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1C5 > CDC Vol 3 > Flashcards

CDC Vol 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What 3 steps does tracking involve?

A
  1. Determine that a target exist
  2. Initiating a track on a target
  3. Ensuring that track continuity is preserved
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2
Q

How do you separate valid radar returns from “noise”?

A

Look for a data trail

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3
Q

What is track continuity?

A

Making sure the track stays with the data

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4
Q

What do you do if you are no longer receiving data on a track?

A

Check for airbases for civilian runways in the area, if your confident it landed, report this and drop the track. Report the track as contact lost and extrapolates the track for 5 mins

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5
Q

What is the quickest and most effective way of reporting tracks?

A

Automatically via data link

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6
Q

When voice telling tracks, how do you report altitude, heading and speed?

A

Alt- tell in 100-ft increments
Hdg-tell in magnetic degrees
Spd-pass in 10 kt increments

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7
Q

What type of information do you NEVER pass over unsecure radios?

A

information that will reveal range or classified capabilities of the system you are working on, existence of EA, or M1/M2 codes

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8
Q

What 3 tell priorities are considered critical class tracks?

A

Priority 1,2,and 3

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9
Q

What are 2 opposites of situational awareness?

A

Tunnel vision and target fixation

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10
Q

Under the most centralized chain of command, who has ID authority?

A

AOC

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11
Q

Combined with the ATO, what is the primary method for identifying aircraft as friend?

A

IFF/SIF

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12
Q

What flowchart is used to determine what ID method will be used, and in what order?

A

ID Matrix

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13
Q

What method of identification is normally the result of an interceptor?

A

Visual Observation

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14
Q

How many threat modes are used by the TACS elements?

A

3; low, medium and high

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15
Q

What is an approved area of coordinated operations where sectors have the authority to classify an aircraft based on a valid mode 2 or 3 operating within specified boundaries?

A

SAOs

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16
Q

What locations is Commander NORAD approved geographical areas in which regions/sectors may classify airborne objects as assumed friends?

A

Free Areas

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17
Q

What is the most common means of categorizing/classifying “pending” tracks in the NORAD environment?

A

Flight plan correlation

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18
Q

What ID method is usually accomplished as a last resort?

A

VID

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19
Q

When may a track classification be changed?

A

Any time that other criterion is met except for a Hostile classification

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20
Q

What is the purpose of safe passage?

A

To ensure fast and efficient positive identification of aircraft where an operation or alert is in progress

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21
Q

State the 4 characteristics of a safe passage.

A

-Preplanned and classified procedures, -Aircrew and ground elements have the same information on methods and procedures
to be used
-Safe passage identification procedures are revealed and used only in the event of a high state of alert and aircrews
-Learn of the procedures only after they are airborne

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22
Q

Under safe passage, what are established for returning aircraft to provide safe entry when one or
more units are in the autonomous mode?

A

Corridors

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23
Q

What does tactic mean?

A

A pattern or a directed movement of force

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24
Q

What is the purpose of the stern attack?

A

To position the interceptor behind the target aircraft

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25
Q

What is the purpose of the cutoff attack?

A

To provide the interceptor with the most direct approach to the target

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26
Q

Can a mission ever be executed using more than one type of control? Explain.

A

YES, transitions between levels of control may, as the situation dictates, occur rapidly and continuously throughout a mission

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27
Q

In which type of control does the controller accept a shared responsibility for fighter positioning during all mission phases?

A

Close control

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28
Q

What type of control is the standard employment level for the execution of operational and training missions?

A

Tactical control

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29
Q

Which type of control is used in non-LOA airspace in the United States?

A

Advisory control

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30
Q

What is the tactical command and control’s primary focus?

A

Safety of all users through the application of deconfliction methods

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31
Q

Why should every track have its own unique track number?

A

the track number is what you use when referring to it

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32
Q

Which procedure assigns a track number to a target and begins processing it for identification
and reporting purposes?

A

Initiation

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33
Q

Which action would you NOT do if you began to lose radar returns on a track?

A

Drop the track

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34
Q

Which person would a surveillance technician coordinate with if a track did not reappear?

A

Air surveillance technician

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35
Q

Which of the following parameters must be used when voice telling tracks?

A

Preface the altitude with its source

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36
Q

Which type of tell provides reports from lower echelon units to higher echelon units?

A

Forward

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37
Q

Which type of tell provides adjacent stations with track information on approaching tracks?

A

Lateral

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38
Q

Which tell priority is an emergency track?

A

3

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39
Q

Which option best defines situation awareness?

A

Perception of what’s going on around you

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40
Q

Which document provides detailed circumstance and criteria for track identification?

A

Operations order

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41
Q

To correlate with a flight plan, within how many minutes of the planned time must an
aircraft be at a reporting point?

A

5 mins

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42
Q

During peacetime, which method of identification may be used to classify tracks as friendly
based on a specified ground speed or computed true air speed behavior?

A

track behavior

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43
Q

Which modes are normally only associated with military aircraft?

A

1,2 and 4

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44
Q

Which North American Aerospace Defense (NORAD) instruction specifies the
responsibilities and procedures for identification, categorization, and classification of air traffic?

A

NORAD instruction 10-15

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45
Q

How many steps are in the identification process once a track is established?

A

2

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46
Q

What is the final step in the identification process?

A

Classification

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47
Q

At which time do aircrews learn the present safe passage procedures?

A

After becoming airborne

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48
Q

The purpose for using brevity code words are to

A

make R/T procedures brief and standardized

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49
Q

Which type of tactic would employ infrared weapons systems?

A

Stern

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50
Q

Which type of attack is designed to provide the interceptor with the most direct approach to
the target?

A

Cutoff

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51
Q

What is the standard level of control for the execution of operational and training missions?

A

Tactical

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52
Q

Which type of control is informative and not directive in nature?

A

Broadcast

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53
Q

Which type of control uses a radio monitor mode when the controlling agency loses radar
capability?

A

Advisory

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54
Q

Who uses the JFC’s mission, commander’s estimate and objectives, commander’s intent,
CONOPS, and the components’ objectives to develop a COA?

A

the JFACC

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55
Q

What is an analytical, systematic cycle that focuses air efforts on accomplishing operational
requirements?

A

the air tasking process

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56
Q

Force components conduct their planning operations based on which factors?

A

a timely ATO

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57
Q

How many stages are there during the air tasking planning cycle?

A

6

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58
Q

What allows the JFC to ensure the priority of the air effort is consistent with campaign or
operation phases and objectives?

A

Air Apportionment

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59
Q

What is used to finalize the ATO, special instructions, and airspace control order?

A

JFC and JFACC guidance, including the AOD; target worksheets; the MAAP; and component requirements

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60
Q

What may cause a redirecting of air capabilities and forces before launch or a redirection once
airborne?

A

In-flight reports, discovery of TSTs, and initial assessment (such as BDA)

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61
Q

What aids in the development of the air component’s operational-level assessment?

A

Tactical inputs, along with a wide assortment of other information

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62
Q

What are the stages of the air tasking planning cycle? Briefly describe each.

A

Stage 1: Objectives and guidance
Stage 2: Target development
Stage 3: Weaponeering and allocation
Stage 4: ATO production and dissemination
Stage 5: Execution planning and force execution
Stage 6: Assessment

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63
Q

What is the start time of the ATO known as?

A

The effective time

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64
Q

What type of request is submitted by different units in time to meet the ATO planning suspense?

A

Preplanned

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65
Q

If a mission has been assigned as the package commander, what will be displayed in the field
under the air mission data message set?

A

Y

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66
Q

What is a key responsibility of the ACA?

A

To provide the flexibility needed within the airspace control system to meet contingency situations that necessitate
rapid employment of forces

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67
Q

For what reason is the airspace control plan tied to the area air defense plan and coordinated with
other joint operations plans?

A

Because these documents together allow for the conduct of operations along the range from fully capable and operating
command and control systems to greatly degrade command and control systems

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68
Q

When should a change to the ACO be distributed?

A

Whenever a new area is established or an existing is deleted

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69
Q

During combat operations, what are established to ensure aircraft coming into the AOR do not
have to dodge aircraft leaving the airspace?

A

Traffic Lanes

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70
Q

What does the OPTASKLINK outline?

A

Duties, functions, and parameters for TDL operations

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71
Q

How is the OPTASKLINK normally disseminated?

A

classified message

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72
Q

What is the minimum required information included in the DISUM?

A

Subject; general hostile situation and enemy operations during the period; other intelligence factors; and the
counterintelligence situation

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73
Q

Where is the DISUM report prepared?

A

Joint force headquarters

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74
Q

What do rules of engagement balance?

A

The objectives and concerns of those who establish them with the judgment and capabilities of those who
must execute them

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75
Q

What clearly defines authorized and unauthorized targets?

A

Rules of engagement

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76
Q

What are the two primary objectives of ROE?

A

To prevent fratricide

Balance competing interest

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77
Q

What are used by controllers and aircrews as a reference point when broadcasting locations?

A

Bullseye

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78
Q

How long are special instructions valid?

A

Until they are rescinded or superseded

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79
Q

The air operations center normally establishes an air tasking order planning cycle for how
many hours?

A

72-96

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80
Q

How many series of air tasking orders are in various stages of progress at any time?

A

5

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81
Q

Who approves the joint force air component commanders course of action?

A

Joint chiefs of staff

82
Q

Who normally primarily submits the preplanned request in a multi-service force
environment to the combat plans division?

A

Army

83
Q

Which mission set of the air tasking order contains the desired mean point of impact for
maximum effectiveness?

A

Ground target location

84
Q

Who designates the airspace control authority?

A

JFC

85
Q

How is the operational tasking data link normally disseminated?

A

Classified message

86
Q

Who submits daily intelligence summaries (DISUM) to the national level?

A

Combatant commands

87
Q

Who is the final authority for a theater where rules of engagement (ROE) are concerned?

A

JFC

88
Q

Which type of tactic is performed during peacetime rules of engagement when an intercept
is run on an aircraft entering United States airspace?

A

Stern attack

89
Q

What supplements numerous procedures and airspaces usages contained in other portions of
the air tasking order?

A

SPINS

90
Q

Special instructions are published

A

baseline, weekly and daily

91
Q

What is?
Military action involving the use of electromagnetic energy and directed energy to control the electromagnetic spectrum or to attack the enemy.

A

Electronic Warfare

92
Q

What are the 3 major components of EW?

A

Electronic Attack
Electronic Support
Electronic Protection

93
Q

What EW component prepares the EME for the commander to perform operational use of sensors, assets, and processes within a specific battle space?

A

Electronic Support

94
Q

Denial is accomplished using which EA techniques?

A

Degradation, Disruption, Deception

95
Q

What activity in control of the EMS is an effective means to permanently eliminate aspects of an adversary’s capability?

A

Destruction

96
Q

Name 3 ways a jamming transmitter may jam a radar.

A
  • Blocking the radars receiver with high-concentrated power
  • Masking some or all targets appearing on the radars indicator
  • creating many false targets
97
Q

What type of jamming has a bandwidth approximately that of the victims radar?

A

Spot jamming

98
Q

How do we classify sweep jammers?

A

Slow and fast

99
Q

What type of jammer is designed to put false targets on the radar screen?

A

repeaters

100
Q

What do mechanical jammers consist of?

A

All EA devices that do not radiate electromagnetic energy, consisting of reflecting, absorbing and destruction devices

101
Q

Name the 3 basic types of chaff drops.

A

Continuous, Random, Burst

102
Q

What factors affect chaff’s screening ability?

A

Evenness of dispersal, relative density, and the degree to which the particular chaff type resonates at the
given radar frequency

103
Q

Explain the use of flares.

A

They are used as countermeasures for IR receivers aboard interceptor aircraft or against an IR seeking
missile.

104
Q

Why are the operators the most critical elements in an EP program?

A

They must know how and when to use the different EP features of their equipment and realize the impact
various EP features have on the radar’s performance

105
Q

What are fixes?

A

A term we use to describe features designed into a radar system or modifications to existing systems that
degrade or eliminate the effectiveness of EA

106
Q

Define frequency agility.

A

The ability of a radar set to be tuned rapidly from one frequency to another frequency.

107
Q

Against what type of jammer is frequency agility the most successful?

A

Manually tuned spot jammer.

108
Q

What is diplexing?

A

The use of two separate transmitter and/or receivers operating on different frequencies, but using a
common antenna system.

109
Q

Describe some of the effects EP may have on the system employing it.

A

The use of EP may degrade the ability of the radar by limiting its range or reducing its sensitivity. These
degradations can be exploited by the enemy to help them reach their target.

110
Q

What is one thing that you must not do when reporting EA?

A

Do not mention anything about EA over unsecure radios or telephones.

111
Q

How do you use triangulation to determine the location of a jammer?

A

You use the intersection of two or more radar EA strobes to determine the position of the jammer.

112
Q

How can you best describe spark jamming?

A

This is the type of interference you see and hear on a TV set while someone is using an electric mixer or
razor in the immediate area

113
Q

Why is sweep-through jamming so widely used?

A

Because it is possible to cover a number of frequencies with only one sweep-through transmitter

114
Q

What does stepped-tone jamming sound like?

A

It somewhat resembles the wail of bagpipes

115
Q

Why is noise jamming so dangerous?

A

It may be mistaken for receiver or atmospheric noise and an operator can sometimes be jammed by noise
without realizing it.

116
Q

List some of the general rules that help you in combating jamming.

A

(1) Be alert to antijamming measures.
(2) Use alternate frequencies and call signs.
(3) Make identification of channels difficult.
(4) Use enemy frequencies.
(5) Use “radio discipline” as a countermeasure.

117
Q

If faced with severe jamming on all frequencies, which frequencies can you use as a last resort
and under what conditions?

A

Enemy frequencies may be used with the concurrence of your intelligence officer.

118
Q

Why is it important never to reveal over the air that you are experiencing jamming?

A

This is as good as telling the enemy they have succeeded.

119
Q

What directive provides direction and guidance concerning EMI reporting?

A

AFI 10–707, Spectrum Interference Resolution Program

120
Q

What is the preferred way of submitting EMI reports?

A

Electronic message.

121
Q

How soon must you submit an initial report on an EMI incident?

A

Within 24 hours of the incident.

122
Q

What are the three types of reports used during an EMI incident?

A

(1) Initial.
(2) Supplemental.
(3) Closing.

123
Q

What does a supplemental EMI report contain?

A

It adds or modifies information previously submitted and can be used to request on-site QFIRC technical
assistance from EIS when required

124
Q

Which umbrella term covers technologies that produce concentrated electromagnetic energy
or subatomic particles?

A

Directed Energy

125
Q

What responds to searches that consist of the interception, identification, and location
sources of intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for the purpose of threat recognition?

A

ES

126
Q

Which electronic warfare (EA) mission includes the actions taken to protect personnel,
facilities, and equipment from any effects of friendly, neutral, or enemy use of the
electromagnetic spectrum?

A

EP

127
Q

Which activity of the electromagnetic spectrum is used to confuse or delay adversary
action?

A

Disruption

128
Q

Which activity in control of the electromagnetic spectrum manipulates or distorts the
adversary?

A

Deception

129
Q

Which characteristic does a jamming transmitter not use to jam a radar?

A

Reflecting or absorbing the radar signal

130
Q

The advantage of a spot jammer is

A

all the power of the jammer can be concentrated in one place

131
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of a barrage jammer?

A

Covers a wide band of frequencies simultaneously

132
Q

An advantage of a repeater jammer is

A

it creates many false targets, which cause confusion, doubt, and delay

133
Q

The characteristic that determines which frequency the chaff will jam is the strip’s

A

Length

134
Q

Which of the following does not affect chaff’s screening ability?

a. Degree it resonates at the given radar frequency.
b. Evenness of dispersal.
c. Relative density.
d. Range.

A

Range

135
Q

Small aircrafts containing a propulsion system that can be programmed to maneuver and
change altitude are known as

A

decoys

136
Q

Which devices are used as a countermeasure for infrared (IR) receivers aboard interceptor
aircraft or against IR seeking missiles?

A

Flares

137
Q

Which term do we use to describe features designed into a radar system that degrade or
eliminate the effectiveness of electronic attack (EA)?
a. Electronic protection (EP).Fixes
b. Frequency agility.
c. Triangulation.
d. Fixes.

A

Fixes

138
Q

Two separate transmitters and/or receivers operating on different frequencies, but using a
common antenna system, are used for

A

Diplexing

139
Q

Which technique improves the signal-to-jamming (S/J) ratio and extends the burn-through

(detection) range?
a. Diplexing.
b. Power add.
c. Frequency agility.
d. Frequency diversity

A

Power add

140
Q

The use of electronic protection (EP) may degrade the ability of a radar by

A

limiting its range or reducing its sensitivity

141
Q

What is the first thing you do if you realize that you are being jammed?

A

Alert other crew members

142
Q

When would you not mention anything about an electronic attack (EA)?

A

over nonsecure radios or telephones

143
Q

Which operator action uses the intersection of two or more radar electronic attack (EA)
strobes to determine the position of a jammer?

A

Triangulation

144
Q

Why is it important to locate the position of a jammer?

A

So you can direct interceptor aircraft to it to neutralize the jammer

145
Q

The type of communications jamming will encounter more frequently than
others are

A

spark

146
Q

Which type of communications jamming causes a sound somewhat like an aircraft engine?

A

sweep through

147
Q

Which type of communications jamming produces a signal consisting of audio tones that
somewhat resemble the wail of a bagpipe?

A

stepped tone

148
Q

Which of the following options is not an effective jamming measure?

A

recorded music or foreign language broadcast

149
Q

When experiencing communications jamming, what must you not do?

A

consider all interference as unintentional unless you can positively identify it to be jamming

150
Q

When your communications are being jammed, what should you remember to do when you
go to an alternate frequency?

A

Change your call sign

151
Q

When can you use enemy frequencies?

A

As a last resort and with the concurrence of your intelligence officer.

152
Q

What must you not do when using “radio discipline” as a countermeasure?

A

Speak quickly so as to pass as much information as possible.

153
Q

What is a form of intentional interference that does not affect radar circuits, but concerns
the transmission or retransmission of actual or simulated navigational signals to confuse
navigation?

A

Meaconing

154
Q 
Which tool can be used to determine the bandwidth, relative amplitude, and modulation of
electromagnetic interference (EMI)?
A

Spectrum analyzer

155
Q

Which electromagnetic interference (EMI) report does the engineering installation squadron
(EIS) or the MAJCOM designated point of contact submit?

A

Closing

156
Q

When information is exchanged over TDL, for what do senders and receivers use this
information?

A

To establish a picture of a tactical situation of common interest.

157
Q

What mode of communication do operators use to troubleshoot problems associated with link
failure?

A

Operators use voice communications to coordinate link problems.

158
Q

Define link architecture.

A

Link architecture is the overall design of the communications system forming the MTN.

159
Q

When operating in the roll call architecture, who is responsible for polling each unit and
requesting transmission of their data?

A

The DNCS.

160
Q

Explain the difference between simplex and full-duplex communications.

A

During simplex operations, net participants are restricted from transmitting while receiving data. Full
duplex is capable of transmitting and receiving data simultaneously

161
Q

What term refers to the computer language used in transmitting TDL messages?

A

Message standard

162
Q

Which units commonly use Link 11?

A

Naval and airborne platforms as well as ground units that need to link with them.

163
Q

What polling technique does the network use to manage information exchange among Link 11
participants?

A

Roll Call

164
Q

What types of communications systems are primarily used to transmit Link 11B information?

A

Link 11B is primarily transmitted over landlines, microwave, troposcatter radio, and satellite
communications

165
Q

What does Link 16 support?

A

Functional mission areas including joint theater air and missile defense, attack operations, counter-air,
interdiction, suppression of enemy air defense, close air support, and time-critical targeting prosecution

166
Q

What function of Link 16 decomposes data into message sets transmitted during pre-planned
intervals?

A

TDMA

167
Q

How is transmission and reception of ATDL–1 data accomplished?

A

Direct Current

168
Q

Which unit within the TACS has the ability to process TDLs on Link 11, Link 11B, and Link 16,
but has no inherent surveillance radar capabilities?

A

the AOC

169
Q

List the TDLs of the MCE.

A

(1) Link 11.
(2) Link 11B.
(3) Link 4A.
(4) ATDL–1.
(5) Link 1.
(6) Link 16.

170
Q

With what two USAF elements does AWACS typically link directly?

A

the AOC and the CRC

171
Q

What is JSTARS’s main contribution to the TDL architecture?

A

JSTARS has the ability to track and down link information on surface vehicles moving at very slow speeds

172
Q

Which piece of equipment is used at the RAOC/ADS for translation of Link 11 and Link 11B
messages into an acceptable computer format?

A

RADIL

173
Q

What TDL is the primary method of transfer for US Army ground units?

A

Link 16

174
Q

Most ships within the Navy are capable of using what TDLs?

A

Link 11, Link 4A, and Link 16

175
Q

What USMC unit functions similar to the USAF CRC?

A

TAOC

176
Q

What two important publications are used in planning TDL operations?

A

OPORD and OPTASKLINK

177
Q

What information is contained in Annex A of the OPORD?

A

It contains a listing of all participating units assigned to support the exercise or operation and their initial
operating location

178
Q

Where are PU call signs located?

A

OPTASKLINK

179
Q

To gain an understanding of a unit’s capabilities, what do TDL planners review?

A

the CONOPS

180
Q

What must units establish to eliminate track duplication from overlapping coverage?

A

TDL filter plan

181
Q

What is the primary feed to support generation of the CTP?

A

the JDN

182
Q

What is the process of receiving data on one TDL and outputting the data in the proper format
and protocol of another TDL?

A

Data forwarding

183
Q

What TDL tool provides a capability for a C2 IU operator to call the attention of operators in
other C2 IUs to a specific geographic location without assigning a track number?

A

pointer

184
Q

Which timing architecture is normally used if your unit is operating in the Link 11
environment?

A

Polling

185
Q

Which data link transmission methods are used across great distances?

A

HF and SATCOM

186
Q

Which message format is used by Link 16?

A

J-series

187
Q

Which communications medium is used by Link 11 participants for beyond-the-horizon
nets?

A

HF

188
Q

What is the tactical data link (TDL) for airborne platforms that uses ultra high frequency
(UHF) radio for line-of-sight nets?

A

Link 11

189
Q

What tactical data link (TDL) is capable of operating in the full duplex mode and is
primarily used between ground-based units?

A

Link 11B

190
Q

What provides both transmission security and communications security for message
security on the Link 16 network?

A

Secure Data Unit (SDU)

191
Q

Which tactical data link (TDL) is used for control and coordination of surface-to-air missile
systems?

A

ATDL-1

192
Q

Modular control equipment (MCE) equipped units and United States Marine Corps
(USMC) tactical air operations centers (TAOC) link with the North Atlantic Treaty Organization
(NATO) air defense ground environment (NADGE) through the usage of

A

Link-1

193
Q

The modular control equipment (MCE) data links consist of Link 11,

a. Link 11B, Link–1 and PATRIOT defense information language (PADIL).
b. Link 11B, Link 16, Army tactical data link–1 (ATDL–1), and Link–1.
c. Link 11B, ATDL–1, and surveillance and control data link (SCDL).
d. Link 11B only.

A

B

194
Q

Which airborne asset is employed to provide surveillance, early warning, tracking, and
identification of aircraft?

A

AWACS

195
Q

Which tactical data links (TDL) are typically used by the Army to receive data link inputs?

A

Link 11B and Link 16

196
Q

Which Navy aircraft is capable of using Link 11 and Link 16 data links?

A

E-2C

197
Q

Which document contains specific voice coordination frequencies used for troubleshooting
and coordinating data-link operations?

A

OPORD annex K

198
Q

Which message type outlines duties, functions, and parameters for link operations?

A

OPTASKLINK

199
Q

When designing your data link architecture, what must you consider to allow overlapping
coverage and to also prevent multiple instances of track duplication?

A

Data link filter plan

200
Q

What is the unit designation that forwards between a Link 16 and Link 11/11B data link?

A

Forwarding joint tactical information data system unit

201
Q

Which data link tool is used to request certain data that was purged or dropped locally from
one or more C2 interface units?

A

Data update request

1C5 (7 decks)

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