Case 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is validity? and what are the two types?

A

Validity is the extent to which a variable or intervention measures, or accomplishes what it is supposed to accomplish.
Two types of validity should be considered in every study:
a) The internal validity of a study refers to the integrity of the experimental design – was the experimental design appropriate? Internal validity is threatened by biases, i.e. a study that is sufficiently free from bias is said to have internal validity
b) The external validity of a study refers to the appropriateness by which it results can be applied to non-study patients or populations

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2
Q

What’s a confounding variable?

A

An extra variable, which is associated with the exposure and also influences (confounds) the disease outcome – i.e. it is not the variable the researchers are interested in, but it may potentially affect the results of a study/trial

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3
Q

What’s gastrulation?

A
  • Formation of 3 germ layers – endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm

- Between 14-16 days post-fertilisation

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4
Q

Describe placental development. How does it develop and why is it important?

A
  • Placenta develops from outer layer of cells of blastocyst (trophectoderm)
  • Development precedes embryonic development
  • Placenta is critical for the establishment of pregnancy and survival of embryo
  • Placental growth is very rapid in early pregnancy, slower in later pregnancy
  • Placenta forms a protective barrier around the blastocyst
  • Placenta mediates implantation
  • Produces hormones that establish pregnancy
  • Provides nutrition to embryo
  • Protection from teratogens
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5
Q

Describe placental growth throughout the 3 trimesters.

A
1st trimester 
-	Rapid placental growth 
2nd trimester 
-	Placental regression = produces disc shaped placenta 
-	Forms placental membrane 
3rd trimester 
-	Rapid fetal growth 
-	250g/wk
-	Placental growth slows 
-	Increased placental efficiency
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6
Q

Describe the tissues of the human blastocyst? and when is it formed? and what do the cells give rise to?

A
  • Human embryo – blastocyst – 32-64 cells
  • 4-5 days post-fertilisation
  • ICM (inner cell mass) – pluripotent stem cells here – gives rise to embryo and every cell in our bodies now
  • Trophoblast – contains trophoblast stem cells – gives rise to embryonic component of placenta and extraembryonic tissues
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7
Q

When does implantation take place, and what happens?

A
  • Occurs around day 8 post-fertilisation
  • Blastocyst becomes embedded in uterus; secretes enzymes to digest uterine endometrium
  • Endometrium closes, development continues in uterine wall
  • Trophoblast cells contribute to formation of placenta
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8
Q

What are the extraembryonic membranes?

A
  • Amnion – entirely surrounds embryo, makes cavity filled with amniotic fluid
  • Chorion – becomes principle part of placenta
  • Allantois – becomes vascular connection between embryo and placenta – umbilical cord forms from this
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9
Q

What is the yolk sac?

A

The first site of blood cell formation.

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10
Q

Why is gastrulation important?

A
  • Organs derive from specific germ layers
  • Gastrulation allows cell movements to get tissues and organs in correct orientation
  • Germ layers give rise to different tissues
  • Must generate all tissue and cell types of body
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11
Q

Describe the initiation of gastrulation?

A
  • An invagination of cells within the caudal half of the epiblast - the primitive streak
  • Day 15 – embryo developing as a flattened disk – cells begin to progress through the primitive streak and the embryo begins to change shape
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12
Q

Describe the three layers formed during gastrulation?

A

Ectoderm: outermost of the three tissue layers in the embryo of a metazoan animal, which will produce the epidermis and nervous system of the adult
Mesoderm: one of the three tissue layers in the embryo of a metazoan animal, which will produce many internal organs of the adult such as the muscles, spine and circulatory system
Endoderm: one of the three tissue layers in the embryo of a metazoan animal, which will produce the digestive system and other internal organs of the adult

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13
Q

What’s the neural plate?

A

A thick, flat bundle of ectoderm formed in vertebrate embryos after induction by the notochord

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14
Q

Describe organogenesis in terms of the ectoderm.

A
  • The process of differentiation is regulated by cellular signalling cascades
  • One of the primary steps during organogenesis is the formation of the neural system
  • The ectoderm forms epithelial cells and tissues, as well as neuronal tissues
  • During the formation of the neural system, special signalling molecules called growth factors signal some cells at the edge of the ectoderm to become epidermis cells
  • The remaining cells in the centre form the neural plate
  • If the signalling by growth factors were disrupted, then the entire ectoderm would differentiate into neural tissue
  • The neural plate undergoes a series of cell movements where it rolls up and form the neural tube
  • In further development, the neural tube will give rise to the brain and the spinal cord
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15
Q

Describe organogenesis in terms of the mesoderm.

A
  • The mesoderm that lies on either side of the vertebrate neural tube will develop into the various connective tissues
  • A spatial pattern of gene expression reorganises the mesoderm into groups of cells called somites, with spaces between them
  • The somites will further develop into the ribs, lungs, and segmental (spine) muscles
  • The mesoderm also forms a structure called the notochord, which is rod-shaped and forms the central axis of the body
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16
Q

Describe organogenesis in terms of the endoderm.

A
  • The endoderm consists, at first, of flattened cells, which subsequently become columnar
  • It forms the epithelial lining of the whole of the digestive tube (except part of the mouth and pharynx) and the terminal part of the rectum
  • It also forms the lining cells of all the glands which open into the digestive tube, including those of the liver and pancreas; the epithelium of the auditory tube and tympanic cavity; the trachea, bronchi and air cells of the lungs; the urinary bladder and part of the urethra; and the follicle lining of the thyroid gland and thymus
  • Additionally, the endoderm forms internal organs including the stomach, the colon, the liver, the pancreas, the urinary bladder, the epithelial parts of the trachea, the lungs, the pharynx, the thyroid, the parathyroid, and the intestines
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17
Q

Describe the development of the cardiovascular system.

A
  • Begins around 22-23 days post-fertilisation
  • Visible on ventral surface
  • Continues through week 8
  • Heart beat begins day 22, circulation begins day 27-28
  • First organ to function in embryo
  • Required for embryonic and foetal growth
  • Formation of blood and blood vessels begins in the mesodermal wall of the yolk sac as well as in the wall of the chorion outside the embryo proper
  • By the beginning of the 5th week cardiogenesis is well underway and the embryonic circulation is functional – the liver takes over the role of haematopoiesis
  • Structures designed to facilitate separate systemic and pulmonary circulations form between 5th and 8th weeks of gestation, although a dual pump is not operational until immediately after birth
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18
Q

Describe the development of the nervous system.

A
  • Apparent after gastrulation
  • 19-21 days post-fertilisation
  • Neural tissue forms from ectoderm
  • Cephalic region – neural plate – gives rise to brain
  • Neural tube - along dorsal region – gives rise to spinal cord
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19
Q

Describe the neural tube closure. What are the issues related to this?

A
  • The neural plate rolls up to form the neural tube with neural crest cells forming at the boundary with the ectoderm
  • Folding of neural ectoderm to form tube
  • 23-26 days post-fertilisation
  • Important for development of spinal cord and brain
  • Neural tube defects – failure to close
  • exencephaly – fails to close in brain region
  • spina bifida – fails to close in spinal region
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20
Q

Describe the neural crest formation.

A
  • Cells that migrate out of dorsal neural tube
  • Incorporated in variety of tissues
  • These cells become:
  • neurones and glia of ANS
  • glial schwann cells of PNS
  • melanocytes of skin
  • bone, cartilage, muscle, connective tissue of face
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21
Q

Describe the development of the GI system.

A
  • Initially arises from endoderm week 2/3
  • Contributions from other germ layers week 4 onwards
  • mesoderm – mesentery, smooth muscle, blood vessels
  • ectoderm – enteric nervous system
  • Foregut – oral cavity, oesophagus, trachea, stomach
  • Midgut – small intestine and pancreas (intestines herniated during development and rotate to acquire adult morphology)
  • Hindgut – colon
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22
Q

Describe the development of the renal tract.

A
  • Develops in close association with genitals
  • Urogenital ridge
  • Development in 3 stages – pronephros (day 18), mesonephros (day 24), metanephros (day 35)
  • Branching morphogenesis
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23
Q

When’s the first ultrasound scan during pregnancy and what’s it for?

A

First ultrasound – 12 weeks

  • To check if the pregnancy is in the right place – location – (ectopic?)
  • To check if the pregnancy is viable – right size and heartbeat
  • To check for the number of foetuses
  • To give an indication of the date of pregnancy
  • To check for any defects in the cardiovascular system – mainly defects with the heart
  • Baby is fully formed at this point
  • Sonographer estimates when baby is due
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24
Q

When’s the second ultrasound scan and what’s it for?

A

Second ultrasound – 20 weeks

  • To check for any structural defects
  • To check if the ventral wall has closed properly
  • Usually find out gender
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25
Q

When is a pregnancy described as viable?

A

From when heart pulsations can be visualised within gestation sac

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26
Q

What are the two ways of doing an ultrasound during pregnancy? and which is better?

A
  • Transabdominal and transvaginal – transvaginal ultrasounds are more useful because the probe is closer to the uterus and so provides a better image, especially with increasing concerns regarding obesity, it’s better to image the uterus close up
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27
Q

What is the earliest indication of pregnancy but not a diagnosis?

A

A thickened endometrium

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28
Q

What are ultrasounds also used for during pregnancy?

A

For screening (along with blood tests) - but it gives a risk not an answer

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29
Q

Explain the usage of modern hormone assay techniques (ELISA) as pregnancy tests

A
  • Used to diagnose pregnancies
  • Pregnancy tests detect betahCG (a glycoprotein that is secreted by the placenta shortly after fertilisation) in the urine
  • It starts to be produced around 6 days after fertilisation
  • betahCG is in the blood and should double in 48 hours
  • test works by binding the hCG hormone, from either blood or urine, to an antibody and an indicator – the usual indicator is a pigment molecule, present in a line across a home pregnancy urine test
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30
Q

Explain what happens during the ELISA test.

A
  • urine applied to exposed end of strip
  • antibodies on first strip bind to hCG
  • dye activating enzymes attached to antibody
  • another antibody attached to hCG causing molecule to stick and allowing enzymes to cause change in colour
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31
Q

How reliable is the ELISA test?

A
  • now very sensitive
  • a positive test result is almost certainly correct
  • however, a negative test result is less reliable – the result may not be reliable if you don’t follow the instructions properly or take the test too early
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32
Q

What is the placenta for?

A
  • Mediates relationship between mother and baby
  • Entirely responsible for nourishing and supplying oxygen to the fetus
  • Fetal suppy line – acts as lungs/GI tract/kidney/liver
  • Growth and survival of fetus absolutely dependent on healthy, optimally functioning placenta
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33
Q

What are the 3 main functions of the placenta? Give more detail.

A
  1. Nutrient and gas exchange
  2. Hormone production and secretion
  3. Protective barrier
  • Placenta forms a protective barrier around the blastocyst
  • Placenta mediates implantation
  • Produces hormones that establish pregnancy
  • Provides nutrition to embryo
  • Protection from teratogens
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34
Q

How is the structure of the placenta appropriate for its function?

A
  • Large surface area – exchange

- Highly vascularised

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35
Q

What is the syncytiotrophoblast?

A
  • Outer layer of villi – multinucleated, continuous, thin

- Highly specialised cell type for nutrient and gas exchange, hormone production

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36
Q

What are the mechanisms of transfer in the placenta?

A
  • The placenta is not just a sieve
  • Tight regulation of transfer across syncytiotrophoblast
    1. Diffusion
    2. Facilitated diffusion
    3. Endocytosis/exocytosis
    4. Active transport
    Lipophilic substances – transcellular diffusion
    Hydrophilic substances, e.g. sugars, small molecules, metabolites – paracellular diffusion
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37
Q

Which hormones does the syncytiotrophoblast produce?

A
  • hCG
  • placental lactogen
  • placental growth hormone
  • progesterone
  • oestrogen
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38
Q

Why is hCG important in the maintenance of pregnancy?

A
  • prevents regression of corpus luteum

- essential for establishment of pregnancy

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39
Q

Why is hCG a marker of a normal placenta? How do levels of this hormone change, and what can unusual levels also suggest?

A
  • detectable in blood 24-48 hours after implantation
  • doubling every 48 hours
  • low levels in failing pregnancies (miscarriage)
  • high levels in Down’s syndrome
  • peaks at around 8 weeks gestation
  • linked to morning sickness
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40
Q

What steroid hormones that the placenta produces are important during pregnancy and why?

A

Progesterone
- primes endometrium for pregnancy
- inhibits myometrial contractility
- blockade of progesterone (e.g. mifepristone) used to induce abortion
- strengthens the cervical mucus plug to prevent infection
- stimulates the growth of breast tissue
Oestrogen
- increase uterine blood flow
- stimulates the growth of breast tissue & myometrium (uterus)

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41
Q

What is used to induce abortion?

A

Blockade of progesterone, e.g. Mifepristone

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42
Q

What are the maternal metabolic adaptions?

A
  • gains of fat stores
  • mobilisation of fat stores – insulin resistance (placental lactogen, placental growth hormone) – reduces maternal glucose uptake – glucose transfer to fetus prioritised – rapid fetal growth – mother uses fat stores
43
Q

What does the placenta act as a barrier against, how does it do this, and why is this important?

A
  • protection against toxins and drugs – not complete e.g. thalidomide
  • drugs classified according to teratogenic risk
  • significant proportion of pregnant women take drugs
  • 65% of pregnant women in UK given prescription drugs

Multidrug resistance proteins (MDRs)

  • Cell surface transporters
  • Selectively pump toxins out of placenta
  • Protects the fetus
  • Variable expression levels – reason for different levels of susceptibility in different pregnancies
44
Q

The fetus is semi-allogenic (maternal and paternal antigens), so why is it not rejected by the maternal immune system?

A
  1. Altered maternal immune system in pregnancy

2. Highly polymorphic MHC class I antigens not expressed by syncytiotrophoblast

45
Q

What is the first sign of early pregnancy? and when does it develop?

A

The gestational sac - develops day 12-13 of development (i.e. day 27 since LMP)

46
Q

What is visible after the gestational sac? and when is it visible from?

A

The yolk sac - visible from around 37 days post LMP

47
Q

When is the fetal heart beat visible from and what is the importance of the presence of pulsations?

A

Visible from 45 days - presence of pulsations is best prognostic sign on an ongoing pregnancy

48
Q

When do all the major organs form?

A

All major organs form within weeks 6 and 10 (4-8 from ovulation)

49
Q

The transformation of the ultrasonic ‘blob’ to a recognisable feuts occurs at around which week?

A

10 weeks

50
Q

Define these different types of social supports described by Wills: esteem support, support, companionship, instrumental support?

A
  • Esteem support: whereby other people increase one’s own self-esteem
  • Support: whereby other people are available to offer advice
  • Companionship: which involves support through activities
  • Instrumental support: which involves physical help
51
Q

Define structural support and functional support.

A
  • Structural support (or network support): which refers to the type, size, density and frequency of contract with the network of people available to any individual
  • Functional support: which refers to the perceived benefit provided by this structure – also been classified into available functional support (i.e. potential access to support) and enacted functional support (i.e. actual support received)
52
Q

What are protein hormones? and how are they controlled?

A
  • Polypeptide hormones (known as gonadotrophins) – e.g. LH and FSH – polypeptide hormones control the steroid hormones
  • Hypothalamus and pituitary axis control the polypeptide hormones (hypothalamus and pituitary gland are connected by a little vein – HPO axis – the hypothalamus signals to the anterior pituitary (by releasing GnRH through vein) which signals to the ovaries (by releasing gonadotrophins) and then the oocytes and sex steroids are stimulated
53
Q

What is the mode of action of protein hormones?

A
  • Peptide and protein hormones being larger in molecular size do not enter cells and for their entry into the cells, special transport system is required, e.g. insulin
  • In general protein hormones react with specific receptors present in the cell membrane of the target cells
    After binding to the surface receptors, there are two mechanisms of action:
  • The hormone may induce alteration in the permeability of the membrane for ions or substrates
  • Or, it may produce a second messenger within the cell to transmit the signals of the hormone
54
Q

What are steroid hormones?

A
  • Steroid – small, organic molecules, hydrophobic – travel through the blood in association with binding proteins because they’re not very soluble – e.g. oestrogen and progesterone

Steroid hormones (cholesterol derivatives)

  • Glucocorticoid (cortisol)
  • Oestrogen
  • Testosterone
  • Progesterone
  • Vitamin D (calcitriol)
55
Q

What is the mode of action of steroid hormones?

A
  1. Simple diffusion: the lipid soluble hormones diffuse through the cell membrane to enter the cell
  2. Hormone binds to the intracellular receptor composed of a ‘hormone binding’ domain, a ‘DNA binding’ domain and a ‘amino terminal’ which interacts with other transcription factors – binding of the hormone leads to exposure of DNA binding zone
  3. Hormone-receptor complex enters nucleus and dimerizes
  4. Binding to HREs: hormone-receptor dimers bind to hormone (steroid) receptor elements (SREs or HREs) of DNA
  5. Transcription: DNA transcription leads to formation of mRNA
  6. Translation: mRNA undergoes translation to produce new proteins
  7. Physiological action of hormones
56
Q

What is oogenesis?

A

The production or development of an ovum.

57
Q

Define ovulation.

A

The release of a secondary oocyte from the ovaries.

58
Q

What stage of meiosis are pre-puberty, primary oocytes arrested in?

A

Meiosis I

59
Q

In mature women, when is the first meiotic division completed?

A

Before ovulation.

60
Q

The ovulated oocyte is arrested in which stage of meiosis?

A

2nd meiotic metaphase

61
Q

When is the 2nd meiotic division completed?

A

Not until after fertilisation

62
Q

Explain how follicular growth is controlled by FSH and LH.

A
  • 15-20 primary follicles are recruited each month
  • This is regulated by internal signalling (paracrine) pathways that self-amplify to generate secondary follicles
  • FSH then makes them grow; some die away (atresia)
  • 1 dominant, with LH receptors on its granulosa cells
  • Granulosa cells in the 2ndary (pre-antral) follicle have receptors for FSH
  • FSH makes the follicle grow
63
Q

At what stage in the development of the oocyte, does FSH come in?

A

Secondary follicle stage

64
Q

Give two examples of androgens.

A

Androstenedione, testosterone

65
Q

What is the most important and most potent oestrogen?

A

estradiol 17beta

66
Q

Describe how sex steroids are synthesised.

A
  • Everything comes from acetate via cholesterol
  • Circulating cholesterol is imported into thecal cells
  • Steroids are made from the cholesterol
  • Gives rise to progesterone and both the androgens
  • Both androgens are the biosynthetic precursors for the oestrogens – estrone and 17B-estradiol
  • Aromatase in the granulosa cells converts androgens into oestrogens
67
Q

Expanding secondary follicles will die unless what?

A

Unless the LH surge coincides with the appearance of LH receptors on both thecal and granulosa cells

68
Q

What does LH stimulate?

A
  • Completion of 1st meiotic division

- Progesterone secretion from the corpus luteum

69
Q

What is the secondary oocyte ovulated within

A

The cumulus mass

70
Q

What is the corpus luteum?

A

The residual structure from the secondary oocyte that stays in ovaries functioning for about a week after ovulation.

71
Q

Why is the maintenance of the corpus luteum important? and how is it maintained?

A
  • Maintenance of the corpus luteum is important
  • Corpus luteum is the source of that combination of oestrogen (estradiol-17B) and progesterone in the secretory or luteal phase – until the luteal regresses
  • The corpus luteum needs hormonal signal from the embryo in order to continue its life beyond that week – LH on its own will not support it for longer than a week on its own
  • LH is required for its short-term maintenance
72
Q

Explain the whole process of oogenesis. (the confusing parts)

A
  • When a girl gets their first period, and each period from then, a primary oocyte completes its first meiotic division – in this division the chromosomes divide equally, then there is an unequal division of cytoplasm – producing a secondary oocyte and a polar body (not a functional oocyte – instead it degenerates and dies)
  • The second division is also unequal with half the chromosomes going to a very small degenerate polar body and half of the chromosomes being retained by the ovum – in this way the ovum achieves its haploid state while conserving as much cytoplasm as possible
  • In the ovaries, each oocyte is surrounded by a number of follicle cells to produce a follicle
  • When the menstrual cycle begins a few primary oocytes begin to grow larger and there’s an increase in number of follicle cells and so increasing the size of the follicle too
  • The oocyte is only viable for up to 24 hours after ovulation – if it isn’t fertilised by a sperm within this time period, then the oocyte never completes the second meiotic division, so it never becomes an ovum
  • However, if the secondary oocyte is penetrated (not fertilisation yet) by a sperm, it immediately finishes its second meiotic division and releases a polar body and then becomes a zygote as the nuclei of the sperm and egg fuse together (fertilisation)
73
Q

Describe the process of fertilisation.

A
  • Fertilisation occurs in the end of the fallopian tube away from the uterus
  • The egg and layer of cells called the Corona Radiata are ovulated from an ovarian follicle and picked up the fallopian tube
  • The tube pulls it inside where the sperm can find it
  • For fertilisation to happen the egg must be mature, which means that it has completed the process of meiosis to the metaphase II stage, so it’s ready to accept a sperm
  • The egg is only capable of being fertilised for about 24 hours after ovulation
  • Spermatozoa can live within the female reproductive tract for several days and still maintain fertilising potential
  • Therefore, intercourse can occur up to several days prior to ovulation
  • The sperm push through the Corona Radiata layer and the remnants of the cumulus oophorus
  • The sperm binds to specific receptors on the zona pellucida (outer shell of the egg), which triggers their acrosomes to release digestive enzymes – the spermatozoa undergo the acrosomal reaction
  • A series of steps allows the sperm to penetrate the shell and finally bind to the outer egg membrane (oolemma), after a few minutes their outer membranes fuse and the egg pulls the sperm inside
  • Then the sperm head can release its contents into the centre of the egg
  • Once a single sperm has penetrated, an internal reaction occurs in the eggs which securely blocks other sperm from entering
  • The female pronucleus and male pronucleus form
  • The two pronuclei are joined together – it’s now a zygote
74
Q

Is there growth in the fertilised egg during pre-implantation period?

A

No, there’s no net growth.

75
Q

Describe cleavage divisions.

A
  1. There is the initial division forming two cells – the pre-embryo, and is completed 30 hours after fertilisation – subsequent divisions occur every 10-12 hours
  2. After 3 days, the morula stage is reached – the morula consists of around 8 blastomeres (the cells produced by mitotic divisions), contained within the zona pellucida
  3. The morula develops into a blastula (a hallow sphere of blastomeres, surrounding an inner fluid-filled cavity called the blastoceole)
  4. The blastula further develops into a blastocyst (a blastula but with the addition of an inner cell mass called the embryoblast, which are pluripotent stem cells that will give rise to the embryo) – the outer layer is called the trophoblast, the insulator and supplier of nutrients, which will give rise to the placenta – the blastocyst contains roughly 32 cells (ICM = 12 cells, trophoblasts = 20-24 cells)
76
Q

Describe what happens to the endometrium during the menstrual cycle.

A

The inner lining of the uterus is called the endometrium – this mucous membrane changes throughout the women’s menstrual cycle – it becomes a proliferative endometrium before ovulation occurs as it develops into a thick layer that is rich with blood vessels to prepare the womb for pregnancy – if fertilisation doesn’t occur, the endometrium is shed (to 1-2mm), which leads to menstrual bleeding

77
Q

What are the two phases of a woman’s menstrual cycle? and what influences them?

A

A woman’s menstrual cycle has two phases: proliferative and secretory – the proliferative phase occurs under the influence of the hormone oestrogen, which stimulates endometrial growth and thickening – during this phase, the proliferative endometrium undergoes cell multiplication and tissue growth (endometrium rises to about 6-8mm) – if ovulation occurs, the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which makes the endometrium thicker, creating an ideal environment for implantation – this is known as secretory endometrium phase

78
Q

How do the phases in the menstrual cycle and ovarian cycle correspond?

A

The proliferative phase corresponds to the follicular phase, and the secretory phase corresponds to the luteal phase

79
Q

What are the hormones involved in the menstrual and ovarian cycle? and what do they do?

A
  • Oestrogen made by the ovarian follicle – it drives the proliferation of the endometrium
  • Oestrogen stimulates the expression of progesterone receptors in the target tissue of the endometrium
  • After ovulation, ovaries start to make the combination of oestrogen and progesterone
  • LH stimulates ovulation
  • Once the egg has been released at ovulation, the empty follicle that’s left in the ovary is called the corpus luteum – this then releases progesterone (in a higher amount) and oestrogen (in a lower amount) – these hormones prepare the lining of the uterus for potential pregnancy
  • If the released egg is not fertilised and pregnancy doesn’t occur, the corpus luteum breaks down and the secretion of oestrogen and progesterone stops – because these hormones are no longer present, the lining of the womb starts to fall away and is removed from the body through menstruation
80
Q

What is the importance of the secretory phase?

A

The endometrium is preparing itself in case there is a pregnancy.

81
Q

When is there negative and positive feedback between the ovaries and the hypothalamus?

A

During most of the cycle there is a negative feedback system however there is positive feedback between days 12-14

82
Q

Ovarian cycle - how does a primordial follicle turn into a dominant follicle?

A
  • Primordial follicles – million
  • Primary follicles
  • Secondary follicles
  • Tertiary follicles
  • Dominant follicle

Cohorts of 20 eggs

Some are lost quite early on – process called atresia – happens to primary, secondary and tertiary follicles

Only a single follicle becomes dominant

83
Q

How do primordial germ cells become primordial follicles?

A
  • Primordial germ cells migrate from yolk sac to fetal ovary
  • Mitosis but incomplete cytokinesis: interconnected cells (germ cell cysts / nests)
  • Oocytes enter meiosis (arrested in PROPHASE of meiosis I)
  • Breakdown of intracellular bridges
  • Enclosure of oocytes
  • Becomes primordial follicles
84
Q

What are the endometrial changes through the menstrual cycle?

A

Proliferative phase: oestrogen-dependent
- Endometrial lining thickens
- Glands enlarge
- Bloody supply increases (angiogenesis)
- Increase in progesterone receptors
Secretory phase:
- Progesterone stimulates glandular secretion
- Progesterone stimulates spiral (helicine) arteries

85
Q

What is menstruation? and what happens before and during it?

A
  • Shedding of superficial layer (functionalis) of endometrium
  • Withdrawal of sex steroid support (if no pregnancy, the luteum corpus is not supported past a week and so the LH levels drop and so do the sex steroid levels)
  • 2 days before bleeding:
  • increased coiling of spiral arteries
  • vascular stasis
  • inflammatory cell infiltrate
  • Menstruation
  • vasoconstriction
  • tissue hypoxia
  • connective tissue breakdown
  • fragmentation
  • coagulation factors control blood loss
  • signals for angiogenesis (e.g. VEGF)
86
Q

What are the two types of oral contraceptive pill? and how do the hormones work?

A
  1. Combined oral contraceptive pill
    - oestrogen and progesterone (e.g. desogestrel)
  2. Progesterone-only pill
    - the ‘mini-pill’ - may be started immediately after delivery as it has not effects on lactation - must be taken same time of the day each day

Progesterone:
- Suppresses GnRH which suppresses FSH and LH secretion – this means that the follicle can’t develop and there is no LH surge, therefore there is no ovulation
- Thickens cervical mucus and alters fallopian tube peristalsis – makes the endometrium hostile to implantation and the cervix relatively impermeable
Oestrogen
- Suppresses FSH secretion (negative feedback) which inhibits follicular development
- Increases the number of progesterone receptors

87
Q

What are the three major ways that the combined pill prevents pregnancy?

A
  1. The synthetic oestrogen stops your body from producing two hormones that are involved in the menstrual cycle: FSH and LH – this prevents your ovaries from producing an egg because it stops your eggs from ripening and ovulating
  2. The synthetic progesterone thickens the mucus at the entrance of your womb so that sperm can’t get through to fertilise your eggs
  3. The synthetic progesterone also thins the lining of the uterus, making it difficult for a fertilised egg to implant itself
88
Q

What are the adaptions of the fetal lungs at birth? and how does the fetus get oxygen before birth? (and role of surfactant)

A
  • Fetus sits in a bag of fluid – cannot use its lungs for gaseous exchange – fetus is relatively hypoxic – it uses the placenta instead – must change at birth to oxygenate via lungs
  • Circulation changes from using placenta and heart to using lungs and heart
  • At birth, placenta bloody supply abruptly stops, baby takes first breaths to aerate lungs and baby closes shunts (ductus venosus, ductus arteriosus, foramen ovale)
  • Umbilical cord is cut, baby takes first breath (stimulated by cool air) (and surfactant produced which makes lungs stretchy), pressure in right side of heart falls, foramen ovale closes, rising oxygen closes ductus arteriosus
  • Fetus looks pink as oxygen rises from 65% to 95%
89
Q

Describe the physiology of labour - the different stages.

A
  • Ripening (gets softer) and dilatation of cervix
  • Myometrial (smooth muscle) contractions
  • Rupture of fetal membranes – amnion and chorion – preferably in front of the baby’s head
  • Delivery of infant
  • Delivery of placenta
90
Q

What are the mechanisms of labour?

A
Cervical ripening and dilatation 
-	Mechanical stimuli 
-	Inflammatory mediators 
Myometrial contractions 
-	Inflammatory mediators
-	Hormones 
-	Cell-cell communications
91
Q

What are the cervical changes that take place during labour? and what causes these to take place?

A
  • Ripening and softening (latent phase)
  • 85% of the cervix is connective tissue
  • It has to shorten and become paper thin – gets softer
  • It does this by leucocyte infiltration, proteases (break down tissue) and prostaglandin E2
92
Q

What are prostaglandins? and what actions do they induce? and what are they inhibited by?

A
  • Pro-inflammatory mediators
  • Lipid metabolites
  • Produced locally in site of inflammation
  • Induce variety of actions:
  • constriction or dilatation of smooth muscle cells
  • alter vascular tone and permeability
  • regulate calcium movement
  • sensitise neurones to pain
  • induce fever
  • Inhibited by NSAIDs, e.g. ibuprofen / aspirin
93
Q

What are the two prostaglandins that we need to know about? and what are the synthetic versions used for?

A
  • Relevant ones for us = PGE2 (vasodilation) and PGF2alpha (constrictor)
  • Use a synthetic version of PGE2 to induce labour
  • Use a synthetic version of PGF2alpha to make the womb constrict and contract and prevent postpartum haemorrhage
     - both of the above induce labour
94
Q

How does myometrial contractility change throughout pregnancy? and what causes these changes?

A
  • Myometrium changes through pregnancy
  • During pregnancy
  • growth to enable expansion with fetal growth (oestrogen: smooth muscle hypertrophy (size) and hyperplasia (number))
  • suppression of myometrial contractions (progesterone)
  • Preparation before birth to be ready for contractile efforts – oxytocin
95
Q

What is oxytocin? what does it do? how does it act? and what is the synthetic version used for?

A
  • Peptide hormone
  • secreted by posterior pituitary
  • under hypothalamic control (control by the hypothalamus)
  • pulsatile
  • increased pulsatility during labour
  • Also synthesised by uterus at term (the completion of a normal length of pregnancy)
  • Acts via oxytocin receptors on myometrial cells
  • Stimulates myometrial contractions
  • Synthesis version used to augment labour and use a drug that inhibits the receptors to treat women with pre-term labour
96
Q

What does PGF2alpha do? how does it do this? and what produces it?

A
  • Stimulates myometrial contractions
  • Stimulates action potentials and Ca2+ channels
  • Produced by decidual and fetal membranes and also by leukocytes infiltrating uterus
97
Q

What are important for the activation of cervial ripening and myometrial contractions?

A
  • PGE2 important for cervical ripening

- oxytocin and PGF2alpha important for cervical dilatation and myometrial contractions

98
Q

Explain what is meant be ‘functional’ progesterone withdrawal in terms of inducing childbirth.

A
  • Blocking progesterone in humans does induce ‘delivery’
  • RU486-induced (mifepristone) termination of pregnancy
  • Evidence for ‘functional’ progesterone withdrawal at term
  • changes in responsiveness of myometrium to progesterone
  • Altered balance of progesterone receptor (PR) subtypes
  • PRB = active form in myometrium, PRA = inhibitory to PRB
  • increased PRA:PRB ratio at term in myometrium (10 fold increase)
  • less signalling through PRB (due to more inhibition by PRA), so less progesterone action (due to less signalling)
  • Thus progesterone withdrawal may also be important in humans
99
Q

Explain the role of oestrogen in childbirth. How do levels of oestrogen change leading up to childbirth?

A
  • Increase in oestrogen production in lead-up to delivery
  • Increased oestrogen receptor (ERalpha) in myometrium at term
  • occurs simultaneously to reduced progesterone receptor B
  • Switch from progesterone to oestrogen dominance at term
  • Oestrogen involved in activation of myometrium
  • stimulates gap junctions (increases connections between cells)
  • increases oxytocin production and oxytocin receptors
  • increases PG (prostaglandin) synthesis
100
Q

What stimulates the changes in oestrogen and progesterone?

A
  • Fetal HPA (steroid producing) axis is suppressed during pregnancy
  • Shortly before birth, HPA axis matures
  • Cortisol and DHEA made by adrenal gland

Cortisol
- Upregulates COX-2
- Increases PGF2alpha and PGE2
DHEA
- It’s a substrate for oestrogen production by placenta
- Responsible for surge in oestrogen before parturition (maybe)

101
Q

How does the placenta play a part in parturition?

A
  • Placenta synthesises CRH
  • Increased levels at term
  • May trigger fetal HPA activation
  • ‘placental’ clock
  • dictates timing of delivery
  • evidence that CRH levels are higher in women who deliver prematurely
102
Q

Describe fetal circulation.

A
  • Fetus sits in bag of fluid
  • cannot use tis lungs for gaseous exchange (because lungs filled with fluid)
  • fetus is relatively hypoxic (65-70%)
  • Uses the placenta instead
  • circulation therefore different
  • Must change at birth to oxygenate via lungs
  • Oxygenated blood comes through the vein in the umbilical cord – more oxygenated than corresponding arteries
  • The vein comes in through the abdomen and its got to take a short cut then to the heart
  • It has a short cut through the liver called the Ductus venosus – so it short cuts into the right side of the heart
  • So here you have oxygenated blood going into the right side of the heart
  • You don’t want to send the blood to the lungs because there’s just fluid there – no oxygen
  • You have two shortcuts, missing out a lot of the left side of the heart and going to the rest of the body
  • One short cut through a hole in the heart called the foramen ovale – hole between the two atria – enables oxygenated blood to take a short cut into the aorta
  • A little bit of blood will go into the lungs to enable them to develop
  • Another short cut called the ductus arteriosus which connects the pulmonary arteries to the aorta

Summary:
Whilst the baby is still attached to the placenta, it has shunts to maximise its circulation:
1. Ductus arteriosus: in the embryo, connects the right ventricle (pulmonary artery) and the aorta
2. Ductus venosus: in the embryo, bypasses the liver (placenta>bypasses liver>right atrium of embryo)
3. Foramen ovale: in the embryo, connects the right and left atria together

103
Q

What happens to fetal circulation at birth?

A

Birth: placental blood supply abruptly stops – baby takes first breaths to aerate lungs and baby closes shunts (3 shunts – ductus venosus, ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale)

  • Umbilical cord is cut
  • Baby takes a breath
  • stimulated by cold
  • surfactant (hormone in the lungs – makes lungs stretchy) – increase before birth
  • Pressure in right side of heart falls (due to surfactant and pressure change in lungs)
  • foramen ovale closes
  • Rising oxygen closes ductus arteriosus – release of prostaglandins
  • Fetus looks pin as oxygen rises from 65% to 95%
104
Q

What percentage of women:

  • have induced labour
  • deliver using instruments
  • have a c-section
  • deliver at home
A
  • 30% will have labour induced – artificially started off
  • 10-15% deliver using instruments – forceps/ventouse
  • 20-25% will deliver by Caesarean
  • 1-5% will deliver at home