CDC SET A VOL 2 Flashcards

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0
Q

What component grips the rim of the cartridge and pulls it from the chamber?

A

The Extractor

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1
Q

What occurs when the action spring expands and send the bolt carrier group forward ?

A

A round is striped from the magazine

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2
Q

What is considered the heart of the m-4?

A

Bolt carrier group

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3
Q

What is an appropriate substitute for CLP in the desert?

A

Graphite-based lube

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4
Q

What is a stoppage?

A

The failure of the firearm to complete its cycle of operation

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5
Q

What is the likely cause of a failure to feed malfunction ?

A

Improperly inserted magazine

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6
Q

Shooter should only use M200 rounds that have a tip that is –?

A

Violet

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7
Q

Besides the m-4 what other weapon uses the m885 rounds?

A

M-249

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8
Q

The most appropriate SOPMOD addition to your m-4 for night mission is the ?

A

PEQ-2 (specific model)

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9
Q

What is the max effective range for the m-203 for point target?

A

150 meters

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10
Q

Natural point of aim can be compared to ?

A

The shooter most relaxed state

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11
Q

What is the alternate method for acquiring a good sight picture?

A

Side aiming technique

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12
Q

The large aperture of the m-4 is used for distances of?

A

Zero to 200 meters

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13
Q

At 25 meters each graduation or notch on the m-4 four-detent front site moves the strike of the bullet ?

A

3/8 inch

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14
Q

What method of operation does the m-9 trigger assembly allow?

A

Single action or double action

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15
Q

What m-9 component can easily be moved to either side of he weapon to accommodate a left or right handed shooter?

A

Magazine release assembly

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16
Q

Why Is the m-9 bore and chamber chrome lined?

A

To extend the service life and protect against rust

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17
Q

If standard cleaning materials do not sufficiently clean the rust from a weapon what is the suggested method?

A

Use a strip of crocus cloth

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18
Q

What should a shooter do If he feels a light recoil?

A

Stop shooting and inspect the barrel

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19
Q

How do shooters maintain correct sight alignment?

A

By focusing on the front sight

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20
Q

When engaging multiple targets what target should you shoot first?

A

Closest target

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21
Q

A shooter in MOP gear may need to cant his weapon to one side in order to attain a sight picture of the target is at a range of more than 75 meters what can the shooter expect in terms of rifle ballistics?

A

The strike of the bullet will be low and in the direction of the cant

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22
Q

In MOPP gear the trigger finger is often restricted what should a shooter do to make shooting easier?

A

Release the swing-down trigger guard

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23
Q

What part of the day may make firing your weapon difficult because of misleading shadows?

A

A half hour before dark and a half hour before dawn

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24
Q

What device is often over looked as a night vision device?

A

Binoculars

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25
Q

How many breaths per minute does a healthy adult take?

A

12 to 18 times per minute

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26
Q

How many time per minute do healthy adults heart beat?

A

Between 60 to 80

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27
Q

What causes shock?

A

Inadequate blood flow to the vital tissues and organs

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28
Q

In a chemical environment what must be done before evaluating or treating a teammate with a suspected back injury?

A

Assist with masking and administering the chemical antidote

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29
Q

What is the first step in a casualty evaluation?

A

Check for responsiveness

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30
Q

What is he safest first approach to opening the airways of a casualty with a suspected spinal injury?

A

Execute jaw thrust method

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31
Q

How many breaths per minute should be administered during rescue breathing?

A

12 breaths

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32
Q

Where should a tourniquet be positioned?

A

Approximately 2-4 inches from the edge of the wound

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33
Q

Victims with tourniquets should have the letter “T” marked upon their ?

A

Forehead

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34
Q

Which is not a symptom of shock?

A

Dry unproductive cough

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35
Q

What patient precedence requires immediate evacuation to save life limb or eyesight and must be moved as soon as possible and in no case within more than 2 hours?

A

Urgent

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36
Q

How quickly should casualties classified a “ Priority” be evacuated?

A

4 hours

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37
Q

What one man carry requires that the victim be conscious?

A

Saddleback

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38
Q

Overwhelming stress produces symptoms that appear to be he same as those of ?

A

A head injury

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39
Q

If WIA is left behind what must be left behind with him?

A

Another team member

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40
Q

What must a tea leader ensure when leaving teammates behind?

A

Their location is well known to all other team members and to higher headquarters

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41
Q

When handling KIA what is the best option?

A

Evacuation

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42
Q

What is the final option when dealing with remains?

A

Leave the remains

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43
Q

The line of longitude that runs through greenwich England is also known as the ?

A

Prime meridian

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44
Q

Which is not used to indicate a point of known elevation on a map?

A

Index elevation

45
Q

How do you correctly orient a map using a lensatic compass?

A

A compass is placed on a compass rose on the map so that the compass sights point towards the top of the map and lie over the magnetic north line the map is turned until the north arrow of the compass is aligned under the index line

46
Q

At what interval are the luminous markings on a lensatic compass placed for visibility at night?

A

3degrees

47
Q

The back azimuth of the forward azimuth 112degrees is?

A

292 degrees

48
Q

What communication equipment / technique is recomended in mountainous areas?

A

Directional antennas

49
Q

What is the most severe sickness associated with high-altitude operations?

A

HACE

50
Q

The symptoms for heatstroke include?

A

Hot, dry skin

51
Q

What precautions should you take when bringing radios in from the cold weather?

A

Wrap them in blankets

52
Q

What technique / equipment is recommended when operating in the jungle?

A

Boxing

53
Q

What type of polarization is most effected by jungle growth?

A

Vertical

54
Q

What type of radios are especially degraded in urban areas?

A

VHF

55
Q

How old is basic nuclear technology

A

50years

56
Q

The united states has pledged to never use

A

Biological agents

57
Q

What type of hazard are alpha particles

A

Inhalation hazard

58
Q

What type of burst is produced whenever a nuclear device is set off on the ground or below 2 kil above the earth

A

Surface burst

59
Q

To be considered a high-altitude burst at what altitude must a nuclear detonation occur

A

30,000m Msl or higher

60
Q

When decontaminating equipment with soap and water what must you be aware of

A

The wast water will most likely become contaminated

61
Q

When constructing a shelter what is your primary concern

A

Shielding from gamma radiation

62
Q

How much is radiation reduced for every 6inch layer of earthen

A

50 percent

63
Q

In preparation for a nuclear attack why is it important to cover sandbags with earth or sod

A

Sandbags can burn and spill there contents

64
Q

What are the two categories of antennas that absorb emp

A

Intentional and unintentional

65
Q

What item is not an antipersonnel pathogen

A

Rodents

66
Q

In general what conditions favor the employment of wet agents

A

Cool and wet

67
Q

What is a good Indictation that a biological weapon has been detonated

A

The weapon pops rather than explodes

68
Q

For maximum protection how long should you wear your protective gear after your area has been attacked or a cloud is known to have passed through your area of operations

A

4 hours

69
Q

Which chemical agents have temporary effeffects

A

Irritant and psychochemical

70
Q

When using portable electronic chemical detectors where should they be placed

A

Upwind of personnel

71
Q

When checking the mch-2p mask for leaks how long should wearers inhale and hold their breath

A

10 sec

72
Q

Which mopp level requires the donning of protective footwear

A

Mopp 2

73
Q

Which mopp level requires the donning of protective footwear

A

Mopp 2

74
Q

Which mopp level requires the donning of protective footwear

A

Mopp 4

75
Q

Where do you store the naak

A

In a standard location so your teammates can easily locate it if it is needed

76
Q

At what interval must pyridostigmine nerve agent pretreatment

A

8-hours

77
Q

Who’s decon kit will your teammates use if a nerve agent incapacitates you?

A

Your decon kit

78
Q

In subzero temperatures the damage radius of a nuclear explosion increases by as much as

A

20 %

79
Q

During what part of the day would a nonpersistent agent attack be unlikely in a desert environment ?

A

Daylight hours

80
Q

Why do liquid agents in a jungle environment vaporize much quicker in high temperatures?

A

Low wind speeds

81
Q

Targeting nuclear weapons in mountainous area is

A

Easier because of the extreme cold

82
Q

Defense against live biological agents

Does not differ in principal in mountains from that in flat terrain except in extreme

A

Cold

83
Q

The structure that provide the best protection against the aftereffects of nuclear blast are

A

Sewers and storm drains

84
Q

What should troops do after an airborne or air assault operation into a nuclear biological or chemical environment?

A

Use separate routes to approach the objective and mass for the assault at the last possible moment.

85
Q

What does the term brisance refer to

A

The rapidity with which an explosive develops its maximum pressure

86
Q

What explosive is used to measure the power or effectiveness of other explosives

A

TNT

87
Q

What is the approximate burn rate of m700 fuse?

A

40 sec per foot

88
Q

When splicing two detonating cords always ensure an overlap of at least

A

12inch

89
Q

What length time fuse do you use to check burn rate

A

3 ft

90
Q

How far from the open end of the cap do you make the crimp

A

1/8 to 1/4 inch from the open end

91
Q

What is the preferred method for priming all charges

A

Detonating cord

92
Q

Why are ring mains preferred over line mains

A

The detonating wave approaches the branch lines from two directions

93
Q

If the filter of an much-2p mask is exposed to blood agents how soon must it be replaced

A

ASAP

94
Q

M9 paper is usable in temperatures that range from

A

32 and above

95
Q

Why are ring mains preferred over line mains?

A

The detonating wave approaches the branch lines from two directions

96
Q

When dual priming how much separation should there be in cap detonations?

A

10 seconds

97
Q

When calculating an external charge what thickness to width ratio do you use?

A

1:4

98
Q

When setting an internal charge in a tree 25 inches in diameter how many holes in what configuration do you use ?

A

Two, non intersecting

99
Q

If you are butting c4 packages end to end along the line of the. Utt, what packages do you prime?

A

Every 4th

100
Q

Which is not a type of special steel cutting charge?

A

Abatis

101
Q

The diamond charge is effective against targets with a diameter up to

A

8 inches

102
Q

When you construct an expedient shape charge what is the rule of thumb regarding standoff distance ?

A

1 1/2 times the cone diameter

103
Q

What is the blast pattern of an uncovered field- expedient claymore?

A

Circular

104
Q

If there is a delay during explosive operations when must a second burn be conducted on the time fuse?

A

If it is not used within 24 hours of the first test burn

105
Q

What is the minimum safe distance for charges of less than 27 pounds?

A

300m

106
Q

Unless the tactical situation requires immediate inspection how long should you delay befor investigating a misfire?

A

For at least 30 min following anticipated detonation time

107
Q

Which document regulates the transportation of USAF explosives?

A

Afman 91-201

108
Q

What are the three basic components shared by all grenades ?

A

Filler, fuze assembly, and body

109
Q

What is created when ordnance impacts the ground but does not detonate?

A

False crater

110
Q

When firing at a Uxo the marksman should be no closer than

A

25 m

111
Q

What can patrols do to lessen the threat of casualties from booby traps and land mines?

A

Remain dispersed