
Q

What is the maximum allowed grade in the clear zone

A

5%

119
Q

Where do you measured the glide slop ratio from on a landing zone

A

From the outer edge of the clear zone

120
Q

How far away are panels placed from the operational edge of the runway

A

4’-10’

121
Q

What is the width of the approach zoned

A

2,500 feet

122
Q

What is the width of the taxiway for a C-130

A

30’

123
Q

What is the width if the taxiway for a C-17

A

60’

124
Q

Where are the gradients taken from on an LZ

A

Runway centerline

125
Q

How far away must objects be from taxiway centerlines

A

95’ / C-130

110’ / C-17

126
Q

How much distance must there be between parked A/C and taxiing A/C

A

25’ - prepared

50’ - semi prepared

127
Q

How far away must obstacles be from the outer edge of the parking apron

A

85’ / C-130

100’ / C-17

128
Q

What is the clinometer reading for a 35:1 glide slop ratio

A

1.68 degrees

129
Q

What is the clinometer reading for a 20:1 glide slope ratio

A

2.86 degrees

Survey study (12 decks)

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