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Trauma > CCP > Flashcards

CCP Flashcards

1
Q

Can you modify casualty collection point?

A

Yes

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2
Q

How many levels of care?

A

5 echelons

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3
Q

What is role/echelon 1?

A

First responder/ Basic field care

Combat life savers

First medical care military personnel receive. Includes immediate life saving measures, disease and non-battle injury prevention and care, combat and operational stress control (COSC), patient location and acquisition

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4
Q

Examples of role 1?

A

1) Battalion Aid Station:
a) Two Medical Officers
b) 1 IDC, 1 PMT, and 65 HMs
2) Cruisers, Destroyers, and below

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5
Q

What is role/echelon 2?

A

CRTS - Casualty receiving treatment ship

Initial resuscitative care is the primary objective of care at this level. Saving life, limb, and when necessary stabilization for evacuation to level 3

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6
Q

How many mass casualty patients can role 2 receive up to?

A

50 patients

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7
Q

Role 2 examples at sea?

A
  • LHD, LHA, CVN
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8
Q

What is a CRTS?

A

Casualty receiving treatment ship

ROLE 2

*** LHD, LHA, CVN

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9
Q

What is the largest casualty receiving ship/medical capability at sea?

A

LHD

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10
Q

Role 2 examples on ground?

A
  • Med Battalion
  • Shock trauma platoon
  • Forward resuscitative surgical ship
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11
Q

Who provides surgical care to the MEF?

A

***Med battalion

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12
Q

Does Shock trauma platoon have surgical capabilities?

A

** NO

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13
Q

Level/Echelon 3?

A

*** Highest level in combat zone

Advanced resuscitative care is the primary objective of care.

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14
Q

Level 3 examples?

A
  • Fleet hospitals

* Hospital ships

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15
Q

Level/Echelon 4?

A

OCONUS Hospitals

Definitive medical care

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16
Q

Level/Echelon 5?

A

CONUS Hospitals

Restorative and rehabilitative care

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17
Q

What is a MEDEVAC?

A

care provided by medical personnel to the wounded being evacuated from the battlefield to the military treatment facility (MTF)

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18
Q

What is CASEVAC?

A

Casualties transported under these circumstances may not receive en route medical care

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19
Q

What is aeromedical evac?

A

USAF fixed-winged aircraft to move sick or injured personnel within the theater or operations

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20
Q

En route care?

A

maintenance of treatment initiated prior to evacuation and sustainment of the patient’s medical condition during evacuation

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21
Q

Standard litter?

A

most widely used in theater.

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22
Q

Stokes litter?

A

Most commonly used litter onboard ships

ropes, cables or steel rings that can be attached

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23
Q

Which way is patient transported with lower extremity fracture when going downhill?

A

Head first

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24
Q

M997

A

armor protection

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25
Q

M1035 Ambulance

A

removable soft top

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26
Q

UH 60 A Blackhawk

A

on-board oxygen generation, and a medical suction system

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27
Q

SH-60B Seahawk

A

Ok

28
Q

CH-53 D/E Sea Stallion

A

Medium/Heavy lift

29
Q

CH-1 Huey:

A

Light transport helicopter

30
Q

MV-22 Osprey

A

ok

31
Q

CH-46 Sea Knight

A

Medium lift helicopter used to transport personnel and cargo

32
Q

Any patient with a pneumothorax regardless of size should have what before any flight?

A

chest tube before any flight

33
Q

Due to decreased barometric pressure, the volume of a gas bubble in liquid doubles at 18,000 feet above sea level

A

Ok

34
Q

What do most aircraft pressurize cabin to?

A

8,000 and 10,000 feet

35
Q

What conditions should be considered for cabin altitude restrictions?

A

(a) Penetrating eye injuries with intraocular air.
(b) Free air in any body cavity.
(c) Severe pulmonary disease.
(d) Decompression sickness and arterial gas embolism

36
Q

What is “Urgent” MEDEVAC?

A

Casualty must be evacuated within 2 hours in order to save life, limb or eye sight

37
Q

What is “Priority” MEDEVAC?

A

Casualty must be evacuated within 4 hours or condition could worsen

38
Q

What is “Routine” for MEDEVAC?

A

Casualty must be evacuated within 24 hours for further care

39
Q

Examples of “Urgent”

A

1) Cardiorespiratory distress
2) Uncontrolled hemorrhage
3) Shock not responding to IV therapy
4) Head injuries with signs of increased ICP
5) Extremities with neurovascular compromise

40
Q

Examples of “Priority”?

A

1) Flail chest segments without respiratory compromise
2) Open fractures
3) Spinal injuries
4) Major burns

41
Q

Examples of “Routine”?

A

1) Minor to moderate burns
2) Simple, closed fractures
3) Minor open wounds
4) Terminal Casualties

42
Q

What lines are required to start bird movement?

A

first 4

43
Q

What is in a 9 line?

A

(1) Location of pick up site (Grid coordinates).
(2) Frequency/Call sign of pick up site.
(3) Number of patients by precedence:
(a) A- Urgent
(b) C- Priority
(c) D- Routine
(4) Special equipment needed:
(a) A- None
(b) B- Hoist
(c) C- Extraction equipment
(d) D- Ventilator
(5) Number of patients by type
(a) L - # of litter
(b) A- # of ambulatory
(6) Security of pickup site:
(a) N - No enemy
(b) P - Possible enemy
(c) E - Enemy in area
(d) X - Armed escort required
(7) Method of marking pickup site:
(a) A - Panels
(b) B - Pyrotechnics
(c) C - Smoke
(d) D - None
(e) E – Other
(8) Patient nationality and status:
(a) A - US Military
(b) B - US Civilian
(c) C - Non US Military
(d) D - Non U
(e) S Civilian
(f) E – EPW
(9) NBC Contamination:
(a) N- Nuclear
(b) B- Biological
(c) C- Chemical

44
Q

What is in the MIST report?

A

M - Mechanism of injury
I - Injuries sustained
S - signs/symptoms
T - treatments

45
Q

What injuries are not involved in kinematics?

A

Thermal and radiation

46
Q

Newtwon;s first law?

A

Every object will remain at rest unless…

47
Q

Newton’s second law?

A

F = M*A

48
Q

Forms of energy?

A

(a) Mechanical
(b) Thermal
(c) Electrical
(d) Chemical

49
Q

Who proposed that the kinetic energy possessed by the bullet was dissipated in four ways:(a) Heat

(b) Energy used to move tissue radically outward
(c) Energy used to form a primary path by direct crush of the tissue
(d) . Energy expended in deforming projectile

A

Theodore Kocher

50
Q

What is deformation of a projectile?

A

a mushrooming of the projectile that increases the diameter of the projectile, usually by a factor of 2

51
Q

What is fragmentation?

A

multiple projectiles can weaken the tissue in multiple places

** Occurs with high velocity missiles

52
Q

What is non-fragmenting bullets?

A

deeper penetration, whereas a fragmented projectile will not penetrate as deeply, but will affect a larger cross-sectional area

53
Q

What is low energy projectile?

A

(a) Knives, needles, ice picks (hand-driven weapons)

1) Tissue damage by crushing is minimal

54
Q

What is medium energy projectile?

A

Firearms with muzzle velocity of less than 1,500 feet second (9mm, .45)

55
Q

What is high energy projectile?

A

Firearms with muzzle velocity of more than 1500 feet per second. (.44 magnum, .50)

(b) Injury track of high-powered weapons are at least 2-3 times the diameter of the projectile

56
Q

Tissue crush is what?

A

Straight or tilted

57
Q

What tissue handles projectiles better?

A

(a) Elastic tissue (bowel and lung) tolerate damage better than non-elastic organs (heart, liver, kidney and brain.)

58
Q

Close range =

A

7 yards or less

59
Q

Direct contact =

A

the most devastation

60
Q

The two signs, which remain absolute indications for laparotomy

A

peritonitis and hemodynamic instability following penetrating or blunt abdominal trauma

61
Q

chest injuries are responsible for how many trauma deaths?

A

20-25%

62
Q

How are gunshot wounds to the abdomen typically treated?

A

laparotomy

63
Q

As an IDC, your focus should be on early identification and location of penetrating trauma, stabilization of the patient and MEDEVAC/CASEVAC to a higher echelon of care as soon as the patient(s) can tolerate the transfer.

A

ok

64
Q

Primary blast?

A

Effects of Overpressure and Underpressure from a blast wave-is distinctly uncommon in surviving casualties except in the form of perforated tympanic membranes.

65
Q

Secondary blast?

A

Flying Debris/fragments, missiles in conjunction with the “blast wind”
(i.e., the mass of air displaced by the explosion) are responsible for the gross mutilation that is characteristic of such injuries.

66
Q

Tertiary Blast?

A

Body Displacement

67
Q

Quartenary Blast?

A

Burns

Trauma (18 decks)

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