CDC Vol 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the CFETP used for?

A

To plan, develop, manage, and conduct an effective and efficient career field training program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name the four types of training on which CFETP focuses:

A
  • Initial skill training
  • Upgrade training (UGT)
  • Qualification training (QT) actual hands on training
  • Continuation training (CT)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of training does the formal resident course at Keesler AFB provide?

A

Initial skill training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name the Air Force publication that serves as a training contract between AETC and our 1C5X1 functional managers. And what section of the CFETP can it be found?

A
  • Specialty training standard (STS)

- Part II, Section A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What official guide contains an overview of all the different career fields and establishes the occupational structure of the AF enlisted force?

A

The Air Force enlisted classification directory (AFECD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List the AFSC skill levels and their names: *6

A
1C511-helper
1C531-apprentice
1C551-journeyman
1C571-craftsman
1C591-superintendent
1C500-manager (CMSgt)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is added to the beginning of an AFSC to identify an ability, skill, special qualification, or system? What is added to the end of the AFSC that identifies specific equipment, functions or positions?

A

prefix

suffix/shredout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a three-character code that identifies special experience and training not otherwise identified within the military personnel data system?

A

Special experience identifier (SEI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

State the 5 progressive readiness conditions, the description and the exercise term:

A

DEFCON 5—(Exercise term: FADE OUT) normal readiness situation exists.
DEFCON4—(Exercise term: DOUBLE TAKE) increased intelligence watch and
strengthened security measures.
DEFCON 3—(Exercise term: ROUND HOUSE) an increase in force readiness above that
required for normal readiness.
DEFCON 2—(Exercise term: FAST PACE) a further increase in force readiness but less than
maximum readiness.
DEFCON 1—(Exercise term: COCKED PISTOL) maximum force readiness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Emergency conditions consist of ___ conditions, what are they?

A

2

defense emergency and air defense emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe Defense emergency and state its exercise term.

A

A defense emergency (DE) exists when a confirmed major attack is made upon US or allied forces
overseas, or an overt attack of any type is made upon the US.
HOT BOX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

List, describe and name the exercise term of the attack warning conditions.

A

Air Defense Warning White—(Exercise term: SNOW MAN)—Attack by hostile aircraft,
space vehicles, or missiles is no longer considered probable.
Air Defense Warning Yellow—(Exercise term: LEMON JUICE)—Attack by hostile aircraft,
space vehicles, or missiles is probable.
Air Defense Warning Red—(Exercise term: APPLE JACK)—Attack by hostile aircraft,
space vehicles, or missiles is imminent or in progress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe Air Defense emergency and state its emergency term.

A

An air defense emergency (ADE) exists when attack upon the continental United States (CONUS),
Alaska, Hawaii, Canada, or US installations in Greenland by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space
vehicles is considered probable, imminent, or is taking place
BIG NOISE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Who are the military authorities for the emergency security control of air traffic (ESCAT) plan in
the forty-eight contiguous states, including Washington, D.C., and Alaska?

A

Commander NORAD or individual NORAD region/sector commanders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many priorities are contained in the ESCAT air traffic priority list (EATPL)?

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which priority of the EATPL includes the President of the United States and the Prime Minister
of Canada?

A

priority 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How many lines of latitude and longitude are there?

A

latitude= 90 lines

longitude=180 lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why are latitude and longitude always read from the lower to the higher?

A

We always read latitude and longitude from the lower to the higher
numbers because positions are always expressed as distance from the equator and the prime meridian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Into what size zones does MGRS divide the earth’s surface and how are these zones designated?

A

MGRS divide the earth into narrow zones 6° of longitude in width beginning at the 180° meridian. The
zones are numbered 1 through 60 from this reference point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What type of construction does GARS provide?

A

Two-dimensional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a burst of energy transmitted by a radar sensor through the atmosphere or space?

A

Radio wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List the basic radar components and briefly describe them: *9

A

-Synchronizer-the “brain”,coordinates the operation of the
various parts of the radar
-Frequency generator
-Modulator-provide an
extremely large, very short, square-wave pulse of DC voltage to the transmitter
-Transmitter-deliver a series of high-energy bursts of RF energy
-Duplexer-required when the transmitter and receiver use the same antenna
-Antenna-during transmission is to concentrate the radiated energy
into a shaped beam from an antenna that points in the desired direction. During reception, the antenna
collects the energy contained in the echo signal and delivers it to the receiver
-Receiver-detect desired echo signals in the presence of noise, interference, or
clutter; separate wanted from unwanted signals
-Receiver protectors-“fuse”,ensure a circuit failure does not cause RF energy transmitted by the radar to
enter and overload the radar’s receivers
-Display

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define the terms “PRF” and “PRT” and explain why they are important.

A

The number of times the radar
transmits per second we know as the pulse repetition frequency (PRF).Transmission time, plus
resting time (or the time from the beginning of one pulse to the next) we call the pulse repetition time
(PRT)
The lower the PRF, the longer the PRT. The longer the resting
(listening) time of the radar, the more time there is for the transmitted pulse to go out, strike a target,
and return. Thus, the lower the PRF, the greater the range of the radar system. There are also some
negative effects to a low PRF, such as more susceptibility to interference. As a result, a correct
balance must be found between the PRF and the PRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the part of the radio wave that bounces back to the antenna?

A

echo or return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the “brain” of the radar system? Why?

A

Synchronizer

because it coordinates the operations of the various parts of the radar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the function of the modulator?

A

To provide an extremely large, very short square wave pulse of DC voltage to the transmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What device allows a single antenna to both transmit and receive?

A

Duplexer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the antennas purpose during transmission and reception?

A

T- concentrate the radiated energy into a shaped beam that points in the desired direction into space
R- the antenna collects the energy contained in the echo signal and delivers it to the receiver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What component of the radar separates wanted from unwanted returns?

A

Receiver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a pulse Doppler radar?

A

similar to modulator pulse radar, however, its receiver detects a shift or change of frequency of the received signal (Doppler shift) to distinguish between moving and stationary targets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How are airborne radars able to distinguish targets from ground returns?

A

By making use of the Doppler shift which is produced by moving targets. Stationary targets will not produce such a shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How does phased-array radar move the radar beam?

A

electronically steers the beam. The beam can be swept across the antennas both horizontally and vertically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What type of IFF/SIF transponders do we use today?

A

Mark XII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How many IFF/SIF modes are there and who uses them?

A

5
Modes 1-5 (military)
Modes A-D (civil air traffic control environment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What mode is used by the Air Force to identify aircraft based on assignment to a specific base or squadron?

A

Mode 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the difference between Mode 3 and Mode A?

A

Nothing, 3- military, A-civilian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What information is provided by mode C?

A

provides automatic pressure altitude transmissions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which military modes are not used by the civil secondary surveillance radar?

A

1,2,4, and 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

List the three mode 3A emergency codes and their meaning?

A

7700- emergency
7600- radio communication
7500- hijacker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How is mode 4 different from the other modes?

A

encrypted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the three switch settings available with the special position identification function?

A

IDENT(I/P)-OUT-MIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What helps improve tracking continuity when used in conjunction with radar?

A

IFF/SIF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In what frequency range does the ARSR-4 operate?

A

1215-1400 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How does the ARSR-4 radar increase weather processing capabilities?

A

by incorporating a completely separate weather channel and processing path apart from target channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Where have the ARSR-4 radars been installed?

A

Around the periphery of the CONUS, as well as Guam, Hawaii and Guantanamo Bay, Cuba

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

At what speed does the TPS-75 radar antenna rotate?

A

6.5 rpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

At what speed does the TPS-75 radar antenna rotate?

A

6.5 rpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the altitude limit of the FPS-117?

A

100,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How many frequencies can be set for the FPS-117 to frequency hop on?

A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What countries have installed the FPS-117 for long range detection?

A

US, Canada

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What countries have installed the FPS-117 for long range detection?

A

US and Canada

52
Q

What system across Alaska and Canada uses the FPS-124 radar?

A

NWS- North Warning System

53
Q

How many reportable tracks per scan can the FPS-124 process and forward?

54
Q

What is the primary function of the FPS-124?

A

To fill gaps in coverage of the FPS-117

55
Q

What is the primary function of the FPS-124?

A

To fill gaps in coverage of the FPS-117

56
Q

The word “radar” is an acronym that means radio,

A

detection and ranging

57
Q

A radar can use the radio waves to determine the distance or range to the target by

A

the amount of time that it takes a radio wave to go out, strike an object, and come back

58
Q

What is the principle used in radar to detect a target by analyzing a change in frequency of a return signal?

A

Doppler shift

59
Q

Which radar component has many small antennas or slotted waveguides positioned on the face or side of a large wedge-shaped structure?

A

Phased array antenna

60
Q

How many microseconds after the last framing pulse is a transmission sent out when the special position identification (SPI) feature is selected in Mode 2 or 3?

61
Q

Which identification , friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) codes can be selected by an aircraft’s pilot?

62
Q

Which IFF/SIF mode enables operators to distinguish between friendly and potentially hostile aircraft?

63
Q

What allows a pilot to transmit a response that will result in a special display at your console?

A

Special pilot identification (SPI)

64
Q

Why might you receive an IFF/SIF return from a target and not a radar return?

A

The IFF/SIF return is stronger than the radar return

65
Q

How many 2 degree elevation beams does the air route surveillance radar mode 4 (ARSR-4) use?

66
Q

How many vertically stacked , slotted waveguide radiators make up the TPS-75 radar antenna?

67
Q

What is the range of the TPS-75 radar antenna?

68
Q

AIR MASSES. WHICH ONE AM I?
Air masses form over extensive landmass areas of the high latitudes.
In the Northern Hemisphere, these systems form only in winter over Greenland, northern
Canada, northern Siberia, and the Arctic Basin. Continental arctic air masses are very cold
and extremely dry and are also very stable

A

Continental arctic (cA)

69
Q

AIR MASSES. WHICH ONE AM I?
Air masses are produced from air stagnating over northern
continental regions. They are cold and dry, with little moisture. Their source region is very
stable

A

Continental polar (cP)

70
Q

AIR MASSES. WHICH ONE AM I?
Air masses form over northern oceanic areas. Generally, they are not
as cold as cP air masses, have higher moisture content, and are either stable or unstable

A

Maritime polar (mP)

71
Q

AIR MASSES. WHICH ONE AM I?
Air masses form over warm oceanic areas in the high-pressure cells.
They have high moisture content and are stable in their source region. When moving over
land, maritime tropical air becomes unstable, typically resulting in hot and humid conditions
with thunderstorm activity during the summer. Maritime tropical air tends to stabilize while
moving over land during the winter, resulting in cloudy, foggy conditions

A

Maritime tropical (mT)

72
Q

AIR MASSES. WHICH ONE AM I?
Air masses form over desert or high plateau regions. These air
masses are hot, dry, and unstable. Due to the absence of water vapor, they produce few
showers. When precipitation forms, it tends to be high-based thunderstorms with short,
intense showers, which can cause flash flooding and strong, damaging winds

A

Continental tropical (cT)

73
Q

What type of front is formed when warm air moves up over a wedge of colder retreating air?

74
Q

What type of front shows little to no movement?

A

Stationary

75
Q

What type of front produces severe weather during the initial forming stages?

76
Q

What type of front is associated with an abrupt drop in temperature, a shift in wind with wind gusts and a rapid rise in barometric pressure?

77
Q

What effect does heavy could coverage and heavy rain have on radars?

A

The range of the radar is decreased due to attenuation

78
Q

How is radar energy lost in attenuation?

A

Through scattering and absorption

79
Q

What is the troposphere?

A

The lowest layer of the Earths atmosphere. It is the portion of the atmosphere within which our weather occurs

80
Q

What causes the bending or refraction of radar energy?

A

The structure of the troposhere

81
Q

What are the four basic types of refraction?

A

Subrefraction
Normal
Superrefraction
Trapping

82
Q

Which type of refraction occurs during cloudy, rainy weather with strong winds?

83
Q

Which type of refraction causes radar energy to be curved upward?

A

Subrefraction

84
Q

Which type of refraction causes radar energy to be curved downward more sharply than normal but not as much as the curvature of the earth?

A

Superrefraction

85
Q

Which type of refraction causes radar energy to be curved downward equal to or greater than the curvature of the earth?

86
Q

What is one problem caused by strong weather returns?

A

Masking effect or shadow area; nothing can be seen beyond it

87
Q

What type of weather report format is now the standard and is used worldwide?

A

The aviation routine weather report (METAR)

88
Q

A constant surface for weather purposes is considered a/an

A

good regional source

89
Q

Clouds are normally found in which basic forms?

A

Stratus and cumulus

90
Q

What is the area between two different air masses called?

91
Q

Weather fronts are generally classified according to

A

relative motions of the air masses involved

92
Q

How is radar performance normally affected during normal refraction?

A

Performance of the radar is generally undisturbed

93
Q

How is radar performance normally affected during superrefraction?

A

Radar energy is bent downward, increasing the range

94
Q

How are calm winds reported in an aviation routine weather report (METAR)?

95
Q

In an aviation routine weather report (METAR), what does “M” under runway visual range
(RVR) indicate?

96
Q

In an aviation routine weather report (METAR), how is hail indicated?

97
Q

When more than one type of precipitation is present, which precipitation does the intensity
element refer in an aviation routine weather report (METAR)?

A

First precipitation element

98
Q

When more than one type of precipitation is present, which precipitation does the intensity
element refer in an aviation routine weather report (METAR)?

A

Sky conditions

99
Q

Winds aloft which are also called upper winds are reported in which foot increment and
feet?

A

5,000 ft increments from 5,000 to 60,000 ft

100
Q

What system provides a direct dialing access to most military installations and Department of
Defense (DOD) facilities around the world?

A

Defense Switched Networked (DSN)

-basically a long-distance telephone system

101
Q

List two advantages of using cellular phones and pagers?

A

(1) Makes it easier to contact commanders, key personnel and standby personnel at times when they are not near an administrative telephone
(2) Serves as a backup means of communication

102
Q

How are communications using the STE secured?

A

By the insertion of a personal computer memory card international association (PCMCIA) crypto card called the FORTEZZA plus

103
Q

Name the levels of precedence of the telephone priority system.

A

Flash
Immediate
Priority
Routine

104
Q

What precedence is reserved for vital communications having an immediate operational effect on
tactical operations, safety and rescue operations, and intelligence reports?

105
Q

What band of frequencies do we know as the HF band?

A

from 3 - 30 MHz

106
Q

Which frequencies are in high demand because of their reliable long-range propagation
accommodating voice and teletype data?

A

High Frequency

107
Q

Which frequencies are in high demand because of their reliable long-range propagation
accommodating voice and teletype data?

A

No. Frequencies in the VHF range and above are limited to LOS, that is, they are not normally reflected by the ionosphere

108
Q

What are the three principal methods of UHF propagation?

A

LOS
Tropospheric scatter
Satellite

109
Q

Why is it important to use prescribed procedures for radio operations?

A

They shorten your transmissions and let you release the frequency to another user

110
Q

Name the four factors of speech.

A
RSVP:
Rhythm
Speed
Volume
Pitch
111
Q

What happens if you speak too loudly on an HF circuit?

A

You overmodulate the signal to a point where it becomes unreadable

112
Q

What should you always ensure you know before you key the radio microphone?

A

Exactly what you are going to say

113
Q

Why do you use a multiple call?

A

To contact two or more units/callsigns in your area

114
Q

In making a full call, why would you transmit both call signs twice to attract attention?

A

When communications are difficult or when aircraft with similar call signs are in the area

115
Q

If, after a few calls, you realize you cannot establish contact with an aircraft, what do you do?

A

Attempt to establish the contact by relay through another agency

116
Q

What is the purpose of MINIMIZE?

A

To limit the volume of routine traffic in the communications system and to ensure the flow of essential traffic

117
Q

Who has the authority to impose MINIMIZE?

A

Commanders at all levels within their command or area of command responsibility. Only the JCS can impose MINIMIZE worldwide

118
Q

Generally, what document is used to impose MINIMIZE?

A

The imposing or appropriate higher authority

119
Q

Who can cancel a MINIMIZE condition?

A

only by the authority that ordered it or by a higher authority in the form of “CANCEL MINIMIZE” followed by the scope of the cancellation

120
Q

The best transmission method for high frequency (HF) is

121
Q

The only method of communicating over long distances from one point of the earth to
another without a relay, satellite, or connecting cable is by using the

122
Q

Which frequencies are normally only useful for distances approximately within the line of
sight?

A

VHF and above

123
Q

What are the hopping pattern and hopping rate in a HAVE QUICK system determined by?

A

Word of day (WOD)

124
Q

When transmitting a message over a radio, which type of pause is greater when speaking?

125
Q

Approximately how far away from your lips should you hold your microphone when
transmitting?

A

half an inch

126
Q

What are the methods of calling used in radio communications?

A

Full and abbreviated

127
Q

When are abbreviated calls authorized?

A

During good communications conditions and after contact has been firmly established