CDC Vol 3 Flashcards
1
Q
What 3 steps does tracking involve?
A
- Determine that a target exist
- Initiating a track on a target
- Ensuring that track continuity is preserved
2
Q
How do you separate valid radar returns from “noise”?
A
Look for a data trail
3
Q
What is track continuity?
A
Making sure the track stays with the data
4
Q
What do you do if you are no longer receiving data on a track?
A
Check for airbases for civilian runways in the area, if your confident it landed, report this and drop the track. Report the track as contact lost and extrapolates the track for 5 mins
5
Q
What is the quickest and most effective way of reporting tracks?
A
Automatically via data link
6
Q
When voice telling tracks, how do you report altitude, heading and speed?
A
Alt- tell in 100-ft increments
Hdg-tell in magnetic degrees
Spd-pass in 10 kt increments
7
Q
What type of information do you NEVER pass over unsecure radios?
A
information that will reveal range or classified capabilities of the system you are working on, existence of EA, or M1/M2 codes
8
Q
What 3 tell priorities are considered critical class tracks?
A
Priority 1,2,and 3
9
Q
What are 2 opposites of situational awareness?
A
Tunnel vision and target fixation
10
Q
Under the most centralized chain of command, who has ID authority?
A
AOC
11
Q
Combined with the ATO, what is the primary method for identifying aircraft as friend?
A
IFF/SIF
12
Q
What flowchart is used to determine what ID method will be used, and in what order?
A
ID Matrix
13
Q
What method of identification is normally the result of an interceptor?
A
Visual Observation
14
Q
How many threat modes are used by the TACS elements?
A
3; low, medium and high
15
Q
What is an approved area of coordinated operations where sectors have the authority to classify an aircraft based on a valid mode 2 or 3 operating within specified boundaries?
A
SAOs
16
Q
What locations is Commander NORAD approved geographical areas in which regions/sectors may classify airborne objects as assumed friends?
A
Free Areas
17
Q
What is the most common means of categorizing/classifying “pending” tracks in the NORAD environment?
A
Flight plan correlation
18
Q
What ID method is usually accomplished as a last resort?
A
VID
19
Q
When may a track classification be changed?
A
Any time that other criterion is met except for a Hostile classification
20
Q
What is the purpose of safe passage?
A
To ensure fast and efficient positive identification of aircraft where an operation or alert is in progress
21
Q
State the 4 characteristics of a safe passage.
A
-Preplanned and classified procedures, -Aircrew and ground elements have the same information on methods and procedures
to be used
-Safe passage identification procedures are revealed and used only in the event of a high state of alert and aircrews
-Learn of the procedures only after they are airborne
22
Q
Under safe passage, what are established for returning aircraft to provide safe entry when one or
more units are in the autonomous mode?
A
Corridors
23
Q
What does tactic mean?
A
A pattern or a directed movement of force
24
Q
What is the purpose of the stern attack?
A
To position the interceptor behind the target aircraft
25
What is the purpose of the cutoff attack?
To provide the interceptor with the most direct approach to the target
26
Can a mission ever be executed using more than one type of control? Explain.
YES, transitions between levels of control may, as the situation dictates, occur rapidly and continuously throughout a mission
27
In which type of control does the controller accept a shared responsibility for fighter positioning during all mission phases?
Close control
28
What type of control is the standard employment level for the execution of operational and training missions?
Tactical control
29
Which type of control is used in non-LOA airspace in the United States?
Advisory control
30
What is the tactical command and control's primary focus?
Safety of all users through the application of deconfliction methods
31
Why should every track have its own unique track number?
the track number is what you use when referring to it
32
Which procedure assigns a track number to a target and begins processing it for identification
and reporting purposes?
Initiation
33
Which action would you NOT do if you began to lose radar returns on a track?
Drop the track
34
Which person would a surveillance technician coordinate with if a track did not reappear?
Air surveillance technician
35
Which of the following parameters must be used when voice telling tracks?
Preface the altitude with its source
36
Which type of tell provides reports from lower echelon units to higher echelon units?
Forward
37
Which type of tell provides adjacent stations with track information on approaching tracks?
Lateral
38
Which tell priority is an emergency track?
3
39
Which option best defines situation awareness?
Perception of what's going on around you
40
Which document provides detailed circumstance and criteria for track identification?
Operations order
41
To correlate with a flight plan, within how many minutes of the planned time must an
aircraft be at a reporting point?
5 mins
42
During peacetime, which method of identification may be used to classify tracks as friendly
based on a specified ground speed or computed true air speed behavior?
track behavior
43
Which modes are normally only associated with military aircraft?
1,2 and 4
44
Which North American Aerospace Defense (NORAD) instruction specifies the
responsibilities and procedures for identification, categorization, and classification of air traffic?
NORAD instruction 10-15
45
How many steps are in the identification process once a track is established?
2
46
What is the final step in the identification process?
Classification
47
At which time do aircrews learn the present safe passage procedures?
After becoming airborne
48
The purpose for using brevity code words are to
make R/T procedures brief and standardized
49
Which type of tactic would employ infrared weapons systems?
Stern
50
Which type of attack is designed to provide the interceptor with the most direct approach to
the target?
Cutoff
51
What is the standard level of control for the execution of operational and training missions?
Tactical
52
Which type of control is informative and not directive in nature?
Broadcast
53
Which type of control uses a radio monitor mode when the controlling agency loses radar
capability?
Advisory
54
Who uses the JFC’s mission, commander’s estimate and objectives, commander’s intent,
CONOPS, and the components’ objectives to develop a COA?
the JFACC
55
What is an analytical, systematic cycle that focuses air efforts on accomplishing operational
requirements?
the air tasking process
56
Force components conduct their planning operations based on which factors?
a timely ATO
57
How many stages are there during the air tasking planning cycle?
6
58
What allows the JFC to ensure the priority of the air effort is consistent with campaign or
operation phases and objectives?
Air Apportionment
59
What is used to finalize the ATO, special instructions, and airspace control order?
JFC and JFACC guidance, including the AOD; target worksheets; the MAAP; and component requirements
60
What may cause a redirecting of air capabilities and forces before launch or a redirection once
airborne?
In-flight reports, discovery of TSTs, and initial assessment (such as BDA)
61
What aids in the development of the air component’s operational-level assessment?
Tactical inputs, along with a wide assortment of other information
62
What are the stages of the air tasking planning cycle? Briefly describe each.
Stage 1: Objectives and guidance
Stage 2: Target development
Stage 3: Weaponeering and allocation
Stage 4: ATO production and dissemination
Stage 5: Execution planning and force execution
Stage 6: Assessment
63
What is the start time of the ATO known as?
The effective time
64
What type of request is submitted by different units in time to meet the ATO planning suspense?
Preplanned
65
If a mission has been assigned as the package commander, what will be displayed in the field
under the air mission data message set?
Y
66
What is a key responsibility of the ACA?
To provide the flexibility needed within the airspace control system to meet contingency situations that necessitate
rapid employment of forces
67
For what reason is the airspace control plan tied to the area air defense plan and coordinated with
other joint operations plans?
Because these documents together allow for the conduct of operations along the range from fully capable and operating
command and control systems to greatly degrade command and control systems
68
When should a change to the ACO be distributed?
Whenever a new area is established or an existing is deleted
69
During combat operations, what are established to ensure aircraft coming into the AOR do not
have to dodge aircraft leaving the airspace?
Traffic Lanes
70
What does the OPTASKLINK outline?
Duties, functions, and parameters for TDL operations
71
How is the OPTASKLINK normally disseminated?
classified message
72
What is the minimum required information included in the DISUM?
Subject; general hostile situation and enemy operations during the period; other intelligence factors; and the
counterintelligence situation
73
Where is the DISUM report prepared?
Joint force headquarters
74
What do rules of engagement balance?
The objectives and concerns of those who establish them with the judgment and capabilities of those who
must execute them
75
What clearly defines authorized and unauthorized targets?
Rules of engagement
76
What are the two primary objectives of ROE?
To prevent fratricide
| Balance competing interest
77
What are used by controllers and aircrews as a reference point when broadcasting locations?
Bullseye
78
How long are special instructions valid?
Until they are rescinded or superseded
79
The air operations center normally establishes an air tasking order planning cycle for how
many hours?
72-96
80
How many series of air tasking orders are in various stages of progress at any time?
5
81
Who approves the joint force air component commanders course of action?
Joint chiefs of staff
82
Who normally primarily submits the preplanned request in a multi-service force
environment to the combat plans division?
Army
83
Which mission set of the air tasking order contains the desired mean point of impact for
maximum effectiveness?
Ground target location
84
Who designates the airspace control authority?
JFC
85
How is the operational tasking data link normally disseminated?
Classified message
86
Who submits daily intelligence summaries (DISUM) to the national level?
Combatant commands
87
Who is the final authority for a theater where rules of engagement (ROE) are concerned?
JFC
88
Which type of tactic is performed during peacetime rules of engagement when an intercept
is run on an aircraft entering United States airspace?
Stern attack
89
What supplements numerous procedures and airspaces usages contained in other portions of
the air tasking order?
SPINS
90
Special instructions are published
baseline, weekly and daily
91
What is?
Military action involving the use of electromagnetic energy and directed energy to control the electromagnetic spectrum or to attack the enemy.
Electronic Warfare
92
What are the 3 major components of EW?
Electronic Attack
Electronic Support
Electronic Protection
93
What EW component prepares the EME for the commander to perform operational use of sensors, assets, and processes within a specific battle space?
Electronic Support
94
Denial is accomplished using which EA techniques?
Degradation, Disruption, Deception
95
What activity in control of the EMS is an effective means to permanently eliminate aspects of an adversary's capability?
Destruction
96
Name 3 ways a jamming transmitter may jam a radar.
- Blocking the radars receiver with high-concentrated power
- Masking some or all targets appearing on the radars indicator
- creating many false targets
97
What type of jamming has a bandwidth approximately that of the victims radar?
Spot jamming
98
How do we classify sweep jammers?
Slow and fast
99
What type of jammer is designed to put false targets on the radar screen?
repeaters
100
What do mechanical jammers consist of?
All EA devices that do not radiate electromagnetic energy, consisting of reflecting, absorbing and destruction devices
101
Name the 3 basic types of chaff drops.
Continuous, Random, Burst
102
What factors affect chaff's screening ability?
Evenness of dispersal, relative density, and the degree to which the particular chaff type resonates at the
given radar frequency
103
Explain the use of flares.
They are used as countermeasures for IR receivers aboard interceptor aircraft or against an IR seeking
missile.
104
Why are the operators the most critical elements in an EP program?
They must know how and when to use the different EP features of their equipment and realize the impact
various EP features have on the radar’s performance
105
What are fixes?
A term we use to describe features designed into a radar system or modifications to existing systems that
degrade or eliminate the effectiveness of EA
106
Define frequency agility.
The ability of a radar set to be tuned rapidly from one frequency to another frequency.
107
Against what type of jammer is frequency agility the most successful?
Manually tuned spot jammer.
108
What is diplexing?
The use of two separate transmitter and/or receivers operating on different frequencies, but using a
common antenna system.
109
Describe some of the effects EP may have on the system employing it.
The use of EP may degrade the ability of the radar by limiting its range or reducing its sensitivity. These
degradations can be exploited by the enemy to help them reach their target.
110
What is one thing that you must not do when reporting EA?
Do not mention anything about EA over unsecure radios or telephones.
111
How do you use triangulation to determine the location of a jammer?
You use the intersection of two or more radar EA strobes to determine the position of the jammer.
112
How can you best describe spark jamming?
This is the type of interference you see and hear on a TV set while someone is using an electric mixer or
razor in the immediate area
113
Why is sweep-through jamming so widely used?
Because it is possible to cover a number of frequencies with only one sweep-through transmitter
114
What does stepped-tone jamming sound like?
It somewhat resembles the wail of bagpipes
115
Why is noise jamming so dangerous?
It may be mistaken for receiver or atmospheric noise and an operator can sometimes be jammed by noise
without realizing it.
116
List some of the general rules that help you in combating jamming.
(1) Be alert to antijamming measures.
(2) Use alternate frequencies and call signs.
(3) Make identification of channels difficult.
(4) Use enemy frequencies.
(5) Use “radio discipline” as a countermeasure.
117
If faced with severe jamming on all frequencies, which frequencies can you use as a last resort
and under what conditions?
Enemy frequencies may be used with the concurrence of your intelligence officer.
118
Why is it important never to reveal over the air that you are experiencing jamming?
This is as good as telling the enemy they have succeeded.
119
What directive provides direction and guidance concerning EMI reporting?
AFI 10–707, Spectrum Interference Resolution Program
120
What is the preferred way of submitting EMI reports?
Electronic message.
121
How soon must you submit an initial report on an EMI incident?
Within 24 hours of the incident.
122
What are the three types of reports used during an EMI incident?
(1) Initial.
(2) Supplemental.
(3) Closing.
123
What does a supplemental EMI report contain?
It adds or modifies information previously submitted and can be used to request on-site QFIRC technical
assistance from EIS when required
124
Which umbrella term covers technologies that produce concentrated electromagnetic energy
or subatomic particles?
Directed Energy
125
What responds to searches that consist of the interception, identification, and location
sources of intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for the purpose of threat recognition?
ES
126
Which electronic warfare (EA) mission includes the actions taken to protect personnel,
facilities, and equipment from any effects of friendly, neutral, or enemy use of the
electromagnetic spectrum?
EP
127
Which activity of the electromagnetic spectrum is used to confuse or delay adversary
action?
Disruption
128
Which activity in control of the electromagnetic spectrum manipulates or distorts the
adversary?
Deception
129
Which characteristic does a jamming transmitter not use to jam a radar?
Reflecting or absorbing the radar signal
130
The advantage of a spot jammer is
all the power of the jammer can be concentrated in one place
131
Which of the following is an advantage of a barrage jammer?
Covers a wide band of frequencies simultaneously
132
An advantage of a repeater jammer is
it creates many false targets, which cause confusion, doubt, and delay
133
The characteristic that determines which frequency the chaff will jam is the strip’s
Length
134
Which of the following does not affect chaff’s screening ability?
a. Degree it resonates at the given radar frequency.
b. Evenness of dispersal.
c. Relative density.
d. Range.
Range
135
Small aircrafts containing a propulsion system that can be programmed to maneuver and
change altitude are known as
decoys
136
Which devices are used as a countermeasure for infrared (IR) receivers aboard interceptor
aircraft or against IR seeking missiles?
Flares
137
Which term do we use to describe features designed into a radar system that degrade or
eliminate the effectiveness of electronic attack (EA)?
a. Electronic protection (EP).Fixes
b. Frequency agility.
c. Triangulation.
d. Fixes.
Fixes
138
Two separate transmitters and/or receivers operating on different frequencies, but using a
common antenna system, are used for
Diplexing
139
Which technique improves the signal-to-jamming (S/J) ratio and extends the burn-through
(detection) range?
a. Diplexing.
b. Power add.
c. Frequency agility.
d. Frequency diversity
Power add
140
The use of electronic protection (EP) may degrade the ability of a radar by
limiting its range or reducing its sensitivity
141
What is the first thing you do if you realize that you are being jammed?
Alert other crew members
142
When would you not mention anything about an electronic attack (EA)?
over nonsecure radios or telephones
143
Which operator action uses the intersection of two or more radar electronic attack (EA)
strobes to determine the position of a jammer?
Triangulation
144
Why is it important to locate the position of a jammer?
So you can direct interceptor aircraft to it to neutralize the jammer
145
The type of communications jamming will encounter more frequently than
others are
spark
146
Which type of communications jamming causes a sound somewhat like an aircraft engine?
sweep through
147
Which type of communications jamming produces a signal consisting of audio tones that
somewhat resemble the wail of a bagpipe?
stepped tone
148
Which of the following options is not an effective jamming measure?
recorded music or foreign language broadcast
149
When experiencing communications jamming, what must you not do?
consider all interference as unintentional unless you can positively identify it to be jamming
150
When your communications are being jammed, what should you remember to do when you
go to an alternate frequency?
Change your call sign
151
When can you use enemy frequencies?
As a last resort and with the concurrence of your intelligence officer.
152
What must you not do when using “radio discipline” as a countermeasure?
Speak quickly so as to pass as much information as possible.
153
What is a form of intentional interference that does not affect radar circuits, but concerns
the transmission or retransmission of actual or simulated navigational signals to confuse
navigation?
Meaconing
154
```
Which tool can be used to determine the bandwidth, relative amplitude, and modulation of
electromagnetic interference (EMI)?
```
Spectrum analyzer
155
Which electromagnetic interference (EMI) report does the engineering installation squadron
(EIS) or the MAJCOM designated point of contact submit?
Closing
156
When information is exchanged over TDL, for what do senders and receivers use this
information?
To establish a picture of a tactical situation of common interest.
157
What mode of communication do operators use to troubleshoot problems associated with link
failure?
Operators use voice communications to coordinate link problems.
158
Define link architecture.
Link architecture is the overall design of the communications system forming the MTN.
159
When operating in the roll call architecture, who is responsible for polling each unit and
requesting transmission of their data?
The DNCS.
160
Explain the difference between simplex and full-duplex communications.
During simplex operations, net participants are restricted from transmitting while receiving data. Full
duplex is capable of transmitting and receiving data simultaneously
161
What term refers to the computer language used in transmitting TDL messages?
Message standard
162
Which units commonly use Link 11?
Naval and airborne platforms as well as ground units that need to link with them.
163
What polling technique does the network use to manage information exchange among Link 11
participants?
Roll Call
164
What types of communications systems are primarily used to transmit Link 11B information?
Link 11B is primarily transmitted over landlines, microwave, troposcatter radio, and satellite
communications
165
What does Link 16 support?
Functional mission areas including joint theater air and missile defense, attack operations, counter-air,
interdiction, suppression of enemy air defense, close air support, and time-critical targeting prosecution
166
What function of Link 16 decomposes data into message sets transmitted during pre-planned
intervals?
TDMA
167
How is transmission and reception of ATDL–1 data accomplished?
Direct Current
168
Which unit within the TACS has the ability to process TDLs on Link 11, Link 11B, and Link 16,
but has no inherent surveillance radar capabilities?
the AOC
169
List the TDLs of the MCE.
(1) Link 11.
(2) Link 11B.
(3) Link 4A.
(4) ATDL–1.
(5) Link 1.
(6) Link 16.
170
With what two USAF elements does AWACS typically link directly?
the AOC and the CRC
171
What is JSTARS’s main contribution to the TDL architecture?
JSTARS has the ability to track and down link information on surface vehicles moving at very slow speeds
172
Which piece of equipment is used at the RAOC/ADS for translation of Link 11 and Link 11B
messages into an acceptable computer format?
RADIL
173
What TDL is the primary method of transfer for US Army ground units?
Link 16
174
Most ships within the Navy are capable of using what TDLs?
Link 11, Link 4A, and Link 16
175
What USMC unit functions similar to the USAF CRC?
TAOC
176
What two important publications are used in planning TDL operations?
OPORD and OPTASKLINK
177
What information is contained in Annex A of the OPORD?
It contains a listing of all participating units assigned to support the exercise or operation and their initial
operating location
178
Where are PU call signs located?
OPTASKLINK
179
To gain an understanding of a unit’s capabilities, what do TDL planners review?
the CONOPS
180
What must units establish to eliminate track duplication from overlapping coverage?
TDL filter plan
181
What is the primary feed to support generation of the CTP?
the JDN
182
What is the process of receiving data on one TDL and outputting the data in the proper format
and protocol of another TDL?
Data forwarding
183
What TDL tool provides a capability for a C2 IU operator to call the attention of operators in
other C2 IUs to a specific geographic location without assigning a track number?
pointer
184
Which timing architecture is normally used if your unit is operating in the Link 11
environment?
Polling
185
Which data link transmission methods are used across great distances?
HF and SATCOM
186
Which message format is used by Link 16?
J-series
187
Which communications medium is used by Link 11 participants for beyond-the-horizon
nets?
HF
188
What is the tactical data link (TDL) for airborne platforms that uses ultra high frequency
(UHF) radio for line-of-sight nets?
Link 11
189
What tactical data link (TDL) is capable of operating in the full duplex mode and is
primarily used between ground-based units?
Link 11B
190
What provides both transmission security and communications security for message
security on the Link 16 network?
Secure Data Unit (SDU)
191
Which tactical data link (TDL) is used for control and coordination of surface-to-air missile
systems?
ATDL-1
192
Modular control equipment (MCE) equipped units and United States Marine Corps
(USMC) tactical air operations centers (TAOC) link with the North Atlantic Treaty Organization
(NATO) air defense ground environment (NADGE) through the usage of
Link-1
193
The modular control equipment (MCE) data links consist of Link 11,
a. Link 11B, Link–1 and PATRIOT defense information language (PADIL).
b. Link 11B, Link 16, Army tactical data link–1 (ATDL–1), and Link–1.
c. Link 11B, ATDL–1, and surveillance and control data link (SCDL).
d. Link 11B only.
B
194
Which airborne asset is employed to provide surveillance, early warning, tracking, and
identification of aircraft?
AWACS
195
Which tactical data links (TDL) are typically used by the Army to receive data link inputs?
Link 11B and Link 16
196
Which Navy aircraft is capable of using Link 11 and Link 16 data links?
E-2C
197
Which document contains specific voice coordination frequencies used for troubleshooting
and coordinating data-link operations?
OPORD annex K
198
Which message type outlines duties, functions, and parameters for link operations?
OPTASKLINK
199
When designing your data link architecture, what must you consider to allow overlapping
coverage and to also prevent multiple instances of track duplication?
Data link filter plan
200
What is the unit designation that forwards between a Link 16 and Link 11/11B data link?
Forwarding joint tactical information data system unit
201
Which data link tool is used to request certain data that was purged or dropped locally from
one or more C2 interface units?
Data update request
