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A220-300 > CBT Exam Revision Questions > Flashcards

CBT Exam Revision Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Flight Guidance (FG) and Auto throttle (AT) software are hosted by

A

AFCS Automatic Flight Control System in the Data Concentrator Unit (DCU) Module Cabinet

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2
Q

What activates the windshear escape guidance mode

A

Pushing the TOGA buttons

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3
Q

Pressing the PUSH FINE on the Altitude knob while turning allows:

A

The altitude is adjusted in increments of 100’.

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4
Q

What is the purpose of the right section on the Flight Control Panel (FCP)?

A

Vertical Modes VS, FPA also the Flight director switch

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5
Q

Where is the flight mode annunciator (FMA) located?

A

At the top of the PFD.

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6
Q

When will rudder pedal movements disengage the autopilot?

A

The Tiller or Rudder Pedals are moved more the 0.8 inches during Autoland ground roll.

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7
Q

During Autoland ILS approach, which of the following occurs when the main landing gear
touch down?

A

ROLLOUT mode starts 2 seconds after Weight On Wheels

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8
Q

ILS CAT IIIA approaches may be conducted with

A

Either fail passive or fail operational systems

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9
Q

What information displays on the flight mode annunciator (FMA)?

A

Autothrottle mode/Lateral Mode/AP,AT and data sourse/Vertical Mode/Alternate source
selection

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10
Q

What are the vertical guidance modes?

A

.FPA, VS, ALTS, ALT, FLC, TO, GA, APR

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11
Q

The autopilot can be engaged when the AP pushbutton is pressed and _________.

A

Side stick neutral, bank within +|- 45, roll rate <15\sec, pitch change<10*\sec, load factor
within limits.

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12
Q

What displays on the approach status annunciator (ASA) when the required onboard
equipment and the localizer signal quality meets the ILS CAT II approach criteria?

A

APPR 2

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13
Q

APU Fault messages would be displayed on:

A

EICAS + Status Synoptic

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14
Q

When starting the APU, for how long should the APU switch be held in the start position?

A

At least 3 seconds

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15
Q

Where do APU oil quantity, pressure, and temperature values display?

A

STATUS Page

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16
Q

During APU start from a cold ship (no external power available)

A

Requires both batteries for starting + fuel is suction fed.

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17
Q

The APU is limited to ______start attempts within____hour, and ____minutes between
each start. The ECU prevents restart until RPM decreases to less than____%

A

3 starts, 1 hour, 2minutes, 7%

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18
Q

When the APU is switched off, the ECU will start a cool down period of:

A

60 Seconds

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19
Q

What APU information will be displayed on the Status page:

A

RPM, EGT, Door Status, Oil Temp, Oil pressure, Oil Quantity

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20
Q

When the aircraft is on the ground or in flight and a critical ECU fault occurs, the APU will

A

Shutdown

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21
Q

The APU controls are found in the following places:

A

On the overhead panel, External Service Panel and an APU shutoff in the APU compartment

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22
Q

When AC power is powering the aircraft electrical system, the ECU use the flowing source of
power to start the APU

A

TRU 3 when external AC power is available.

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23
Q

What happens when the APU rotary switch is positioned to OFF

A

The APU shuts down after a 60 second cooldown period.

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24
Q

What controls the APU inlet door position?

A

The ECU

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25
Q

What is the effect on APU operation, when an overspeed condition is detected by the
electronic control unit (ECU)?

A

APU is shutdown

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26
Q

When does the electronic control unit (ECU) for the APU initiate an automatic shutdown in flight?

A

RPM Overspeed/signal loss, Critical ECU fault or Loss of ARINC inputs to ECU. + Failed Start.

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27
Q

To access the Control Tuning Panel (CTP) second Top level page:

A

The TUNE/MENU switch is pushed and then one of the LSK. (4L, labelled “next page

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28
Q

There are a total of____ Push-To-Talk switches in the flight deck

A

11

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29
Q

How are radios controlled and tuned?

A

CTP’s, CNS page on MFW, or Graphical. (FMS - AVIO - CTP tab if CTP inoperative)

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30
Q

In order to connect the microphone to the passenger address system, the ACP PA transmit button must be:

A

Pressed and held during during the entire communication.

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31
Q

What happens when the 1/2 function key on the control tuning panel (CTP) is pressed once?

A

The cross side radio legends are displayed in Amber.

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32
Q

Radio control and tuning is accomplished using

A

Display & Graphical Tuning

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33
Q

What happens when the MECH CALL pushbutton is pressed

A

Horn in nose gear service area

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34
Q

What happens when a new datalink message is received?

A

When a DLK communication is received, initially the DLK communication flag flashes for 5 seconds and then becomes steady. A tone is also heard in the flight compartment.

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35
Q

Which air traffic service (ATS) functions display o the ATS MENU page

A

Departure & oceanic clearances.

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36
Q

What transmission system is used by the data link communication system?

A

VHF Data link (VDL) and SATCOM

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37
Q

When the aircraft flies into regions without VHF coverage, such as over an ocean, how is data link communication established

A

Data link com is auto switched to Satcom system.

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38
Q

Which of the following services does the A220 SATCOM currently use?

A

Data

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39
Q

What happens after 30 seconds of continuous VHF radio transmission?

A

Open Mike protection.

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40
Q

On the control tuning panel (CTP), how is the VHF CONTROL page accessed?

A

Top level tuning page - associated LSK pushed twice.

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41
Q

What indicates an incoming priority cabin call?

A

CABIN (amber) on EICAS page, Associated tone, Cabin Call on Cabin Transmitt switch flashes.

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42
Q

Which action should be taken to initiate an emergency cabin call

A

Press and hold cab call button for 3 seconds.

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43
Q

What is the function of the data link communication

A

Provides 2 way comms between aircraft and ACARS network

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44
Q

What symbol next to SAT in the TEST column on the LINK STATUS page, indicates that a
TEST can be performed on the SATCOM system?

A

*

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45
Q

The cockpit door EMER ACCESS DENY switch when selected

A

Illumination of DENY switch goes out and door remains locked.

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46
Q

Which aircraft doors are located in the lower fuselage?

A

Equipment Bay Doors

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47
Q

If a white FWD PAX is displayed on the DOOR synoptic page, what is the status of the engine
and doors?

A

Door open on ground, engine not running

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48
Q

Where does the slide status of the passenger and service doors display?

A

Status -Door synoptic, EICAS, cabin management system (CMS).

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49
Q

When emergency access to the flight deck is requested, which visual signal is triggered and
illuminates red in the flight compartment?

A

EMERG ACCESS switch/light DENY on the COCKPIT DOOR panel.

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50
Q

Which tile on the electronic checklist displays a drop-down list that allows a checklist to be
reset or overridden?

A

Function ( FCTN).

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51
Q

May the pilot and copilot select different checklists on their MFW’s?

A

YES

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52
Q

What does the message CHECKLIST NOT AVAILABLE indicate on an MFW

A

Data based errors are detected .

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53
Q

When a limitation checklist item has been selected, the limitation displays on the SUMMARY
page as follows:

A

In white at the lower section of the Summary Page.

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54
Q

Which Item on the function (FCTN) drop-down list overrides a checklist

A

Override CHKL

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55
Q

Which page of the electronic checklist displays all normal checklists for all phases of flight?

A

Normal

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56
Q

Primary power for the Generator Control unit (GCU) is the:

A

Permanent Magnet Generator (PMG)

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57
Q

The APU generator is rated to 75 KVA for continuous operation up to?

A

36,500ft

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58
Q

Which busses are always powered:

A

BATT DIR 1 and 2, DC EMER

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59
Q

Does the aircraft electrical system permit both EXT AC and APU power at the same time

A

Yes - (FCOM 1 07-06-9)

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60
Q

When external power is suitable in terms of frequency, voltage, and phase, which advisory
message displays on the EICAS?

A

EXT POWER AVAIL

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61
Q

The RAT generator, when deployed and operating, supplies the AC ESS BUS

A

True

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62
Q

When would the guarded CABIN PWR switch be used?

A

To Isolate sources of smoke in cabin such as galleys, IFE.

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63
Q

On the ground, if only batteries supply the power for more than 5 minutes what will occur?

A

BATT DISCHARGE caution on EICAS and a horn sounds.

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64
Q

When AC power is supplied by the RAT only, the message that follow will be displayed on the
EICAS pages:

A

RAT DPLY, EMERG PWR ONLY, RAT GEN ON.

Note: RAT DPLY will only show with the recovery of a VFG

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65
Q

What is the purpose of the two permanent magnet alternator generators (PMAGs}?

A

To supply power to the two Fly by wire power converters for the fly by wire components

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66
Q

The engine variable frequency generators (VFGs) are rated at

A

75kVA Continuous

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67
Q

On the CB synoptic page, selecting the TRIP acknowledgment soft key:

A

Confirms breaker tripped state and changes state to OUT

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68
Q

With no AC power available, what occurs when BATT 1 and BATT 2 switches are selected to
AUTO on the ELECTRICAL panel

A

All three DC ESS BUSSES are powered.

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69
Q

What do the APU GEN FAIL lights indicate?

A

Fail illuminates amber when the APU generator disconnects from the aircraft electrical system
due to fault

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70
Q

When operating on emergency power or battery power only, which of the following are
available?

A

DC ESS 1, 2 and 3

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71
Q

What are the alternate Air Data Sources for the Captain’s PFD

A

ADSP 4 - ADSP 2 - ADSP 3

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72
Q

What happens to the PFD on DU 1 when DU 1 fails?

A

It moves inboard to DU2 in half screen with mini map below

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73
Q

During takeoff, what does the Pitch Target Marker (PTM) on the PFD represent?

A

Required pitch attitude for TO.

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74
Q

What is default position of the EICAS page display

A

Right half of DU 2

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75
Q

The CTP has the Quick Access Keys (QAKs) that follow:

A

MAP FMS CNS CHKL SYN DATA

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76
Q

What are the alternate controls to move the cursors

A

Arrow keys on MKP

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77
Q

Under which conditions does the ROL miscompare message display?

A

Difference of >4 degrees roll/bank between PFDs

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78
Q

Which type of EICAS messages are inhibited during takeoff and landing

A

Most Caution and all advisory messages

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79
Q

Which of the following information displays on the EICAS?

A

Crew alerting messages, cabin air info and communications info FCOM1 08-05-24

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80
Q

Which components are used in the air data system?

A

4x ADSP, 2x TAT, 2x AOA vanes

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81
Q

If four DUs are inoperative, the remaining DU displays the MFW and EICAS. True or False

A

False. Will display half-PFD with minimap and EICAS

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82
Q

Which indicator provides yaw indication

A

Slip/skid indicator or the Beta Index during Single Engine Operation

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83
Q

A non ETOPS cargo compartment fire suppression is provided by:

A

LRD bottle slowly discharges to suppress fires for a minimum of 60mins (180mins ETOPS)

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84
Q

The main landing gear is equipped with which type of fire or overheat detection equipment

A

Dual overheat detection loops mounted inside the top of each main landing gear wheel well.

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85
Q

The lavatory is equipped with a ceiling mounted smoke detector and:

A

A waste bin fire extinguisher.

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86
Q

An amber bar illuminates on the respective BTL switch/light to indicate bottle pressure is
abnormally low, or a squib failure is detected

A

True

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87
Q

If a fire loop fails, the second loop continues to provide fire detection

A

TRUE. A FIRE SYSTEM FAULT advisory message is also displayed on the EICAS.

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88
Q

The Sidestick priority is assumed, when the sidestick AP/PTY is

A

Momentary priority is activated when the AP/PTY switch is pressed. Full authority when the
switch is pressed and held

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89
Q

In the fly-by-wire (FBW) system, which component positions the control surfaces through
hydraulic actuators?

A

The REU’s transmit commands from the PFCC’s to the hydraulic power control units PCU’s

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90
Q

The Fly-By-Wire (FBW) Trim Speed bug is displayed as______ when the
autopilot is_____

A

Hollow Triangle, Dis-engaged

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91
Q

The Alternate Flight Control Unit (AFCU) direct mode in the FBW system is automatically selected. TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE Due to failure of multiple REU’s.

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92
Q

What does the Normal mode sidestick soft limit (“soft stop”) provide?

A

A Tactile cue at the edge of the operational envelope.

93
Q

What is aileron lift augmentation?

A

Ailerons deploy symmetrically, Trailing edge down for lift augmentation. They deploy from 0 to
10 degrees as the flaps deploy

94
Q

What happens when the sidesticks are moved simultaneously in the same or opposite?

A

The system adds the signals of both algebraically. The DUAL flag is displayed on both PFD’s
and there is a DUAL INPUT aural message.

95
Q

SPOILER DPLY message is displayed when?

A

Flight spoiler deployed below 300ft or Flight spoiler deployed with either gear deployed or
flaps 4 or 5.

96
Q

Which of the following is a submode of the fly-by-wire (FBW) direct mode?

A

PFCC direct, REU direct or AFCU direct

97
Q

Which compensation is automatically provided by the fly-by-wire system following an engine failure

A

Automatic Yaw compensation. Aircraft typically yaws into the failed engine with a bank angle
of 20 deg or less and a sideslip angle of 5 deg or less.
With Autoflight engaged, it will hold heading, pilot will still be required to input rudder for co ordination

98
Q

Which indication occurs when simultaneous inputs from both sidesticks are detected?

A

The DUAL flag is displayed on both PFDs and the is a DUAL INPUT aural message

99
Q

Indication of a latched sidestick are identical to momentary priority with which of the
following two exceptions?

A

The green PTY is illuminated instead of flashing and if the the autopilot is engaged, it does not
disengage

100
Q

With regard to momentary sidestick priority, which actions occur when the sidesticks AP/
PTY pushbutton is pressed and held?

A

The sidestick has full authority, Opposite sidestick is deactivated, PTY green onside
glareshield SIDESTICK flashes, A red arrow is illuminated on the opposite SIDESTICK switch and
the autopilot disconnects

101
Q

Four multifunction spoilers (MFSs) on each wing provide

A

Roll assist, Speed braking, Ground lift dumping

102
Q

What is the purpose of slat/flap brakes

A

They lock the surfaces in their commanded positions

103
Q

Which components are part of the high lift system?

A

Four leading edge slat panels and two fowler type flaps on each wing

104
Q

The Inceptor Interface Modules (IIMs) are:

A

Three IIM’s receive data from the flight deck controls and transmit it to the PFCC’s.
The primary interface between cockpit controls and the FBW system

105
Q

Command signals from the flight deck controls are routed by the alternate flight control unit
(AFCU) directly to:

A

A single channel of the HSTAB MCE unit, and directly to the hydraulic actuators for other surfaces

106
Q

On landing, multifunction spoilers, ground spoilers, and ailerons deploy to assist in
deceleration. IN which fly-by-wire modes are ground spoilers not available?

A

AFCU Direct and REU direct

107
Q

When spoilers have been manually deployed, and a bank requiring roll assist is initiated, the fly-by-wire system:

A

Partially retracts the high wing multifunction spoilers

108
Q

Selecting the ALTN FLAP switch to DPLY drives the slats/flaps to which position?

A

Flaps 3

109
Q

How is the master FMS designated between FMS 1 and 2?

A

The FMS that supplies information to the side coupled to the flight director is
the master FMS.

110
Q

which tab of the FMS DBASE tile display the active database?

A

status

111
Q

Which two pages of DBASE/DEFAULT data can be accessed from the SELECT drop-down
list

A

FPLN/PERF, FUEL MGMT

112
Q

What is the purpose of the BLEED SOURCE drop-down List? (to find on the PERF tile / DEP
tab)

A

To select the source of bleed air for air conditioning and pressurization during takeoff

113
Q

When the noise abatement departure procedure (NADP) is selected, a data entry box is
presented for:

A

Thrust reduction (THR RED) and acceleration (ACCEL) height

114
Q

Replacing the active flight plan with the secondary flight plan is accomplished by selecting
which two soft keys?

A

ACTIVATE SEC

115
Q

Which of the soft keys display below the aircraft symbol in the compass rose (MAP page)
when a flight plan is being modified?

A

CNCL, END AND EXEC

116
Q

What does it mean when LPV ARM displays in the top left corner of the HSI?

A

The aircraft has entered the terminal area.

117
Q

When does the GNSS REVERTED message display in white on the left PFD?

A

When GNSS 1 has failed

118
Q

What are the functions of the slave FMS?

A

To maintain a real time copy of the master FMS data, to input data, and to display data

119
Q

Identify two methods of entering flight levels in FMS data entry boxes

A

Five numbers without letters or three numbers preceded by “F” or “FL”

120
Q

Identify the methods available for flight plan entry into the FMS

A

Upload by datalink, access stored route with a route identifier, manual entry of all

121
Q

Where are V1, VR, and V2 speeds entered in the flight management system?

A

PERF tile/DEP tab

122
Q

What are the profiles choices in the DEP PROFILE drop-down?

A

STANDARD, NADP

123
Q

To which description do the NADP definitions correspond

A

NADP - Close in is used when the thrust reduction altitude is lower than the acceleration
altitude.
NADP - Distant is used when the acceleration altitude is lower than the thrust reduction altitude

124
Q

The pilot wished to cross a specific waypoint at an airspeed of 230 kt, between 9,000 and
11,000 ft. How is this entered into the vertical flight plan of the LEGS page?

A

230/9000A11000B

125
Q

The MSG soft key on the bottom bar of any FMS page displays in four colour

A

Gray, black, white, amber

126
Q

When modifying an active flight plan by inserting waypoints with the cursor, the END soft
key is displayed. What is the purpose of the END soft key?

A

Removes all reroute modifications and restores the active flight plan.

127
Q

What is a characteristic of an LPV approach

A

Vertical path is angular, like a glideslope on an ILS

128
Q

What does RNP deviation on the PFD indicate

A

Flight technical error (FTE).

129
Q

How much fuel can be transferred at one time in manual?

A

227 kg from wing tank to wing tank. 454kg from wing to centre

130
Q

Which message displays on the EICAS when a main tank to main tank manual fuel transfer is
complete

A

Fuel MAN XFR Complete

131
Q

Where are surge tanks located?

A

Outboard of Wing tanks for venting

132
Q

During an auto crossfeed process, both engines receive fuel directly from the fullest tank
until fuel quantities are within

A

45kg

133
Q

Which of the following provides fuel delivery to the engine?

A

Engine driven pump motive flow

134
Q

What is fuel inerting?

A

Nitrogen enriched air pushed into the fuel tanks to provide non flammable air.

135
Q

Where does the APU receive fuel from?

A

Left main tank

136
Q

Which component regulates the flow of nitrogen-enriched air entering the fuel tank in the
fuel tank inerting system (FTIS)?

A

Inerting control unit
IASC integrated air system controllers

137
Q

Where are collector tanks located

A

Each wing tank inboard

138
Q

Identify two ways the fuel tank inerting system reduces the risk of fuel igniting in flight

A

Varies the flow of nitrogen-enriched air entering the tanks and generates nitrogen-enriched
air

139
Q

With the L and R BOOST PUMP rotary switches set to AUTO, which conditions must occur
for the AC boost pumps to start

A

Low pressure or fuel imbalance, or APU commanded to start

140
Q

What is the purpose of a surge tank?

A

To maintain air pressure in the tanks to keep pressure within the structural design limits. To
provide venting space for both mains and center tanks

141
Q

When manually transferring fuel from main tank to main tank, which of the following is
correct

A

When transfer is complete, the EICAS advisory message FUEL MAN XFR COMPLETE display

142
Q

Where are the scavenge ejector pumps located

A

Each wing tank

143
Q

If one or both main fuel ejector pumps fail:

A

Both AC boost pumps will automatically come on

144
Q

Where do fuel temperatures for the left and right main fuel tank display

A

Fuel SYN page only

145
Q

Which type of engine powers the Airbus 220

A

The NJS A220 is powered by two Pratt & Whitney PW1524G-3 engines, Standard selection is PW1521

146
Q

Which unpressurized section is located at the aft of the aircraft

A

Aft Equipment Bay, APU Bay

147
Q

What is the minimum required pavement width to complete a 180° turn for the A220-300?

A

23.5m

148
Q

An out-of-alignment condition causes the HUD to show an ALIGN HUD message on the
combiner display. The message is removed by

A

The message is removed when the combiner glass is repositioned so that it
snaps into the detents

149
Q

. When HUD is selected from the MENU page (CTP) the range setting of APPR PATH ANG in
MAN mode can be changed as follows:

A

When MAN mode is selected, the default value is −3 degrees, which can be updated by a
value of between 0 and −7.5 degrees.

150
Q

How are the pitch lines on the HUD displayed

A

Positive pitch angles are displayed as solid pitch lines and negative pitch
angles are displayed as dashed pitch lines

151
Q

How are the FMA symbols on the HUD displayed

A

HUD symbols are combinations of characters (letters and numbers), shapes,
and lines that are displayed on the combiner.
They are displayed as follows (refer to FCOM HUD Figure 24−02−1):
* Attitude Director Indicator (ADI) in the center,
* Airspeed tape on the left side,
* Altitude tape on the right side,
* Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) modes at the top, and
* Navigation and Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI) at the bottom.
There are two additional display areas during specific conditions:
* Non-normal situation symbols (e.g. warnings, cautions, failures,
miscompares), and
* Non-conformal display indications?

152
Q

What purpose does the Priority Valves serve within the Hydraulic system

A

To maintain pressure and priority for higher users if pressure drops to 1700 psi or less

153
Q

In the AUTO or ON position, the PTU will provide pressure to;

A

Sys no 1 if sys no 2 is pressurised and system 1 has more than 5%

154
Q

How long does the ACMP 2B and PTU run if the Park brake is cycled OFF-ON-OFF?

A

6mins

155
Q

When the 3B rotary switch on the HYDRAULIC panel is selected to the ON position, ACMP
3B

A

The electrical pump operates and supplies pressure to system No 3 if AC power is available

156
Q

The hydraulic shutoff valves can be manually closed by the

A

Pressing the HYD 1 SOV and or the HYDSOV2

157
Q

If the PTU and ACMP 2B rotary switches in the AUTO position, what will occur when the
parking brake cycles OFF – ON– OFF

A

The ACMP 2B will operate automatically

158
Q

Which pumps power hydraulic system no, 1

A

Main pump EDP 1A and backup pump PT

159
Q

What happens when the L (R) COWL rotary switch on the ANTI-ICE panel is set to AUTO

A

Cowl heat is controlled automatically by the ice detection system and the EECs.

160
Q

Air data smart probes (ADSPs) and total air temperature (TAT) probe heaters can be turned
on by the PROBE HEAT switch/light when the:

A

Aircraft is on the ground and powered by the APU or GPU. The probe heaters are on a 2
minute timer.
Otherwise they are automatically selected on when weight off wheels or engines are running

161
Q

The heating source for Cowl Anti-icing is

A

6th stage engine bleed air

162
Q

The PROBE HEAT switch on the overhead panel can be used to turn on the TAT and ADSP
probe heaters

A

Yes when the aircraft is on the ground with either APU or GP

163
Q

What is the purpose of the piccolo tubes in the wing anti-ice system

A

Sized and predrilled to spray hot bleed air on inner surface of the slats.

164
Q

Which anti-ice system uses 6th stage engine bleed air

A

Cowl anti-ice system

165
Q

Where are the landing lights located

A

The landing lights are on the left and right wing to body fairing and on the nose landing gear

166
Q

The controls for the landing and taxi lights are located on which panel

A

Overhead module.

167
Q

What controls interior and exterior emergency lighting

A

The EMER LTS rotary switch on the flight deck and the guarded EMER LIGHTS switch/light on
the forward flight attendant panel.

168
Q

Landing gear actuation is powered by

A

Hydraulic system 1

169
Q

Which control releases the landing gear uplocks, allowing the gear to free fall?

A

DC ESS 3 powers the EMA’s (electric motor actuators) to release the unlocks

170
Q

The nosewheel steering system uses pressure from which hydraulic system?

A

Hydraulic system no. 2

171
Q

Which breaking protection function stops the main wheels from rotating during retraction?

A

Landing gear retraction braking

172
Q

What colour does TAWS use to show terrain 500 feet below to 2000 feet above the aircraft?

A

Yellow

173
Q

What is required when the caution message IRS SET HEADING is displayed on EICAS

A

Manual entry of the magnetic heading is to be entered on the pod soft switch on the FMS
page.

174
Q

Where is GNSS information displayed

A

POS tile, FMS page.

175
Q

The TCAS selection and mode control is accomplished by using:

A

The CTP or the CNS tune page

176
Q

When is the tilt adjustment available when using the radar?

A

Manual operating mode

177
Q

During a TCAS system test, where does the cyan IN PROG message display?

A

The AVIO Page

178
Q

Pressing the NAV SRC button on the left control tuning panel (CTP) cycles through which
navigation sources?

A

Onside FMS, onside VHF NAV, cross-side FMS, cross-side VHF NAV”

179
Q

When does the nav-to-nav preview function display localizer data and indications on the HSI

A

When a localizer-based approach (for the destination airport)
is selected on the FMS, and the aircraft is within 31 nm of the destination
airport. (Right side next to the compass rose in cyan and double cyan dashed lines.)

180
Q

For display tuning, how can the TUNE page be accessed?

A

CNS page pushing the switch on the the CTP or MKP or the soft switch on the CCP

181
Q

Where is the GNSS computed position displayed?

A

FMS POS tile /GNSS page

182
Q

When an IRS is in normal operating mode, what displays on the IRS tab of the FMS POS
window

A

Navigation

183
Q

Which indication display when the IDENT pushbutton on the control tuning panel (CTP) is
pressed?

A

ID annunciated in cyan on the CTP and a cyan ident message displays on the tune page

184
Q

Which advisory is used by the TCAS when traffic becomes a collision threat to the aircraft?

A

Resolution advisory aural alert and avoidance manouvre.

185
Q

When is the terrain clearance floor function primarily used?

A

When terrain clearance is not sufficient even in the landing mode around the landing airport.

186
Q

The TAWS test is initiated by selecting the TAWS soft key on the

A

AVIONICS tab

187
Q

When is aircraft track (AC/TRK) format automatically displayed?

A

When the aircraft is not tracking the FMS or localizer flight plan route

188
Q

What information displays on the GNSS tab

A

GNSS 1 and GNSS 2 as well as the number of satellites used to calculate the position

189
Q

When MAP is selected, the VSD

A

can be selected from the OVLY drop-down menu.

190
Q

How is the weather radar (WXR) image displayed on the multifunction window (MFW)?

A

WX switch on the CTP or OVLY tab menu on the map display page

191
Q

A TCAS system test can be initiated from the

A

CTP LSK or CNS tune page or the AVIO tab in the synoptic page

192
Q

The TAWS displays terrain on the MAP or PLAN pages on the MFW when the

A

Selecting Map on CTP or terrain on OVLY page

193
Q

When is the aural alert “SINK RATE” initiated?

A

When the descent rate is excessive for the current altitude mode1 defined by vertical speed
and radio altimeter

194
Q

To optimize gain settings and weather returns in all phases of flight during automatic
operating mode, the WXR system compensates for variations in:

A

geographic location, temperature, time of day, and altitude

195
Q

The crew oxygen mask microphone is activated by

A

Putting the mask on.

196
Q

Where does the CREW OXY LO PRESS caution message display?

A

Amber caution on EICAS.

197
Q

Where does the oxygen cylinder pressure display

A

On the EICAS or the AIR synoptic page

198
Q

During normal cabin oxygen dispensing unit operation, when does the flow of oxygen
begin

A

When the mask is pulled toward the passenger.

199
Q

How is oxygen vented when there is overpressure in the oxygen bottle?

A

Through the oxygen overboard discharge vent

200
Q

Portable halon fire extinguishers, located behind the copilot seat and in the forward and aft
galleys, are used to fight which classes of fire

A

Class A (combustible), Class B (flammable liquids), and Class C (electrical)

201
Q

When will the EEC have the ability to abort an engine start?

A

N1, Hot/Hung, EGT, Igniter fail, Fuel control failure

202
Q

What does the EICAS caution message THROTTLE IN REVERSE indicate?

A

L or R throttle has been moved to the reverse thrust position on the throttle quadrant.

203
Q

What is the purpose of the Thrust Limitation at Low Speed (TLLS)

A

Nose gear sufficiently loaded during T/O phase

204
Q

Where are indications for oil quantity, temperature and pressure displayed together

A

Synoptic Status page.

205
Q

The maximum landing reverse thrust is available when the thrust levers are at the MAX REV
position, from thrust reverser deployment until

A

60kt

206
Q

On the ENGINE panel, the PILOT EVENT switch is pressed in, so that

A

Event is marked for maintenance investigation

207
Q

The Integrated Air System Controller (IASC) is composed of:

A

Channel A & B and a Saftey channel C.

208
Q

On the AIR panel, how is the right bleed air valve closed?

A

Right bleed switch

209
Q

How is Pack high flow mode controlled

A

Pack flow switch

210
Q

Which control on the PRESSURIZATION panel opens the outflow valve and depressurizes
the aircraft to either 15,000 ft or the aircraft altitude, whichever is lower

A

Emerg Depress switch/light.

211
Q

What is the purpose of the trim air system

A

Trim air valves (TAVs o provide additional hot air)

212
Q

What is the function of the high-pressure ground external air connection

A

A high-pressure ground connection, on the left forward side of the wing-to-body fairing, supplies external high pressure air for engine starting or to supply air to one or both air-conditioning packs.

213
Q

Which of the following displays for each zone on the AIR synoptic page

A

Duct, Selected, Cabin Attendant Variation, Actual

214
Q

When the guarded EMER DEPRESS switch/light is pressed on the PRESSURIZATION panel,
cabin altitude increases to ______ or the Aircraft altitude, whichever is less

A

15,000ft

215
Q

Where do the pressurization system indication display?

A

Air synoptic page and EICAS

216
Q

Which sections of the aircraft are pressurized?

A

Flight deck, Cabin, fwd and aft cargo holds.

217
Q

Where are the duct temperatures displayed?

A

Air synoptic

218
Q

What is not controlled by the guarded DITCHING switch?

A

Ram air valve.

219
Q

When the L (R) Bleed switch/light is pressed:

A

Bleed valve closes

220
Q

What are the sources of bleed air

A

L&R Engines, APU air, EXT air

221
Q

On the AIR panel, which control closes the APU bleed air valve?

A

APU bleed switch.

222
Q

What records all flight deck digital and voice communications?

A

CVR

223
Q

What is monitored by the high load event indication function (HLEIF)?

A

Monitors the aircraft for severe turbulence and hard landing conditions.

*Gusts mentioned in ground school but not in FCOM

224
Q

What does the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) record

A

Voice and digital parameters

225
Q

Which system records flight parameters?

A

FDR

226
Q

What does the water and waste system controller monitor?

A

Temperature, pressure, water levels

227
Q

The vacuum waste system is active when aircraft power is available, the waste tank is not
full and the service panel door is closed.

A

True

228
Q

Which function are monitored by the vacuum waste system?

A

Waste system servicing, waste collection, waste storage.

229
Q

When is the potable water system active?

A

The potable water system is automatically activated when:
* Electrical power is available,
* Water is in the potable water tank, and
* The servicing panel door is closed.

A220-300 (5 decks)

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