Case 8 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two types antibiotics?

A
  1. Bacteriostatic
    - Inhibits bacterial growth
    - Allowing the natural immune response to eliminate the organism
  2. Bactericidal
    - Kills microorganism
    - Most effective when cells are actively dividing, thus preventing cell division
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2
Q

What’s DAME?

A
The reasons for why people have falls. 
D = drugs
A = ageing 
M = medical conditions 
E = environmental causes
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3
Q

How do drugs increase the risk of falls?

A
  • ageing related changes - more accumulation
  • polypharmacy - more drug interactions
  • sedatives
  • anti-hypertensives
  • steroids - more likely to fracture and probably weakens muscles
  • alcohol
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4
Q

Why do medical conditions increase the risk of falls?

A
  • hypertension - damage to baroreceptors
  • osteoporosis
  • kyphosis
  • pain
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5
Q

What’s pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics?

A

What your body does to the drug and what the drug does to your body?

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6
Q

What does pharmacokinetics involve?

A
  • absorption
  • distribution
    (drug-cell interaction)
  • metabolism
  • excretion
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7
Q

What changes are there with drug absorption as you age?

A
  • Some slowing of gastric emptying / motility
  • Some reduction in gastric acid secretion
  • Reduced total surface area and reduced splanchnic (relating to the viscera or internal organs, especially those of the abdomen) blood flow
  • Potential decrease in absorption of drugs (small change)
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8
Q

What changes are there with drug distribution as you age?

A
  • Decrease in muscle mass and total body water, but increase in body fat
  • Lipid-soluble drugs can accumulate in fat and brain tissue, e.g. benzodiazepines (for anxiety etc.)
  • Water-soluble drugs will concentrate in plasma e.g. aminoglycosides, digoxin (so may have to give lower doses of these in older people)
  • Changes in protein binding to albumin (family of globular proteins)
  • may affect free fraction (parameter in pharmacokinetics and receptor-ligand kinetics) of the drug available e.g. warfarin
  • NB often body mass is reduced in older patients
  • Much more significant change in distribution as you age than absorption
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9
Q

What changes are there with drug metabolism as you age?

A
  • Reduced hepatic volume and blood flow (about 40% in very elderly)
  • Reduced first pass metabolism (means more drug available to exert its effect so may reduce dosage of drugs in older patients)
  • Increased bioavailability of drugs metabolised by the liver e.g. propranolol, verapamil
  • Other factors can inhibit hepatic enzymes and further impair hepatic drug metabolism
  • smoking, alcohol consumption, coexisting diseases and some drugs (e.g. erythromycin, amiodarone)
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10
Q

What changes are there with drug excretion as you age?

A
  • Renal function reduces with age (dramatic decrease after 40yrs)
  • Reduced clearance of drugs which are:
  • excreted via filtration at the kidney, e.g. digoxin
  • actively secreted by the renal tubules e.g. penicillin
  • Also reduced by coexisting chronic conditions e.g. hypertension, diabetes, congestive cardiac failure and acute illness e.g. UTI and dehydration
  • all common in elderly people
  • Can result in drug and metabolite accumulation and toxicity
  • May need dose-reduction for renally-cleared drugs
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11
Q

How does pharmacodynamics change with age?

A
  • Increased sensitivity at receptor level to many drugs = increased pharmacological effect and risk of toxicity
  • gastrotoxicity, neurotoxicity, nephrotoxicity (kidney), hepatotoxicity, vasodilation
  • Increased susceptibility to side-effects/ADRs than younger patients
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12
Q

What’s NNT and NNH?

A

Numbers needed to treat – the average number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome
Numbers needed to harm – how many patients on average need to be exposed to a risk-factor over a specific period to cause harm in one patient who would not otherwise have been harmed

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13
Q

What are the 5 essential steps to shared decision making?

A
  1. Seek your patient’s participation
  2. Help your patient explore and compare treatment options
  3. Assess your patient’s values and preferences
  4. Reach a decision with your patient
  5. Evaluate your patient’s decision
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14
Q

What is Prednisolone, what does it treat, how does it work and what is the drawback?

A
  • Glucocorticoid
  • Used to treat: autoimmune conditions, hypersensitivity and inflammation (e.g. temporal arteritis)
  • It suppresses the immune system by restraining the clonal expansion of Th cells (decreasing transcription of the gene for IL-2), thus leaving the patient susceptible to infection
  • Long-term use of this glucocorticoid can lead to osteoporosis
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15
Q

What is Bendroflumethiazide used to treat and how does it work?

A
  • Reduced uptake of water (by blocking Na/K pumps that would allow uptake of sodium and potassium ions and hence water) in the ascending arm of Loop of Henle (from the renal filtrate into the blood)
  • Used to treat hypertension and oedema (water retention)
  • Reducing the amount of excess water reduced the work of the heart
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16
Q

What is co-codamol used for and what is it composed of?

A
  • Compound analgesic (painkiller) consisting of a combination of codeine phosphate and paracetamol
  • Co-codamol tablets are used for the relief of mild to moderate pain when paracetamol alone does not sufficiently relieve a patient’s symptoms
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17
Q

What does codeine act as, what’s it effective for, and how does it work?

A
  • Acts as prodrug (a medication or compound that, after administration, is metabolised into a pharmacologically active drug) it is metabolised to morphine
  • Effective only in mild pain
  • It blocks transmission of pain signals sent by the nerves to the brain
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18
Q

What is paracetamol and what can go wrong if you overdose?

A
  • Analgesia (pain relief)
  • Acute overdoses of paracetamol can cause potentially fatal liver damage
  • Active ingredient in many flu medications
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19
Q

What is diazepam used to treat and how does it work?

A
  • Used to treat: anxiety, insomnia
  • Diazepam increased the activity of GABA in the brain
  • GABA is a neurotransmitter that acts as a natural ‘nerve-calming’ agent
  • It helps keep the nerve activity in the brain in balance, and is involved in inducing sleepiness, reducing anxiety and relaxing muscles
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20
Q

What is sepsis, what does it result from, how does it spread and what can it lead to?

A
  • Sepsis is a common life-threatening condition triggered by infection
  • Results from the body’s natural acute inflammatory response to infection
  • Acute inflammation spreads via the bloodstream and can lead rapidly to:
  • widespread inflammation (‘systemic inflammation’) and swelling
  • low blood pressure and low blood flow to organs
  • multiple organ malfunction (e.g. heart, lung, kidney, brain etc)
  • multi-organ failure
  • death
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21
Q

What is the most common cause of sepsis?

A

Bacteria

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22
Q

What are the warning signs of sepsis?

A
  • Fever
  • Rapid or difficult breathing
  • Elevated heart rate
  • New disorientation, confusion or drowsiness
  • Severe muscle or joint pains
  • Passing no urine
  • A sense of impending doom
  • Skin rash, mottled or discoloured
  • Poor feeding (in infants and children)
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23
Q

What’s the acronym for sepsis?

A
Slurred speech 
Extreme muscle pain 
Passing no urine
Severe breathlessness
I feel I might die
Skin mottled or discoloured
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24
Q

How can we save lives and improve outcomes with sepsis?

A
  • Early suspicion
  • Early diagnosis
  • Early infection treatment
  • antimicrobial drugs (broad spectrum initially until informed by culture results later)
  • source control involving surgical intervention
  • Emergency and critical care (supportive treatments)
  • maintain blood pressure/flow and tissue oxygenation (adequate fluid and oxygen)
  • support organ function
  • ICU admission occurs in over 50% of cases in the wealthy nations
  • Prevent infection spread
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25
Q

What are the contraindications to HRT?

A
  • Breast cancer – oestrogen usually feeds breast cancer
  • Thromboembolic disease – oestrogen is thromboembolic
  • Coronary heart disease
  • Stroke
  • Gall bladder disease
  • Migraine
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26
Q

Combined HRT vs. oestrogen-only HRT - who can you give each to and why? and how do they affect your risk of breast cancer?

A

You can’t give just oestrogen to a woman with a uterus because the oestrogen causes the lining of the womb to thicken and this can lead to endometrial cancer

  • combined HRT increases the risk of breast cancer
  • oestrogen-only HRT decreases risk of breast cancer
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27
Q

What are the benefits of HRT?

A

Helps:

  • Vasomotor symptoms
  • Mood changes and insomnia
  • Osteoporosis
  • Urogenital symptoms
  • Sexual dysfunction
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28
Q

What are the best recommendations for dose and route of HRT?

A
  • Use lowest dose for the shortest required time in women with natural menopause
  • Women with premature menopause will need higher dose
  • Transdermal oestrogen is safer than oral HRT; latest data suggests no increase in thromboembolic risk with transdermal oestrogen only preparations
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29
Q

What are the different definitions of osteoporosis?

A
  • Osteoporosis: ‘a disease characterised by low bone mass (decreased bone mineral density (BMD)) and micro-architectural degeneration of bone tissue, leading to enhanced bone fragility and increase in fracture risk’
  • The loss of entire bone substance
  • WHO definition: BMD < 2.5 standard deviations below a normal healthy age-matched control (T score and Z score)
  • values between -1 and -2.5 = osteopenia (condition in which BMD is lower than normal – it’s considered by many doctors to be a precursor to osteoporosis)
  • T score: patient’s BMD compared to young healthy control
  • Z score: patient’s BMD compared to age-matched control
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30
Q

What does osteoporosis result from?

A

Osteoporosis results from increased bone breakdown by osteoclasts and decreased bone formation by osteoblasts leading to a loss of bone mass

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31
Q

What are the symptoms of osteoporosis?

A
  • Usually presented as a clinically evident fracture
  • Stooping position develops as a result of fractured bones in the spine
  • It may also be presented as backache
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32
Q

What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?

A
  • Oestrogen deficiency (at menopause)
  • Vitamin D insufficiency (lack of calcitriol means lack of calcium absorption)
  • Hypocalcaemia (diet or hypoparathyroidism)
  • Increasing age
  • Female
  • Sedentary lifestyle
  • Asian descent
  • Family history
  • Long term use of corticosteroid medications (prednisolone)
  • Excessive alcohol consumption
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33
Q

What are the treatments for osteoporosis?

A
  • Non-pharmacological: calcium and vitamin D supplements

- Pharmacological: bisphosphonates, HRT (oestrogen) and SERMs

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34
Q

When are bisphosphonates used to treat menopause and how do they work?

A
  • Treating postmenopausal osteoporosis
  • Some forms of this medication are used to treat glucocorticoid induced osteoporosis
  • Bisphosphonates inhibit the digestion of bone by encouraging osteoclasts to undergo apoptosis, or cell death, thereby slowing bone loss
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35
Q

How do SERMs work to treat osteoporosis?

A
  • SERMs work agonistically (a substance which initiates a physiological response when combined with a receptor) (osteoporosis) and antagonistically (a substance which interferes with or inhibits the physiological action of another) (cancer)
  • In bones, they bind to oestrogen receptors and activate them, thus mimicking the action of oestrogen
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36
Q

What is the action of oestrogen on osteoblasts?

A
  • Increases conversion of type III collagen to type I (osteogenesis)
  • Stimulates growth factors synthesis (IGF-1, TGFB) – these are all important for controlling cell division and differentiation (from osteoprogenitor cells)
  • Regulates osteoblast proliferation
37
Q

What is the action of oestrogen on osteoclasts?

A
  • Increases apoptosis
  • Suppresses osteoclast differentiation by blocking synthesis of IL-6
  • Suppress osteoclast differentiation by increasing OPG release
38
Q

What is the effect of glucocorticoids on osteoblasts?

A
  • Decrease osteoblastic function (decrease osteogenesis) by:
  • decreasing osteoblast proliferation and differentiation
  • increasing osteoblast apoptosis
39
Q

What is the effect of glucocorticoids on osteoclasts?

A
  • Increase osteoclastic activation and function (increase resorption) by:
  • increased expression of RANKL
  • decreased expression of osteoprotegerin (OPG)
40
Q

What is the effect of glucocorticoids on calcium?

A
  • Interferes with calcium absorption in the small intestine

- When calcium isn’t absorbed from the GI tract, the body seeks out calcium from the bones where it is stored

41
Q

What are the different cells in bone?

A
  • Osteoblasts
  • Osteoprogenitor cells – in the bone marrow – the precursors of the osteoblasts
  • Osteocytes – cells that have been osteoblasts are were then entrapped within the matrix that they themselves have put down
  • Osteoid – unmineralised matrix that the osteoblasts produce – they then mineralise the osteoid
  • Marrow cells – some of which are osteoblast progenitor cells
  • Osteoclasts
42
Q

What happens after menopause that increases risk of osteoporosis?

A
  • Falling oestrogen levels associated with increased osteoclasts
    BUT
  • Bone sections from women with osteoporosis shows problems with osteoblasts – they’re not functioning properly
  • Few osteoclasts
43
Q

What is the importance of oestrogen for the regulation of bone mass in men?

A
  • Osteoporosis in male patient with ER mutation (no oestrogen response)
  • Oestrogen is a more important regulator of bone in men that testosterone
  • Osteoporosis in male patient with aromatase mutation (no oestrogen synthesis) – aromatase allows formation of oestrogen from testosterone
  • Falling oestrogen levels associated with bone loss in ageing men
44
Q

How are calcium levels regulated?

A
  • Calcium level goes down
  • PTH level goes up
  • Vitamin D3 production in skin
  • 25 OH (hydroxylated) in the liver to form 25 hydroxylated D3
  • Then your PTH acts in the kidney to metabolise 25 hydroxy to 1,25 D
  • 1,25 D (active form of vitamin D) - Ca resorption through the gut due to receptors of active form of vitamin D in the gut
  • Calcium levels increase to normal
45
Q

What are steroid treatments used to treat? and what is their mechanism of action?

A
  • Acute inflammatory conditions (asthma and COPD, hay fever, hives and eczema, inflammatory bowel disease, MS, painful joints or muscles)
  • Inhibition of the immune system
46
Q

What is good prescribing practice for steroid treatment?

A
  • Dosing minimum for desired effect
  • Duration minimum to limit long term risks
  • Taper dose before stopping – adrenal glands go to sleep when have steroids for a long time, when stop, adrenal gland suddenly wakes up, and patients can get withdrawal symptoms – so taper so adrenal glands can start to function properly again
  • Review
47
Q

What are the adverse effects of steroid treatment?

A
  • Occur with prolonged use of high doses
  • Cushing’s disease
  • Psychiatric - sleep disturbance
  • Skin - cushingoid appearance
  • Cardiovascular - hypertension
  • MSK – osteoporosis, myopathy
  • Developmental – growth retardation
48
Q

Describe the age-related decline in the function of the cardiovascular system.

A
  • Arteries develop atherosclerotic change – walls thicken and elasticity reduced, reduction in NO production
  • Baroreceptors become less sensitive
  • Heart valves thicken
  • Apoptosis atrial pacemaker cells
  • Decreased responsiveness to adrenoceptor stimulation
  • Decrease in maximal achievable heart rate
49
Q

Describe the age-related decline in the function of the musculoskeletal system.

A
  • Skeletal muscles lose cells and weigh
  • Loss fast twitch fibres > slow twitch
  • Hormonal loss (GH testosterone) and denervation atrophy
  • Exacerbated by inactivity (illness/hospitalisation)
  • Decreased bone mineral density
  • Cartilage thins
  • Ligaments less elastic
50
Q

Describe the age-related decline in the function of vision and hearing.

A
  • Lens stiffens – difficulty focusing close objects
  • Lens denser – reduced night vision
  • Retina less sensitive to light
  • Pupils react more slowly
  • Presbyacusis – loss high pitched hearing
51
Q

Describe the age-related decline in the function of the nervous system.

A
  • Cerebral blood flow decreases
  • 10% loss in weight of brain
  • More susceptible to damage
  • Some slowing of thought and reflexes from 30
52
Q

Describe the age-related decline in the function of the immune system.

A
  • Immunosenescence
  • Reduction in haematopoietic stem cells
  • Reduction in number and effect of phagocytes
  • Reduction in cell mediated immunity
  • Reduction in humoral immunity
53
Q

Describe the age-related decline in the function of the gastrointestinal system.

A
  • Taste buds lose sensitivity
  • Gums recede and less saliva produced
  • Food empties from stomach more slowly
  • Gut transit time decreases
  • Liver – loses cells and reduced blood flow
54
Q

Describe the age-related decline in the function of the renal system.

A
  • Number of nephrons declines by 30-40%
  • Kidneys shrink
  • Less efficient in clearing waste
  • Reduced blood flow
  • Men – prostatic hypertrophy v common
  • Women – urinary incontinence common
55
Q

Describe the age-related decline in the function of the endocrine system.

A
  • Growth hormone levels decrease
  • Reduction in insulin sensitivity
  • Reduction in adrenal hormones with stimulation (cortiocoids and adrenaline?)
  • Female menopause – reduction oestrogen
56
Q

MRSA:

  • what type of bacteria?
  • where do they survive?
  • what are they resistant to?
  • what are the signs of infection
  • what is MSSA?
  • what is MRSA?
  • what is the only antibiotic that works against MRSA?
  • what is the treatment for S. aureus?
A
  • S. aureus are gram positive bacteria
  • Survive in dry and dusty environments
  • Resistant to penicillin, methicillin and flucloxacillin
  • Signs of infection: hot, red, swollen, painful and yellow discharge (pus)
  • Strains of S. aureus that are affected by antibiotics are called methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA)
  • Strains of S. aureus that are resistant to antibiotics are called methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) – the only antibiotic that works is called vancomycin
  • MRSA screening / eradication in high risk patients
  • Treatment:
  • ‘cocktail’ of B-lactam ring antibiotics that work on the bacterium cell wall
  • these include penicillins and cephalosporins
  • a ‘cocktail’ is administered so that if the bacteria are resistant to some, others may work
57
Q

How does penicillin/methicillin work? and what is the bacterial response?
How does flucloxacillin work? and what is the bacterial response?
How does vancomycin work?

A
  • Penicillin / methicillin attach via their B-lactam ring (which opens up) to the target in the cell wall – penicillin binding protein (PBP)
  • This changes the functional group of the PBP
  • As the cell wall grows, it is weakened and crumbles – extracellular fluid enters causing lysis
  • Bacterial response: bacteria produces the enzyme B-lactamase which breaks down B-lactam ring (penicillin/methicillin) medication and so they are no longer effective
  • Flucloxacillin (form of penicillin, which is B-lactamase stable, works in the same way as penicillin by binding to PBP
  • Bacterial response: bacteria changes shape of the binding protein, therefore flucloxacillin is no longer effective
  • Vancomycin (form of penicillin) is able to bind to the modified PBP
  • S aureus are not resistant to vancomycin
  • (enterococcus bacteria have genes which provide vancomycin resistance – if these genes were shared with S aureus, then there will be vancomycin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (VRSA))
58
Q

Why does bones become less dense as you age?

A
  • An inactive lifestyle causes bone wastage
  • Hormonal changes
  • Bones lose calcium and other minerals

(As you age, your body may reabsorb calcium and phosphate from your bones instead of keeping these minerals in your bones)

59
Q

What is calcium present in bones as?

A

Calcium phosphate

60
Q

What’s the function of calcium?

A
  • Structures: present in bones as calcium phosphate
  • Signalling: influx of Ca2+ ions in synapses and Beta-cells in pancreas; muscular contraction
  • Enzymatic function: coenzyme
61
Q

Explain calcium homeostasis.

A
  • Calcium homeostasis is maintained by a pair of hormones with opposing effects
  • These hormones, parathyroid hormone (parathyroid gland) and calcitonin (follicular cells in thyroid gland, coordinate the storage (bones), absorption (small intestine), and excretion (kidneys) of calcium ions (Ca2+)
  • Factors that increase calcium levels: (in the blood??)
    1. Parathyroid hormone causes the kidneys to retain calcium ions
    2. Parathyroid hormone (with calcitriol) causes the rate of intestinal absorption to increase
    3. Osteoclasts are stimulated to release stored calcium ions from the bone
  • Factors that depress calcium levels:
    1. Calcitonin causes kidneys to allow calcium loss
    2. Calcitonin doesn’t have a direct effect on the rate of absorption
    3. Decreased parathyroid hormone (or calcitriol) causes a decrease in the rate of intestinal absorption
    4. Osteoclasts are inhibited whilst osteoblasts continue to lock calcium ions in the bone matrix
62
Q

How is vitamin D3 involved with the transport of calcium into cells?

A
  • Melanosomes (in the skin) convert a precursor into cholecalciferol (inactive vitamin D3)
  • Cholecalciferol is hydroxylated (+ -OH) to calcifediol/calcidiol (25-hydroxyvitamin D3) in the liver
  • Calcifediol is hydroxylated into calcitriol (1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 – active vitamin D3) in the kidney
  • Calcitriol increases calcium absorption in the small intestines, kidneys and bones
  • In the intestines, the activation of calcitriol leads to formation of calbindin, a calcium binding protein in the intestinal epithelial cells, which transports calcium into the cell cytoplasm
63
Q

How do oestrogen levels change in peri-menopause and post-menopause?

A

Peri-menopause
- There is an increase in oestrogen levels, leading to peak bone mass
- The oestrogen levels begin to decline after this surge of oestrogen due to a decrease in ovarian follicles
- This surge of oestrogen prepares the body for the effects of post-menopause
Post-menopause
- There is a very high level of FSH, due to the decreased levels of oestrogen

64
Q

Bone loss in menopause:

  • how much of bone density is lost?
  • what causes the drop?
  • how does this affect your risk of osteoporosis?
A
  • Women lose up to 20% of their bone density in the five to seven years after onset of menopause
  • The dropin bone density is caused by falling levels of oestrogen (oestrogen inhibits bone resorption)
  • Risk of osteoporosis and fractures stays relatively low often until many years after menopause onset
  • This is because oestrogen is only one of the things that affects your bone strength
65
Q

How do levels of oestrogen, progesterone and testosterone change throughout menopause?

A

Oestrogen
- During perimenopause, levels fluctuate and become unpredictable
- Eventually production falls to a very low level
Progesterone
- Production stops during menstrual cycles when there is no ovulation and after final menstrual period
Testosterone
- Levels peak in a woman’s 20s and decline slowly thereafter – by menopause, level is at half of its peak
- Ovaries continue to make testosterone even after oestrogen production stops
- Testosterone production from adrenal glands also declines with ageing but continues after menopause

66
Q

What are the functions of bone?

A
  1. Provide support
  2. Store minerals (e.g. calcium, phosphate)
  3. Store lipids (yellow bone marrow)
  4. Produce blood cells (red bone marrow)
  5. Protect many organs and soft tissues
  6. Act as levers
67
Q

What are the 5 types of bone?

A
  1. Long bones
  2. Short bones – small and boxy
  3. Flat bones – thin, roughly parallel surfaces
  4. Irregular bones – complex shapes with short, flat, notches or ridged surfaces
  5. Sesamoid bones – small, flat and shaped somewhat like a sesame seed
68
Q

What do long bones consist of?

A
  • Consists of:
    1. Diaphysis (long shaft)
    2. Epiphysis at each end
    3. Metaphysis which connects the diaphysis and epiphysis
  • Diaphysis walls consist of layers of compact bone
  • The medullary cavity consists of red and/or yellow bone marrow
  • Epiphysis consists of spongy bone (open network of struts and plates that resembles latticework with a thin covering, or cortex, of compact bone) and is surrounded by cartilage
69
Q

What do flat bones consist of?

A
  • Resembles a spongy bone sandwich, with layers of compact bone covering a core of spongy bone
  • The layer of spongy bone Is called the diploe
  • There is no marrow cavity, but red bone marrow is present within the spongy bone
70
Q

Describe the structure of compact bone.

A
  • The basic function unity of compact bone is the osteon
  • Osteon (Haversian system): (fundamental functional unit of much compact bone)
    1. Osteocytes (bones cells formed when an osteoblast becomes embedded in the material it has secreted) surrounded by lacunae
    2. Lacunae connect osteocytes (lacuna is a small cavity within the bone matrix containing an osteocyte and from which slender canaliculi radiate and penetrate the adjacent lamellae to anastomose with the canaliculi of neighbouring lacunae, thus forming a system of cavities interconnected by minute canals)
    3. Osteocytes arranged in concentric layers around a central canal (Haversian canal) containing blood vessels
    4. Lamellae: these are the different layers in an osteon
    5. Collagen fibres within each lamella form a spiral (of varying orientation) that adds strength and resiliency
    6. Osteocytes in different lamellae are connected via canaliculi
  • Central canals generally run parallel to the surface of the bone
  • Perforating canals or canals of Volkmann, extend perpendicular to the surface – blood vessels in these canals supply blood to osteons deeper in the bone and to tissues of the medullary cavity
  • Circumferential lamellae are found at the outer and inner surfaces of the bone, where they are covered by the periosteum and endosteum, respectively
  • These lamellae are produced during the growth of the bone
71
Q

Describe the structure of spongy bone.

A

Structure of spongy bone:

  • Trabeculae: open network of struts and plates that resembles latticework
  • There are no capillaries or venules in the matrix of spongy bone
  • Nutrients reach the osteocytes by diffusion along Canaliculi that open onto the surfaces of trabeculae
  • Red marrow is found between the trabeculae of spongy bone, and blood vessels within this tissue deliver nutrients to the trabeculae and remove wastes generated by the osteocytes
  • Red bone marrow is responsible for blood cell formation
  • At other sites, spongy bone may contain yellow bone marrow – adipose tissue important as an energy reserve
72
Q

What is the periosteum? and what is its functions?

A
  • This is the superficial layer of compact bone that covers all bone surfaces that is not covered by articular cartilage
  • It has a fibrous outer membrane and an inner cellular (osteogenic) tissue
  • Function:
    1. Protection of bone
    2. Assists in fracture repair
    3. Helps nourish bone tissue
    4. Serves as an attachment point for ligaments and tendons
73
Q

What’s the endosteum? and what does it consist of?

A
  • Contains a single layer of cells
  • Lines the marrow cavity and internal surface of Haversian canals
  • Active during bone growth, repair, and remodelling
  • Covers the trabeculae of spongy bone and lines the inner surfaces of the central canals
  • Consists of a flattened layer of osteoprogenitor cells (germ cells), osteoblasts and osteoclasts
74
Q

What does the bone matrix consist of?

A
  • The composition of the matrix in compact bone is the same as that in spongy bone
  • Calcium phosphate + calcium hydroxide = crystals of hydroxyapatite
  • Calcium phosphate crystals are very hard, but relatively inflexible and quite brittle – they can withstand compression, but are likely to shatter when exposed to bending, twisting, or sudden impacts
  • Collagen fibres and remarkably strong and flexible
  • The collagen fibres provide an organic framework on which hydroxyapatite crystals can form
  • The result is a protein-crystal combination: possesses the flexibility of collagen and the compressive strength of hydroxyapatite crystals
75
Q

What are the four types of bone cell?

A

Bone contains four types of cells: osteocytes, osteoprogenitor cells (stem cells), osteoblasts (osteogenesis) and osteoclasts (osteolysis)

76
Q

What are osteocytes? and what do they do?

A
  • Are mature bone cells that cannot divide
  • Each osteocyte occupies one lacuna, occupying layers called lamellae
  • Lamellae are connected by canaliculi, providing nutrients from the central canal
  • If released from their lacunae, osteocytes can convert to a less specialised type of cell, such as an osteoblast or an osteoprogenitor cell
77
Q

What are osteoblasts? and what do they do?

A
  • Form new bone matrix in a process called osteogenesis – in other words, osteoblasts form the osteoid (unmineralised, organic portion of the bone matrix that forms prior to the maturation of bone tissue), which is then calcified into bone
  • Osteoblasts also assist in the calcification of osteoid into bone
  • As osteoblasts surround themselves with extracellular matrix, they become trapped in their secretion and become osteocytes
78
Q

Describe the process of osteogenesis.

A
  1. Osteoblasts secrete collagen molecules and ground substance (extrafibrillar matrix – gel-like substance surrounding the collagen molecules)
  2. Collagen molecules combine to form collagen fibres
  3. The resultant tissue is called osteoid (non-calcified bone)
  4. Hydroxyapatite crystals form on the collagen fibres – the osteoid is now calcified and this is bone
79
Q

What are osteoprogenitor cells? and what do they do?

A
  • These are mesenchymal stem cells that divide and differentiate into osteoblasts
  • These maintain populations of osteoblasts and are important in the repair of a fracture
  • Osteoprogenitor cells located in the periosteum and the bone marrow (endosteum)
80
Q

What are osteoclasts? and what do they do?

A
  • Multinucleated cells involved in bone resorption (bone removal and recycling)
  • Derived from granulocyte/monocyte progenitor cells
  • Osteoclast membrane secretes enzymes which dissolve the matrix and release the stored minerals into the blood stream
  • This process is called osteolysis, this process is important in the regulation of calcium and phosphate concentrations in body fluids
81
Q

Describe osteoclast activation. How is the skeleton protected from excessive bone resorption? and what about this can lead to osteoporosis?

A
  • Osteoclast progenitor cells have RANK receptors on their surface membrane
  • RANK ligand (RANKL) binds to the RANK receptor
  • RANKL is secreted by osteoblasts
  • This initiates intracellular signalling and gene expression cascade that results in differentiation and maturation of the precursor cells into osteoclasts
  • Osteoprotegerin (OPG) protects the skeleton from excessive bone resorption by binding to RANKL and preventing it from binding to RANK receptor
  • Overexpression of RANKL is linked to osteoporosis
82
Q

Describe the process of bone remodelling.

A
  1. Recruitment of osteoclast precursors
  2. These differentiate into mature multinucleated osteoclast
  3. Osteoclasts adhere to an area of trabecular bone
  4. They dig a pit by secreting hydrogen ions and proteolytic enzymes, by a process called osteolysis
  5. This secretes cytokines such as insulin-like growth factor (IGF)-1 and TGF-B that have been embedded in the osteoid
  6. These cytokines recruit and activate osteoblasts that have been stimulated to develop from precursor cells (osteoprogenitor cells)
  7. Osteoblasts invade the site, synthesising and secreting the organic matrix of bone (the osteoid) and secreting IGF-1 and TGF-B (which become embedded in the osteoid)
  8. The osteoid is then calcified into bone
  9. Some osteoblasts become embedded in the osteoid, forming terminal osteocytes
83
Q

Describe the process of fracture repair. (bone remodelling following a bone fracture)

A

Step 1: haematoma formation
- In any fracture, many blood vessels rupture and extensive bleeding occurs
- A large blood clot (haematoma) closes off the injured vessels and leaves a fibrous meshwork in the damaged area
Step 2: fibrocartilaginous callus formation
- An extensive internal callus (cartilage fibres) organises within the medullary cavity and between the broken ends of the shaft
- An external callus (cartilage and bone) forms and encircles the bone at the level of the fracture
- External callus:
1. At the centre, cells differentiate into chondrocytes and produce blocks of hyaline cartilage
2. At the edges, cells differentiate into osteoblasts and begin creating a bridge between the bone fragments on either side of the fracture
Step 3: bony callus formation (callus ossification)
- Osteoblasts replace the central hyaline cartilage of the external callus with spongy bone
- When this conversion is complete, the external and internal calluses form an extensive and continuous brace at the fracture site
- Struts of spongy bone now unite the broken ends
- The ends of the fracture are now held firmly in place and can withstand normal stresses from muscle contractions
Step 4: bone remodelling
- Osteoclasts and osteoblasts continue to remodel the region of fracture from 4 – 12 months
- When the remodelling is complete, living compact bone remains
- The repair may be as ‘good as new’, and leave no indications that a fracture ever occurred or the bone may be slightly thicker and stronger than the normal at the fracture site
- Under comparable stresses, a second fracture will generally occur at a different site

84
Q

What are the 4 phases of wound healing?

A
  1. Haemostasis and coagulation
  2. Inflammatory phase
  3. Proliferation phase
  4. Maturation phase
85
Q

Describe the inflammatory phase.

A
  • Formation of blood clot
  • Haemostasis (the stopping of the bleeding) occurs to allow for vascular dilation to initiate inflammation
  • This leads to a rise in exudate (a mass of cells and fluid that has seeped out of blood vessels) levels
  • The surrounding skin needs to be monitored for signs of maceration (a softening or wetting of the skin owing to retention of excessive moisture)
86
Q

Describe the proliferation phase.

A
  • Wound ‘rebuilt’ with new granulation tissue (connective tissue (collagen and extracellular matrix) and blood vessels)
  • Healthy granulation tissue:
    1. Occurs when fibroblasts receive sufficient levels of oxygen and nutrients supplied by the blood vessels
    2. Is granular and uneven in texture
    3. Doesn’t bleed easily
    4. Pink/red in colour
  • The colour and condition of granulation tissue is often an indicator of how the wound is healing
  • Dark granulation tissue = poor perfusion, ischaemia and/or infection
  • Epithelial cells finally resurface the wound, a process known as ‘epithelialisation’
87
Q

Describe the maturation phase.

A
  • Occurs once the wound has closed
  • This phase involved remodelling of collagen from type III to type I
  • Cellular activity reduces and the number of blood vessels in the wounded area decrease
88
Q

What is the Duty of Candour?

A

Duty of Candour:
Every healthcare professional must be open and honest with patients when something that goes wrong with their treatment or care causes, or has the potential to cause harm or distress – this means healthcare professionals must:
- Tell the patient when something has gone wrong
- Apologise to the patient
- Offer an appropriate remedy or support to put matters right
- Explain fully to the patient the short and long-term effects of what has happened

89
Q

What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?

A
  • Oestrogen deficiency (at menopause)
  • Vitamin D insufficiency (lack of calcitriol means lack of calcium absorption)
  • Hypocalcaemia (diet or hypoparathyroidism)
  • Increasing age
  • Female
  • Sedentary lifestyle
  • Asian descent
  • Family history
  • Long term use of corticosteroid medications (prednisolone)
  • Excessive alcohol consumption