Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Trauma > CCP > Flashcards

CCP Flashcards

1
Q

Can you modify casualty collection point?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How many levels of care?

A

5 echelons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is role/echelon 1?

A

First responder/ Basic field care

Combat life savers

First medical care military personnel receive. Includes immediate life saving measures, disease and non-battle injury prevention and care, combat and operational stress control (COSC), patient location and acquisition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Examples of role 1?

A

1) Battalion Aid Station:
a) Two Medical Officers
b) 1 IDC, 1 PMT, and 65 HMs
2) Cruisers, Destroyers, and below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is role/echelon 2?

A

CRTS - Casualty receiving treatment ship

Initial resuscitative care is the primary objective of care at this level. Saving life, limb, and when necessary stabilization for evacuation to level 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many mass casualty patients can role 2 receive up to?

A

50 patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Role 2 examples at sea?

A
  • LHD, LHA, CVN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a CRTS?

A

Casualty receiving treatment ship

ROLE 2

*** LHD, LHA, CVN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the largest casualty receiving ship/medical capability at sea?

A

LHD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Role 2 examples on ground?

A
  • Med Battalion
  • Shock trauma platoon
  • Forward resuscitative surgical ship
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who provides surgical care to the MEF?

A

***Med battalion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Does Shock trauma platoon have surgical capabilities?

A

** NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Level/Echelon 3?

A

*** Highest level in combat zone

Advanced resuscitative care is the primary objective of care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Level 3 examples?

A
  • Fleet hospitals

* Hospital ships

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Level/Echelon 4?

A

OCONUS Hospitals

Definitive medical care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Level/Echelon 5?

A

CONUS Hospitals

Restorative and rehabilitative care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a MEDEVAC?

A

care provided by medical personnel to the wounded being evacuated from the battlefield to the military treatment facility (MTF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is CASEVAC?

A

Casualties transported under these circumstances may not receive en route medical care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is aeromedical evac?

A

USAF fixed-winged aircraft to move sick or injured personnel within the theater or operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

En route care?

A

maintenance of treatment initiated prior to evacuation and sustainment of the patient’s medical condition during evacuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Standard litter?

A

most widely used in theater.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Stokes litter?

A

Most commonly used litter onboard ships

ropes, cables or steel rings that can be attached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which way is patient transported with lower extremity fracture when going downhill?

A

Head first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

M997

A

armor protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
M1035 Ambulance
removable soft top
26
UH 60 A Blackhawk
on-board oxygen generation, and a medical suction system
27
SH-60B Seahawk
Ok
28
CH-53 D/E Sea Stallion
Medium/Heavy lift
29
CH-1 Huey:
Light transport helicopter
30
MV-22 Osprey
ok
31
CH-46 Sea Knight
Medium lift helicopter used to transport personnel and cargo
32
Any patient with a pneumothorax regardless of size should have what before any flight?
chest tube before any flight
33
Due to decreased barometric pressure, the volume of a gas bubble in liquid doubles at 18,000 feet above sea level
Ok
34
What do most aircraft pressurize cabin to?
8,000 and 10,000 feet
35
What conditions should be considered for cabin altitude restrictions?
(a) Penetrating eye injuries with intraocular air. (b) Free air in any body cavity. (c) Severe pulmonary disease. (d) Decompression sickness and arterial gas embolism
36
What is "Urgent" MEDEVAC?
Casualty must be evacuated within 2 hours in order to save life, limb or eye sight
37
What is "Priority" MEDEVAC?
Casualty must be evacuated within 4 hours or condition could worsen
38
What is "Routine" for MEDEVAC?
Casualty must be evacuated within 24 hours for further care
39
Examples of "Urgent"
1) Cardiorespiratory distress 2) Uncontrolled hemorrhage 3) Shock not responding to IV therapy 4) Head injuries with signs of increased ICP 5) Extremities with neurovascular compromise
40
Examples of "Priority"?
1) Flail chest segments without respiratory compromise 2) Open fractures 3) Spinal injuries 4) Major burns
41
Examples of "Routine"?
1) Minor to moderate burns 2) Simple, closed fractures 3) Minor open wounds 4) Terminal Casualties
42
What lines are required to start bird movement?
first 4
43
What is in a 9 line?
(1) Location of pick up site (Grid coordinates). (2) Frequency/Call sign of pick up site. (3) Number of patients by precedence: (a) A- Urgent (b) C- Priority (c) D- Routine (4) Special equipment needed: (a) A- None (b) B- Hoist (c) C- Extraction equipment (d) D- Ventilator (5) Number of patients by type (a) L - # of litter (b) A- # of ambulatory (6) Security of pickup site: (a) N - No enemy (b) P - Possible enemy (c) E - Enemy in area (d) X - Armed escort required (7) Method of marking pickup site: (a) A - Panels (b) B - Pyrotechnics (c) C - Smoke (d) D - None (e) E – Other (8) Patient nationality and status: (a) A - US Military (b) B - US Civilian (c) C - Non US Military (d) D - Non U (e) S Civilian (f) E – EPW (9) NBC Contamination: (a) N- Nuclear (b) B- Biological (c) C- Chemical
44
What is in the MIST report?
M - Mechanism of injury I - Injuries sustained S - signs/symptoms T - treatments
45
What injuries are not involved in kinematics?
Thermal and radiation
46
Newtwon;s first law?
Every object will remain at rest unless...
47
Newton's second law?
F = M*A
48
Forms of energy?
(a) Mechanical (b) Thermal (c) Electrical (d) Chemical
49
Who proposed that the kinetic energy possessed by the bullet was dissipated in four ways:(a) Heat (b) Energy used to move tissue radically outward (c) Energy used to form a primary path by direct crush of the tissue (d) . Energy expended in deforming projectile
Theodore Kocher
50
What is deformation of a projectile?
a mushrooming of the projectile that increases the diameter of the projectile, usually by a factor of 2
51
What is fragmentation?
multiple projectiles can weaken the tissue in multiple places ** Occurs with high velocity missiles
52
What is non-fragmenting bullets?
deeper penetration, whereas a fragmented projectile will not penetrate as deeply, but will affect a larger cross-sectional area
53
What is low energy projectile?
(a) Knives, needles, ice picks (hand-driven weapons) | 1) Tissue damage by crushing is minimal
54
What is medium energy projectile?
Firearms with muzzle velocity of less than 1,500 feet second (9mm, .45)
55
What is high energy projectile?
Firearms with muzzle velocity of more than 1500 feet per second. (.44 magnum, .50) (b) Injury track of high-powered weapons are at least 2-3 times the diameter of the projectile
56
Tissue crush is what?
Straight or tilted
57
What tissue handles projectiles better?
(a) Elastic tissue (bowel and lung) tolerate damage better than non-elastic organs (heart, liver, kidney and brain.)
58
Close range =
7 yards or less
59
Direct contact =
the most devastation
60
The two signs, which remain absolute indications for laparotomy
peritonitis and hemodynamic instability following penetrating or blunt abdominal trauma
61
chest injuries are responsible for how many trauma deaths?
20-25%
62
How are gunshot wounds to the abdomen typically treated?
laparotomy
63
As an IDC, your focus should be on early identification and location of penetrating trauma, stabilization of the patient and MEDEVAC/CASEVAC to a higher echelon of care as soon as the patient(s) can tolerate the transfer.
ok
64
Primary blast?
Effects of Overpressure and Underpressure from a blast wave-is distinctly uncommon in surviving casualties except in the form of perforated tympanic membranes.
65
Secondary blast?
Flying Debris/fragments, missiles in conjunction with the “blast wind” (i.e., the mass of air displaced by the explosion) are responsible for the gross mutilation that is characteristic of such injuries.
66
Tertiary Blast?
Body Displacement
67
Quartenary Blast?
Burns

Trauma (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions