CDC Vol 2 Flashcards
1
Q
On what principle is the TACS design based?
A
Centralized control and decentralized execution
2
Q
To whom does the Air Force task to present Air Force AEF to the JFC?
A
Numbered air force
3
Q
What does the deployable nature of the CRC require?
A
That all elements are able to integrate and interoperate with C2 systems within the Air Force, other service systems and allied systems
4
Q
What type of operations can the TACS support?
A
It can support all types of operations, from MOOTW to strategic nuclear war
5
Q
Who delegates BM responsibilities to the TACS elements?
A
The JFACC
6
Q
Where is the information derived for the JFACC’s recognizable air picture?
A
Ground radars integrated with airborne, seaborne and space based sensors
7
Q
What is the senior deployable element of the TACS?
A
AOC
8
Q
What is the most important aspect of an air campaign?
A
Complete integration of an array of joint force operations
9
Q
Name the divisions of the AOC
A
Strategy Combat Plans Combat Operations Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) Air Mobility
10
Q
Who is responsible to the JFACC for effectively conducting joint air, space and cyberspace operations and establishing the AOC battle rhythm?
A
The AOC commander
11
Q
Which element within the AOC produces the ATOs?
A
The combat plans division
12
Q
What does the AOC’s combat operations division concentrate on?
A
Execution of the current ATO and ACO
13
Q
Which component liaison at the AOC supports integration of air, space and cyberspace operations with ground maneuver?
A
BCD
14
Q
Who supervises the functions of the AOC’s offensive operations?
A
SODO
15
Q
Who is responsible to the chief of combat operations for the duties assigned to the defensive operations team?
A
SADO
16
Q
What position supervises the duties and functions of the enlisted members of the defensive operations team?
A
SADT
17
Q
What duty position at the AOC facilitates the resolution of the dual track designation and identification conflicts that are a result of system interoperability problems or operator error?
A
TDC
18
Q
Which unit is designated as the primary C2 facility within TACS?
A
CRC
19
Q
What are the functions of the CRC?
A
Battle management, surveillance, weapons control, airspace management, tactical data-link management
20
Q
What function is responsible for implementation of the airspace control order?
A
Airspace management
21
Q
On what TDLs are CRCs capable of interfacing?
A
Link 11/11B/16, SADL and NATO Link-1
22
Q
POSITION
CRC unit commander
A
BC- battle commander
23
Q
POSITION
Responsible to the SD for coordinating localized air defense operations using ADA assets
A
ADAFCO
24
Q
POSITION
Responsible to the MCC for assignment of allocated weapons
A
SD
25
POSITION
| Responsible to the SD for controlling aircraft
WD
26
POSITION
| Ensures tracking continuity and reports unusual scope presentations
ST
27
POSITION
| This position is located in the radar van
EPT
28
POSITION
| Responsible for implementing manual tell procedures
AST
29
POSITION
| Plans and coordinates the initial build of the MCE database
DST
30
POSITION
| Monitors data-link effectiveness
ICT
31
POSITION
| This SNCO supervises the management of the ADP systems
BSC
32
What does the modular control system concept provide?
Mobility and flexibility necessary to meet deployment requirements of tactical forces anywhere in the world
33
How are remoted radars tied into the system, and what type of data is displayed on the operator console unit work station?
Remote radar is received using VHF radio and provides a symbology only air picture
34
What piece of equipment drops false returns and correlates actual radar and IFF targets?
MIG
35
EQUIPMENT
| Serves as the main thoroughfare for all data exchange between DDB and OCUWS
SSU
36
EQUIPMENT
| Provides secure and non-secure communications of C2
IRE
37
EQUIPMENT
| The main human-machine system interface component
R/R
38
EQUIPMENT
| Used to log voice communications
OCUWS
39
EQUIPMENT
| The data communications interface
EXA
40
To whom does the JFC normally assign as the JFACC?
The component commander having the preponderance of air assets and the capability to plan, task, and control joint air operations
41
Who is directly subordinate to the AOC for planning, coordinating, and directing tactical air support for ground forces?
ASOC
42
During LINEAR operations where does the air support operations center normally control airspace?
Just short of the fire support coordinate line
43
What does irregular warfare favor?
Indirect and asymmetric approaches
44
Who is subordinate to the ASOC and serves as the principal Air Force liason element to the Army?
TACP
45
Who is the senior TACP member attached to a ground unit?
ALO
46
What airborne position locates, identifies, and marks ground targets for aircraft attack?
FAC-A
47
What types of radar does the AWACS have?
Pulse Doppler, beyond the horizon and maritime
48
What gives the AWACS its important capability of being able to detect targets flying lower than the E-3 without interference from radar returns from the ground?
The pulse Doppler radar
49
What AWACS system provides an improved, air-to-air and air to ground, jam-resistant UHF voice communication capability?
Have Quick
50
What does JSTARS provide?
Air and ground commanders with information on surface forces that enable situation development, targeting, attack planning, and limited post attack assessment
51
What type of radar does the JSTARS have?
The phased array antenna
52
What are the capabilities of the operational and control system?
Can predict areas screened from the radar's field of view, extrapolate moving target tracks, provide compressed time replay of radar history, and track weapons/target pairing
53
Who is responsible for collecting information about air, missile, and space activities to determine whether North America may be under military attack?
Commander of NORAD
54
NORAD is divided into how many regions?
3
55
What NORAD region is responsible for identifying and tracking all aircraft entering Canadian airspace?
Canadian Region
56
Who performs additional surveillance of the National Capital Region?
JADOC
57
Which position is responsible for monitoring assigned airspace for aircraft ensuring they are in compliance with Federal Aviation Administration procedures?
Tracking Technicians
58
Which command is responsible for homeland defense and civil support?
United States Northern Command
59
What does USNORTHCOMs civil support mission include?
Domestic disaster relief operations that occur during fires, hurricanes, floods, and earthquakes
60
What is the mission of the KTACS?
To plan, direct, and coordinate the employment of forces engaged in air operations throughout ROK
61
What is the focal point of the KTACS?
The HTACC
62
What division produces and disseminates the ATO?
Combat plans division
63
What division supervises the execution of air operation orders?
Combat operations division
64
Who within the MCRC ensures BSD are received, posted, and updated as required?
MCCT
65
Who within the MCRC synchronizes the BSC-K with the Naval Observatory?
system maintenance
66
The JFC exercises operational control of his or her forces through the
service component commanders
67
The TACS performs key BM, surveillance, identification, airspace management, and what other function?
weapons control
68
Which element of the TACS plans, directs, controls, and coordinates all air operations within its AOR?
AOC
69
Name the essential characteristics of the baseline deployable AOC:
Deployable-maintain mobility readiness
Professional
Standardized- ensures an efficient, consistent, well-defined, and clearly understood capability
Tailorable-flexible and responsive to mission needs
Interdependent
Horizontal integration- link laterally
Vertical integration- link of superior and subordinate elements
70
Who supervises and directs the operations of the AOC?
Air Operations Center Commander (AOCC)
71
Which division within the AOC produces the ATO?
Combat Plans Division
72
Which division is responsible for monitoring and executing the ATO?
Combat Operations Division
73
Which component liaison supports integration of air, space and cyberspace operations with ground maneuver?
Battlefield coordination detatchment
74
Which support team element provides timely notification of meteorological and oceanographic impacts affecting launch and recovery bases?
weather specialty
75
What positon with the AOC is responsible to the chief, combat operations division for directing and supervising offensive combat operations?
SODO
76
Within the AOC, who facilitates the resolution of dual track designation and identification conflicts that are a result of system interoperability problems or operator error?
track data coordinator
77
What function of the CRC is responsible for detecting, tracking and identifying airborne tracks?
Surveillance
78
What function of the CRC is responsible for controlling offensive and defensive counterair missions?
Weapons Control
79
What is the main sensor for the MCE is the
AN/TPS-75
80
To how many internal UHF radios does the internal radio equipment provide for C2 operations?
4
81
At the air support center, what type of operations focus on creating specific effects on multiple decisive points?
Nonlinear
82
What is the element of the TACS that assists the land commander in planning, requesting and coordinating close air support and suppression of enemy air defense missions?
TACP
83
Which radar combination cannot be used together?
maritime and beyond the horizon radars
84
The JSTARS aircraft is an
E-8
85
The JSTARS radar antenna is
electronically scanned in azimuth and mechanically positioned in elevation
86
What is used by the JSTARS to broadcast data to Army ground station modules?
SADL
87
What type of command is NORAD?
Bi-national
88
Within NORAD, which position overseas all sections of operations and reports to the director of operations?
Mission crew commander (MCC)
89
Which unit within the hardened theater air control center is responsible for execution surveillance, identification and weapons control?
Master Control and Reporting Center (MCRC)
90
What MCRC position make sure battle staff directives (BSD) are received, posted, disseminated, and updated as required?
Mission crew commander technician (MCCT)
91
What MCRC position updates the RAP by dropping duplicate, local tracks, and associating local and data link tracks?
Data system technicians (DST)
92
What are the four objectives of C4I?
- Producing unity of effort
- Exploiting total force capabilities
- Properly positioning critical information
- Information fusion
93
What C4I system objective allows for the views of many experts to be brought to bear on any given task?
Producing unity of effort
94
What is the ultimate goal of the C4I systems?
To produce real-time battle space information that is accurate and meets the needs of warfighters
95
What are the four C4I system components?
- Terminal devices
- Transmission media
- A switching system
- Control
96
Give 2 examples of terminal devices.
Telephones, radios, computer, facsimile machines and televisions
97
What do transmission media connect?
Terminal devices
98
What is switching?
The means by which traffic is routed through a network of transmission media
99
C4I system characteristic.
Modular system designs and microelectronics help achieve this
characteristic
Mobile
100
C4I system characteristic.
Achieved when information or services can be exchanged satisfactorily
between C4I systems and users.
Interoperable
101
C4I system characteristic.
This characteristic ensures continuous support is provided during any type
and length of joint operation
Substainable
102
C4I system characteristic.
| Focuses on ensuring C4I process only essential information
Disiplined
103
C4I system characteristic.
| This characteristic is achieved by dispersing key facilities
Survivable
104
C4I system characteristic.
Allows planners to more readily integrate all levels of joint and service
C4I systems
Flexible
105
C4I system characteristic.
In order to achieve this characteristic, systems must be reliable, redundant,
and timely.
Responsive
106
What is the mission of GCCS?
to support the C2 function of the president and the secretary of defense, or their deputized alternates
107
What does GCCS provide to the president and secretary of defense?
A global network of interoperable systems that provide information processing and dissemination
capability necessary to conduct C2 of forces
108
What does GCCS provide combatant commanders?
One predominant source for generating, receiving, sharing, and using information securely
109
What connects all GCCS sites together?
DISN
110
What can enable top secret GCCS information to pass over a Secret network?
A NES in between the nodes creates VPN that allows TS information to run over a Secret network
111
What does the JFACC and his or her staff use TBMCS for?
To plan, disseminate, and execute contingency plans in a theater of operations during employment of airborne
assets in peacetime, exercise, and wartime environment
112
What four basic roles require TBMCS for interoperability between the services?
Aerospace control, force application, force enhancement and force support
113
What are the three packages in which TBMCS can be deployed?
Quick response package, Limited response package, Theater response package
114
What TBMCS application creates the ATO?
Theater air planning (TAP)
115
How will alert messages be displayed?
As either flash, immediate, priority or routine
116
What level provides the wing and base commanders and their battle staffs with timely and
accurate information for effective decision making?
TBMCS unit level
117
Where is the ADSI’s recognized air picture forwarded to at the GCCS?
The COP
118
How many TDL tracks can the ADSI forward?
4,000
119
What are the three computers that make up the ADSI?
MLIU, MDB and TSD
Tactical Situation Display (TSD)
Master Database (MDB)
120
How many separate links can the router perform?
16
121
How many TSDWs can be connected to each ADSI?
50
122
The design of the tactical display framework systems is based on what?
Demanding applications such as direct air support, surveillance, strike, C2, and air traffic management
123
Which systems serve as the Air Force’s Homeland Defense battle management?
BCS-F
124
What does a typical BCS-F OWS include?
Situation display. status display and communication panel
125
What color is the normal background of the situation display?
Black
126
What does the BCS-K consist of?
Two computer monitors and a touch screen communications panel
127
The BC3 performs what battle management functions?
Surveillance, early warning, combat identification weapons control, airspace management, theater missile
defense and all sources sensor data link fusion.
128
Who does the JRE provide Link–16 connectivity between networks and C2 platforms?
JICO
129
What type of client computers can the JRE run simultaneously on?
Any workstation or laptop using Windows, MAC-OS, LINUX, or UNIX
130
What networks are used for platforms connecting via long-haul communications?
Satellite and terrestrial communications systems
131
Who is connected via the GMG?
the ASOC and the JTAC
132
Where is the GMG housed?
HMMMWV
133
What picture does the air defense systems integrator (ADSI) create?
Recognized air picture (RAP)
134
The Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F) processes, integrates, displays, and distributes
data from radars, data links, and other command and control agencies to maintain situational
awareness and support
air interdiction (AI) operations
135
Which unit uses the Battle Control System-Korea (BCS-K) to control all United States air
assets over Korea?
Master Control and Reporting Center (MCRC)
136
Which command is responsible for developing the Battle Control Center-CENTAF (BC3)
system?
Air Combat Command (ACC)
137
For platforms connecting by long-haul communication networks the joint range extension
provides
inter-zone, intra-zone, reach back, and reach forward Link 16 ablilities
138
Which unit uses the ground mobile gateway system to process information from multiple
tactical data links?
ASOC
139
Who is responsible for coordinating air support and providing airspace de-confliction for
tasked aircraft using the ground mobile gateway (GMG) system?
Fighter duty technicians (FDT)
140
When do OCA operations begin to take priority?
When friendly forces initiate hostilities or when defensive counterair operations are successful and the enemy's air attack is nullified
141
How is air superiority achieved?
Friendly forces want to seek out enemy air forces and their support and destroy them
142
Why are defensives measures designed in DCA operations?
To detect, identify, intercept, and destroy or negate enemy forces attempting to penetrate or attack through friendly airspace
143
What is active defense?
The employment of limited offensive action and counterattacks to deny a contested area or position to the enemy
144
What are the primary weapons for DCA operations?
Fighter aircraft, surface-to-air missiles, and air defense artillery
145
How is it possible to generate an air picture showing friendly and hostile aircraft at a range of hundreds of miles?
By mounting powerful radars in aircraft and flying them to high altitude
146
What is dominance of a nation's airspace crucially dependent on?
Timely and accurate information of all air activity that might pose a threat
147
Who controls all PR assets in a combat theater?
AOC
148
Which cell within the AOC initiates and monitors PR planning?
PRCC
149
What personnel make up the recovery teams?
Combat rescue officers, Para rescue personnel, and survival evasion, resistance, escape specialist
150
What is the primary role of the fixed-wing aircraft?
To extend the operational range of PR helicopters
151
Who is the airborne communication and data relay between rescue forces and command elements?
Airborne mission coordinator
152
What are the typical targets for air interdiction?
Lines of communication, supply centers, C2 nodes, or fielded forces.
153
What targets tend to be a less-efficient use of air power?
Direct attack of fielded forces, one vehicle or artillery battery at a time
154
Why are strike aircraft tasked for SEAD operations employed?
To seek out and destroy ground-based electromagnetic emitters
155
What aircraft have been designed or modified to increase their effectiveness against enemy air defenses and are typically thought of as SEAD assets?
The F-15 and F-16
156
What means temporarily deny, degrade, deceive, delay or neutralize enemy air defense systems to increase aircraft survivability?
Disruptive means
157
When targets are flown in the close proximity of friendly what is required in the delivery of weapons?
Precision
158
Who determines which targets to attack for aircraft assigned to CAS operations?
The ground commander
159
What missions are responsible for providing national and theater command authorities with timely, reliable, high-quality, high-altitude intelligence information?
Reconnaissance
160
Which RECCE mission has a primary purpose of locating and attacking targets of opportunity?
Armed RECCE
161
What type of missions is conducted for detection, locating, identifying, and evaluating foreign electromagnetic radiation?
Electronic RECCE
162
What does Air Force doctrine state is normally one of the first and most important US military goals in a conflict?
Air superiority
163
What is the standard armament load for the F-22 in its air to air role?
6 AIM-120 AMRAAMs and 2 AIM-9 Sidewinders
164
What is the F-15's mission?
To gain and maintain air superiority in aerial combat
165
Why is the seat back angle expanded on the F-16?
For pilot comfort and gravity force tolerance
166
For what purpose was the A-10 designed?
CAS of ground forces
167
What unique strengths of bombers are cornerstones of America's airpower and force projection?
Payload, range, and responsiveness coupled with precision attack
168
What B-1B features combine to provide greater range and high speed with enhanced survivability?
Blended wing/body configuration, along with variable geometry design and turbofan engines
169
What makes the B-1B a key element of any joint/composite strike force?
Speed, superior handling characteristics, and large payload
170
What is the altitude limit of the B-52?
50,000 feet
171
What is the unrefueled range of the B-52?
In excess of 8,800 miles
172
What do ISR aircraft provide?
Clear, brief, relevant and timely analysis on foreign capabilities and intentions for planning and conducting military operations
173
What is the Navy's all-weather, carrier based, tactical warning and control system aircraft?
E-2C Hawkeye
174
How long can an E-3 Sentry fly a mission profile without refueling?
Approximately 8 hrs
175
What does the RC-135 provide at the theater and national level?
On-scene intelligence collection, analysis, and dissemination capabilities
176
How does JSTARS pass ground force information to the Army's common ground stations?
surveillance and control datalink
177
What are remotely piloted aircraft?
A small aircraft that are remotely controlled from the ground or fly autonomously based on preprogrammed flight plans or more complex dynamic automation systems
178
What RPA is configured to carry two AGM-114 Hellfire missiles?
Predator
179
What makes up a fully operational Predator system?
FOUR SENSOR/WEAPON EQUIPPED AIRCRAFT, a ground control station, a Predator primary satellite link, and spare equipment along with operations and maintenance crews for deployed 24 hr operations
180
What is the mission of Global Hawk?
To provide a broad spectrum of ISR collection capability to support joint combatant forces in worldwide peacetime, contingency and wartime operations
181
What is the range of a RQ-4A?
8,700 nautical miles
182
What is the minimum runway length for a C-17?
3,500 feet
183
What roles does the C-130 perform?
Airlift support, Antarctic ice resupply, aeromedical missions, weather reconnaissance, aerial spray missions, fire-fighting duties, and natural disaster relief missions
184
What is the primary and secondary mission of the KC-10A?
Aerial refueling
185
What is the KC-135's primary fuel transfer method?
Boom
186
What is not a primary weapon for DCA operations?
Bomber aircraft
187
What aircraft have proved the key to successful defensive and offensive air operations in numerous conflicts?
Airborne early warning aircraft
188
Who collects real-time intelligence information on systems posing threats to the personnel recovery missions?
Personnel recovery coordination cell
189
Which aircraft provides navigation assistance, route sanitization, and armed escort for the recovery vehicle during personnel recovery operations?
Rescue escort aircraft
190
Who is responsible for initiating rescue efforts in the objective area until rescue forces
arrive?
On scene commander
191
What type of mission is a form of aerial maneuver that destroys, disrupts, diverts, or delays
the enemy’s surface military potential before it can be used effectively against friendly forces?
Air interdiction (AI)
192
Which type of target is less-efficient use of air power during air interdiction (AI) missions?
Artillery battery
193
In what type of mission are strike aircraft employed to seek out and destroy ground-based
electromagnetic emitters?
SEAD
194
Which mission is conducted against enemy forces in close proximity to friendly forces?
CAS
195
Which is not considered a reconnaissance mission?
Combat
196
Which aircraft have variable-geometry wings?
B-1B Lancer
197
Which is not a mission of the C–130?
Aerial bombing
