Case 7 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the treatments used to treat breast cancer?

A
  • tamoxifen
  • herceptin
  • breast conserving surgery
  • mastectomy
  • axillary node clearance
  • radiotherapy
  • chemotherapy
  • oophorectomy
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2
Q

What is Tamoxifen? and how does it work?

A

Tamoxifen (ER)

  • Selective oestrogen receptor modulators, or SERMs, selectively stimulate or inhibit the oestrogen receptors
  • Tamoxifen is a SERM
  • It blocks the action of oestrogen (an antagonist) in breast tissue by binding to the oestrogen receptors, thereby preventing oestrogen molecules from binding to it
  • This means there is no change in shape of the receptor – therefore coactivators cannot bind to it, thus no transcription
  • Anti-oestrogen drug
  • If remove oestrogen from the blood stream, the growth factor stimulus is stopped, then the cancer cells will stop growing and then they apoptose and die
  • Tamoxifen is a hormone therapy drug used to treat ER+ breast cancer in pre-menopausal and post-menopausal women and in men
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3
Q

What is Herceptin? and what does it do?

A
  • Herceptin is a monoclonal antibody that binds to HER2
  • This prevents dimerization, thus preventing the activation of pathways leading to cell proliferation and cell survival
  • It is a form of targeted therapy
  • It is also used as an adjuvant therapy, after surgery
  • Herceptin – monoclonal antibody that links onto another growth receptor called HER2 – block receptor means breast cancer will stop growing and apoptose – 1 in 5 of breast cancers have over expression of this growth factor
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4
Q

What breast conserving surgery?

A

Breast conserving surgery (lumpectomy) (wide local excision)

  • Removal of a breast lump, together with some surrounding tissue
  • Followed by radiotherapy treatment to the remaining breast tissue
  • The operation removes the least amount of breast tissue, but leaves a small scar and sometimes a small dent in the breast
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5
Q

What is a mastectomy?

A
  • Removal of entire breast tissue because of the size of the tumour
  • Radical mastectomy: removal of entire breast tissue, pectoralis major and minor and lymph nodes
  • Modified radical mastectomy: removal of entire breast tissue, pectoralis minor and lymph nodes, but not pectoralis major
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6
Q

What is axillary node clearance?

A

Removal of some (sentinel node) or all of the lymph nodes in the axilla to check for malignancy

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7
Q

What is radiotherapy treatment? when is it given? how does it work?

A
  • Given to the conserved breast after wide local excision to reduce local recurrence and to the chest wall after mastectomy
  • The ionising radiation damages the DNA of the exposed tissue, leading to cell death – to avoid healthy cells being affected, shaped radiation beams are aimed from several angles of exposure providing a larger absorbed dose there than in the surrounding, healthy tissue
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8
Q

What is chemotherapy? what is the aim? when is it used?

A
  • Use of anti-cancer (cytotoxic) drugs to destroy malignant cells
  • The aim of chemotherapy is to do the maximum damage to cancer cells while causing the minimum damage to healthy tissue
  • Chemotherapy is often administered as adjuvant treatment, following surgery
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9
Q

What is oophorectomy? why is this performed?

A
  • Surgical procedure for the removal of an ovary or ovaries
  • This is often performed due to diseases such as cancer; as prophylaxis to reduce the chances of developing ovarian cancer or breast cancer
  • Women who are high-risk BRCA mutation carriers are at a substantially higher risk of developing breast cancer or ovarian cancer
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10
Q

What is often given after surgery and radiotherapy?

A
  • Adjuvant (applied after initial treatment for cancer, especially to suppress secondary tumour formation) therapy – after surgery and radiotherapy
  • Adjuvant drugs in case – even if nothing in scans
  • Stop metasteses before they may be picked up on scans – they have to be 2-3 cm in diameter to be picked up – already a lot of malignant cells – quite difficult for chemotherapy to destroy all that
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11
Q

What is a sentinel node biopsy?

A
  • Those profuse lymphatic pathways in the breast tends to go through a single lymph node as a way into the body - sentinel node
  • Biopsy has become a standard of care
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12
Q

What are indications for mastectomy? (over wide local incision & radiotherapy)

A
  1. Multifocality (more than one lump)
  2. Local recurrence (you can’t have radiotherapy more than once in a particular part of your body)
  3. DCIS or invasion >4cm
  4. BRCA gene mutation
  • Roughly a third of women with breast cancer have a mastectomy
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13
Q

What are the options for reconstructive surgery?

A
  • Implant behind skin
  • T-Dap – from back
  • Tummy – use tissue from here
  • Immediate or delayed reconstruction
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14
Q

Describe interphase of the cell cycle.

A
  • G1, S phase (DNA synthesis), G2
  • G1 = diploid, G2 = tetraploid
  • G0 is a stage that differentiating cells sit in once they’ve exited the cell – most cells are sitting in G0
  • For some cells they stay in G0 permanently, for example cardiomyocytes and neurones – can’t re-enter the cell cycle, however things like hepatocytes are very good at re-entering the cell cycle
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15
Q

What controls cell cycle progression?

A

CONTROL OF CELL CYCLE PROGRESSION (some proteins change concentration during the cell cycle, e.g. Cyclin B
- Cyclin B expression peaks during mitosis (only present during late G2 and mitosis)
- Essential for controlling transition between G2 and mitosis
- Cyclin B associates with cyclin dependent kinase 1 (CDK1) to activate CDK1
- CDK1 adds phosphates to proteins to change the function of those proteins
- Cyclin B/CDK1 phosphorylate proteins to cause mitosis
Phosphorylating these:
- Histone1 – chromosome condensation
- MAP – spindle formation
- Lamin – nuclear envelope breakdown

Different cyclin/CDK partners are required for progression through different steps of the cell cycle
CyclinD / CDK4 – transition from G0 into G1
CyclinE / CDK2 – G1 to S phase
CyclinA / CDK2 – to get through whole of S phase and complete it
CyclinA / CDK1 – G2 to mitosis
CyclinB / CDK1 – G2 to mitosis

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16
Q

What regulates cell growth?

A
  • Reducing myc function decrease cell size
  • The more myc you have the faster the cell will grow
  • If all the cells are smaller the whole organism will be smaller, even if there are the same number of cells in each organism
  • Increasing myc function leads to enlarged cells
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17
Q

What are the different types of cell death?

A

Necrosis – accidental cell death due to injury which releases cellular contents leading to an inflammatory response

Apoptosis – the organised destruction of a cell which is initiated by either a signal from a neighbouring cell or the cell itself due to sensed internal damage – this process doesn’t cause an inflammatory response and is commonly referred to as programmed cell death – it’s planned – any broken off bits of the cells are phagocytosed and the parts are reused
- Gets rid of damaged cells or unwanted cells (e.g. areas between fingers and toes)

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18
Q

What regulates apoptosis?

A

Extracellular signals and intracellular signals can induce apoptosis

  • Extrinsic – neighbouring cells kills a damaged or infected cell
  • e.g. CD8 cell recognising a cell has aa viral infection and killing it – does this through TNFalpha or FAZ-L – cytotoxic T cell will produce the protein, which will bind to its receptor on the cell, which will cause that receptor to trimerise – once receptor is trimerized, it will recruit DISC (death induced signalling complex) – once you’ve assembled DISC, it will activate a set of proteases called caspases – once these are activated, the cell will be destroyed – they chop up proteins inside the cell that stop the cell from working
  • Intrinsic – a cell recognises that it is damaged, and it will control the localisation of the protein Bax (normally cytosolic) – it will add to the outer membrane of the mitochondria – there it will make a pore, which means that proteins (e.g. cytochrome C) found in the intramembranous space will escape – once cytochrome C has escaped, it will activate the proteases, caspases, and the cell will die
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19
Q

Describe familial cancers. (percentage of cancers, type of mutation, mutation of what, what else is necessary, susceptibility, syndromic, example)

A
  • 1% of all cancers
  • Single gene mutations (Mendelian disorders)
  • Most are inherited mutations of tumour suppressor genes
  • Further genetic events are necessary – even though the mutated gene is inherited, it isn’t sufficient for malignancy
  • The inherited mutated gene increases cancer susceptibility – significant inherited predisposition
  • Syndromic – they can have more than one change as part of the condition, not just the cancer
  • Example: BRCA1 gene which is a predisposition to breast and ovarian cancer
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20
Q

Describe sporadic cancers. (percentage of cancers, predisposition, result of what, results in what)

A
  • 99% of all cancers
  • No significant inherited predisposition
  • Result of exposure to carcinogenic agents and unrepaired DNA replication errors
  • Results in somatic activation/inactivation of cancer genes – somatic genetic alterations
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21
Q

Compare familial and sporadic cancers.

A

Familial:

  • early onset (already had one mutation)
  • > 1 tumour of same type (because all of the cells are carrying first mutation)
  • other types of tumours
  • tumour cells: both copies of TSG inactivated
  • all other cells: one copy of TSG inactivated

Sporadic:

  • later onset
  • single tumour usually
  • no other tumours usually
  • tumour cells: both copies of TSG inactivated
  • all other cells: normal
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22
Q

What are the general types of cancer?

A
  • Adenoma: benign tumour of the glands
  • Carcinoma: malignant tumour of epithelial tissue (more than 90% of all cancers)
  • Lymphoma: lymphocytes or lymphatic system
  • Sarcoma: malignant tumour of stromal tissue (stromal cells are connective tissue cells of an organ found in the loose connective tissue – these are most often associated with the uterine mucosa and the ovary as well as the haematopoietic system and elsewhere)
  • Blastoma: immature/pre-cursor cells (dendrites – white blood cells)
  • Papilloma: benign epithelial tumour – may arise from skin, mucous membrane, or glandular ducts – protrude from the surface
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23
Q

What are the differences between benign and malignant tumours?

A
  1. Benign tumours
    - Capsule surrounds tumour
    - Well differentiated cells
    - Structure is similar to tissue organ
    - Low mitotic activity – slow rate of growth
    - No invasion of surrounding tissue
    - No metastasis
  2. Malignant tumours
    - No capsule
    - Lack of differentiation (anaplasia)
    - High mitotic activity – rapid rate of growth
    - Invasion of surrounding tissue
    - Metastasis – cause multiple organ failure
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24
Q

What is tumour staging and grading?

A

Grading – how bad it looks
Staging – how far its got

Tumour grading:

  • An assessment of the degree of differentiation of a tumour
  • Correlates with how aggressive it behaves
  • Only for malignant tumours
Tumour staging: 
Based on three main features 
-	Size of primary tumour 
-	Extent of lymph node disease
-	Any blood-borne metastasis
Sometimes quoted as ‘TNM’ (tumour, node, metastasis) 

The TNM system
T = size of tumour (T1 to T4)
N = extent of lymph node involvement (N0 to N3)
M = distant metastasis (M0 to M1)

  • Criteria different for each tumour
  • Better prediction of outcome than grade, for most tumours
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25
Q

Explain the significance of the oestrogen receptor. Where is it present? what does oestrogen do to it? what does this complex do? what happens in breast cells?

A
  • Oestrogen receptor present in the nucleus of certain target cells in the body
  • Oestrogen molecule enters passes through the target cell’s membrane and enters the nucleus
  • Oestrogen binds to its complementary receptor in the nucleus
  • The shape of the receptor changes
  • Oestrogen-receptor complex then binds to specific DNA sites, called oestrogen response elements, which are located near genes that are controlled by oestrogen
  • Oestrogen-receptor complex binds to coactivator proteins and more nearby genes become active
  • Hepatocytes: oestrogen increases the amount of HDL cholesterol and decreases the amount of LDL cholesterol
  • Breast cells: oestrogen causes cell proliferation of the cells lining the milk glands, thereby preparing the breast to produce milk if the woman should become pregnant – then oestrogen levels deplete at the end of the menstrual cycle, these cells deteriorate and die
  • Bones: regulate bone formation (osteoblasts) and bone resorption (osteoclasts) and epiphyseal plate closure
  • Uterus: growth of endometrium in menstrual cycle
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26
Q

What is the importance of this ER receptor in breast cancer? and what is the treatment for breast cancers that are ER positive?

A
  • Mutation of a gene that controls proliferation occurs
  • This could be that of a proto-oncogene or tumour suppressor gene
  • This mutation is passed down to the daughter cells
  • Later, more mutations in these altered cells can lead to uncontrolled proliferation and the onset of cancer
  • Oestrogen doesn’t cause the mutation, oestrogen increases the rate of proliferation of cells (even the mutated cells possessing the ER)
  • This increases the total number of mutant cells
  • These cells are at an increased risk of becoming malignant, so the chances that cancer may actually develop increases
  • Treatment: tamoxifen
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27
Q

Describe how the progesterone receptor (PR) works. What is the treatment?

A
  • Progesterone receptor found in the cytoplasm of target cells
  • When no binding hormone is present the carboxyl terminal inhibits transcription
  • When progesterone binds to the receptor, there is a structural change that removes the inhibitory action
  • After progesterone binds to the receptor, restructuring with dimerization follows and the complex enters the nucleus and binds to DNA
  • Transcription takes place, resulting in formation of messenger RNA that is translated by ribosomes to produce specific proteins
  • Treatment: progesterone antagonists, antiprogestins
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28
Q

Describe the human epidermal growth factor 2 receptor (HER2). How does it work? what does it cause?

A
  • There are 4 HER: HER1, HER2, HER3, HER4
  • Growth factors (ligands), bind to either HER1, HER3 or HER4
  • This causes them to dimerise with either another receptor that is the same as it or another receptor from the HER family
  • HER2 is called an ‘orphan receptor’ because it does not bind to a ligand
  • HER2 dimerises with ligand-bound HER1, HER3 or HER4
  • Receptor dimerization activates signalling pathways inside the cell
  • These pathways lead to cell growth, proliferation, and survival – this is done by activating the protein cyclin D1
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29
Q

What is the importance of HER2 in terms of breast cancer?

A
  • Mutation in the gene encoding HER2 may lead to its overproduction and overexpression
  • Mutated cells have extra copies of the HER2
  • In the absence of a ligand, two HER2 dimerise to activate the intracellular pathway, leading to the activation of cyclin D1
  • The extra HER2 protein causes increased signal pathway activation, which contributes to the uncontrolled growth and survival of these cancers
  • Breast tumours that overexpress HER2 protein are more aggressive than other breast tumours
30
Q

Describe the epidemiology of cancer. Chance of developing breast cancer? Most common cancers? Cancers with fastest increase/decrease in incidence?

A
  • There is a 1/8 chance of a female developing breast cancer during her life in the UK
  • Breast, prostate, lung and bowel cancers together accounted for over half (53%) of all new cancers in the UK in 2014
  • Thyroid and liver cancers have shown the fastest increases in incidence in both males and females over the past decade in the UK
  • Stomach and bladder cancers have shown the fastest decreases in incidence in both males and females over the past decade in the UK
  • Every two minutes someone in the UK is diagnosed with cancer
  • Half of all cancer cases in the UK each year are diagnosed in people aged 70 and over
31
Q

What are the cellular changes that a cell needs to undergo to go from normal to cancer?

A
  1. Increased cell division
  2. Cell survival / immortalisation
  3. Cell growth
32
Q

How does cancer progress?

A
  • Normal
  • Tubular adenoma – benign tumour
  • Villus adenoma – relatively benign
  • Invasive adenocarcinoma

Genetic changes between each of the above stages

Genetic changes drive the develop of the cancer

Estimate is that you need 4-7 specific genetic changes to go from normal to cancer

33
Q

What are the 6 capabilities of a successful cancer?

A
  • Become independent of external growth signals – grows when it wants to grow
  • Become insensitive to external anti-growth signals
  • Become able to avoid apoptosis – which would happen due to the DNA damage
  • Become capable of indefinite replication
  • Become capable of sustained angiogenesis – to get nutrition
  • Become capable of tissue invasion and metastasis
34
Q

What does successful carcinogenesis require?

A
    1. Either mutations that increase the rate of cell proliferation, so as to provide an expanded target for subsequent mutations (not all the 4-7 mutations occur in a single cell)
    1. Or mutations that destabilise the genome, so as to increase the subsequent mutation rate
35
Q

What are the two features of common cancer?

A

Clonal evolution and genetic instability

36
Q

Describe the process of clonal evolution in terms of mutations.

A
  • Population of normal cells
  • Mutation in one
  • Selective growth of clone with mutation no.1
  • Mutation occurs in that population
  • Selective growth of clone with mutations 1+2
  • Mutation 3 occurs in those cells
  • Continuing evolution by natural selection
  • -> Malignant tumour
37
Q

What are the different types of genomic instability that common cancers usually show?

A
  • Either CIN – chromosomal instability – bizarre karyotype, many numerical and structural abnormalities (much more common)
  • Or MIN – microsatellite instability – high frequency of sequence errors after DNA replication
38
Q

What is Knudson’s ‘two-hit’ hypothesis?

A

TSG INACTIVATION IN FAMILIAL CANCERS
- Germ cell inherited one mutated gene
- Then in somatic cells you gain a mutated gene so both of the genes are mutated
- Then descendants of cell go on to form the tumour
TSG INACTIVATION IN SPORADIC CANCERS
- Start with somatic cells that are entirely normal but then get a mutated gene
- Descendants of somatic cell get another mutation
- Goes on to form a tumour

39
Q

What is the behaviour of benign and malignant tumours - how do they grow?

A
  • A benign tumour grows by expansion, displacing adjacent tissue
  • A malignant tumour grows by infiltration of local tissues, and spreads to other parts of the body
40
Q

What are primary and secondary tumours?

A
  • Primary tumour
  • original malignant tumour
  • Secondary tumours
  • ‘offspring’ of a primary malignant tumour
41
Q

What are the two ways malignant tumours spread?

A
  • Local – direct invasion

- Distant – metastasis

42
Q

What are the routes of metastasis?

A
  • Lymphatics – walls very thin
  • Blood (capillaries – very thin walls)
  • Transcoelomic – (coelomic spaces = pericardium, pleural sacs, peritoneum)
  • Along epithelial-lined spaces – very unusual
  • Within epithelium – very unusual
Transcoelomic spread
-	Peritoneal, pleural 
Epithelial-lined spaces
-	Bronchiolo-alveolar carcinoma of lung 
Within epithelium 
-	Paget’s disease of nipple, vulva and anus
43
Q

Describe metastasis via lymphatics.

A
  • Tumour may directly invade lymphatics
  • Tumour emboli filtered out, then grow, in lymph nodes
  • Typical of epithelial malignancy
44
Q

Describe metastasis via blood.

A
  • Tumour may invade blood vessels
  • Emboli filtered out by capillary beds, e.g. liver, lung
  • Typical of stromal malignancy and later stages of epithelial malignancy
45
Q

What are common metastasis sites?

A

lungs, liver, spine and bone

46
Q

What are the clinical effects of benign tumours?

A
  • Mechanical pressure – meningioma compressing brain
  • Obstruction - prostate cancer obstructing bladder outflow
  • Ulceration - mucosa over gastric leiomyoma
  • Infection - bladder papilloma
  • Hormone production – Islet cell tumour of pancreas
  • Malignant change
47
Q

What are the effects of malignant tumours?

A

All the physical effects of benign tumours
AND
- Tissue destruction – cancer of the stomach infiltrating pancreas
- Haemorrhage – any cancer breaching a vessel wall
- Secondary infection – bacterial invasion of necrotic tumour
- Cachexia – severe weight loss & increased metabolic rate
- Pain
- Anaemia – haemorrhage, bone marrow replacement, haemolysis (rupturing of red blood cells)
- Paraneoplastic syndromes
-Ectopic hormone production - carcinoma of bronchus may cause Cushing’s syndrome
-Peripheral neuropathy, cerebellar degeneration, myopathy
-Thrombophlebitis migrans
-Acanthosis nigricans
-Nephrotic syndrome
-Finger clubbing
-Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
-Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis

48
Q

What are the reasons that a genetic predisposition for a cancer is more likely?

A
  • Young age at diagnosis
  • Multiple tumours (more than one primary tumour)
  • Family history
  • Rare tumours
  • Site of cancer (e.g. inherited bowel cancers more often right-sided than left)
49
Q

Describe proto-oncogenes. What are they? what happens if there’s a mutation? how many mutations do you need? examples?

A

Proto-oncogenes (e.g. k-Ras, PRL-3, ER, HER2) – gain of function

  • Promote cell division, survival and growth
  • It’s important that you can regulate it – turn it on and off
  • Protein function increased by mutation (e.g. missense mutations that increase enzyme function or gene amplification leading to over expression of the protein – instead of just having two copies)
  • Activated form is known as oncogene
  • Dominant mutations – only need to mutate one copy
50
Q

Describe Tumour suppressor genes. What are they? what do they do? what happens if there’s a mutation? how many mutations do you need? examples?

A

Tumour suppressor genes (e.g. APC, p53, BRCS1) – loss of function

  • Inhibit progression through the cell cycle
  • Promote apoptosis
  • Inhibit cell growth
  • Repairs DNA damage
  • Protein function reduced by mutation (e.g. deletions that remove the gene or nonsense mutation that truncate the protein)
  • Recessive mutations – need to mutate both genes
51
Q

What type of gene is the BRCA1 gene? what is its normal function? what does mutation lead to?

A

BRCA1 = tumour suppressor gene

  • The normal function of it is to repair double-strand breaks in DNA
  • So, if you remove it, you get more double-strand breaks than normal, more mutations that normal which means you are more likely to mutate an oncogene or disrupt another tumour suppressor
  • Mutations increases chance of having another mutation, rather than having a direct effect on cell survival
52
Q

What induces CyclinD1 expression? and how does it do this?

A

HER2 signalling induces CyclinD1 expression
(human epidermal growth factor receptor) – sits in the membrane

  • When the growth factor is present, HER2 dimerises with HER1 and that activates pair of RTKs (activates themselves?)
  • As they’re kinases they will phosphorylate other proteins and themselves
  • Ras activated – cascade – phosphorylates Ets - which is a transcription factor – cyclin D1 expressed – pushes start of the cell cycle
  • This is required in a regulated fashion in the breast epithelium
53
Q

What does over expression of HER2 lead to?

A

The activation of signalling in the absence of ligand.

  • When you get massive overexpression of the HER2 protein, it can dimerise with itself
  • It drives the signalling pathway regardless of whether there’s any epidermal growth factor present
  • Cyclin D turned on all the time, so the cell cycle is being turned on all the time
  • This is driving the transition between normal cells to tumour

LINK BETWEEN CYCLIN D1 AND HER2 IS ABSOLUTELY ESSENTIAL FOR FORMING THESE TUMOURS

54
Q

What are genes that increase genomic instability really just?

A

Tumour suppressor genes that you’ve knocked-down - now the genes can’t repair the errors

55
Q

What can act as oncogenes?

A

Can all act as oncogenes:
- Growth factor tells a cell to divide - If you over express the receptor then cell would receive an overly large signal from growth factor - makes growth factor receptor gene act as an oncogene
- 2ndry messengers – take signal from receptor to the nucleus – inappropriate expression of the messengers can cause inappropriate signalling
- Nuclear signalling factors – signal cell cycle machinery – these can act as oncogenes
- Cell cycle machinery – the proteins
All of the below can act as oncogenes: (or oncoproteins)
- Secreted growth factors
- Cell surface receptors
- Signal transduction system components
- Nuclear proteins, transcription factors
- Cyclins / cyclin-dependent kinases

56
Q

What are different ways of oncogene activation?

A
  • mutations
  • chromosomal translocation to an active site
  • chromosomal translocation to create a chimearic gene (form through the combination of portions of two or more coding sequences to produce new genes)
57
Q

What is normal cellular function of tumour suppressor genes?

A
-	Varied
Main groups:
-	Antiproliferative 
-	Pro-apoptotic 
-	DNA repair and genome stability – mismatch genes repair any mismatches in the DNA (e.g. A paired with G)
58
Q

How do oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes act?

A

Oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes, act through the same pathways, they just have the opposite effect

59
Q

What causes inactivation of tumour suppressor genes?

A
  • Mutations
  • Chromosomal abnormalities
  • Methylation of promoters
  • Interaction with viral proteins
60
Q

What is SNP18?

A

SNP18 (single nucleotide polymorphisms)
= 18 single nucleotide polymorphisms, where if you inherited the adverse alleles, you’d get to a risk of breast cancer that is almost equivalent to BRCA1 and BRCA2

61
Q

BRCA1/2 - what proportion of familial breast cancers do they cause? when are you offered testing for them?

A
  • Probably cause a small proportion of familial breast cancer
  • The genes that we’ve been testing for the longest and know most about
  • Offer testing BRCA1/2 if there’s a prior risk of identifying a mutation at about 10%
62
Q

Describe BRCA1 gene. What does it code for? what’s it involved in? what mutations do you get? what is the lifetime risk of breast cancer and ovarian cancer with the gene?

A
  • 17q21 (located on the long arm of chromosome 17 at position 21
  • 24 exons – exon 11 largest (large gene)
  • Codes for 1863 aa protein
  • Protein involved in homologous DNA repair, and regulation of mitotic spindles and segregation of daughter chromosomes
  • Pathogenic mutations throughout the gene
  • 15-30% may be due to large rearrangements
  • Lifetime risk of breast cancer – up to 85%
  • Lifetime risk of ovarian cancer – up to 60%
  • Variable risks which may be due to ascertainment bias
63
Q

Describe the pathology of BRCA1 gene.

A
  • Fairly unique
  • High grade
  • Higher proportion of atypical medullary type carcinomas
  • Pushing margins, a high mitotic count and lymphocytic infiltrate – much more aggressive
  • More likely to be ER, PR, HER2 negative??? (triple negative)
64
Q

Describe the BRCA2 gene. Where are the mutations? what is the lifetime risk of female breast cancer, ovarian cancer, male breast cancer, prostate cancer? what is there an increased risk of if you have the gene? what is different about it to BRCA1?

A
  • Cloned to 13q12 in 1995 (no long-term data)
  • 27 exons
  • Protein involved in DNA repair – involved in regulation of transcription factors and has a tumour suppressor function
  • Mutations throughout the gene
  • Lifetime risk of female breast cancer – up to 85%
  • Lifetime risk of ovarian cancer – up to 20-30% - depends where mutation is in gene
  • Lifetime risk of male breast cancer – up to 10%
  • Lifetime risk of prostate cancer – up to 20%
  • Increased relative risk of pancreatic, gastric, cholangiocarcinoma – screening for pancreatic cancer if have BRCA2 gene – screen on the basis of absolute risk not increased relative risk
  • More of a general cancer gene that BRCA1
65
Q

What is the pathology of the BRCA2 gene?

A
  • Less distinct
  • Less tubule formation that control population
  • Same level of DCIS (ductal carcinoma in situ) as in sporadic tumours
  • Not associated with tubular carcinomas
66
Q

What is the method used to test for the presence of HER2?

A

Immunocytochemistry

  • Uses antibodies that target specific peptides or protein antigens
  • These bound antibodies can then be detected using several different methods
67
Q

What is the rational decision-making model?

A
  1. Define the problem
  2. Identify the decision criteria
  3. Allocate weights to the criteria
  4. Develop the alternatives
  5. Evaluate the alternatives
  6. Select the best alternative
68
Q

What are explanatory models?

A

Explanatory models are set of understandings about illness causation and the effects of illness – beliefs about what or who can help and treatments are dependant on EMs

EMs are sometimes referred to as ‘lay beliefs’ but are held by both lay people and professionals
- Sometimes called health beliefs

69
Q

What are the risk factors for patient-mediated delay in cancer diagnosis?

A

High influence:

  • Age (older)
  • Education level (lower)
  • Ethnicity (non-white origin)
  • Symptom type
  • Non-recognition of symptom seriousness
70
Q

What is self, identity, and biography?

A

Self – private sense of self
Identity – product of interaction with others
Biography – reflecting on trajectory of life

71
Q

What is a biographical disruption?

A

Biographical disruption: a radical break with the past and undermines everything we take-for-granted in everyday life