Case 1 Flashcards

1
Q

when and what is gastrulation?

A
  • third week of development
  • phase early in the embryonic development, during which the single-layered blastula is reorganised into a bilaminar disc and then further into a trigeminal (‘three-layered’) structure known as the gastrula
  • these three germ layers are known as the ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm
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2
Q

describe the process of gastrulation

A

 The epiblast and hypoblast layers are still connected. There is a point where the cells in these two layers are held tightly together, causing it to be slightly thicker than the rest of the ‘epiblast plate’. This is called the prechordal plate (this will form the mouth of the baby). This is important as it shows us which side of the epiblast plate will be the cephalic (head) end and which will be the caudal (tail) end.
 Gastrulation begins with the formation of the primitive streak and primitive node. This is a longitudinal depression of cells at the caudal end of the epiblast plate (primitive streak) with a dilation of depression (primitive node) towards the middle of the epiblast plate.
 The cells of the epiblast begin to proliferate and migrate towards the primitive streak (due to the depression).
 These cells will continue to migrate towards the primitive streak and eventually pass under the primitive streak and form a layer between the epiblast and hypoblast layers.
 This begins to form the trigeminal disc: ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.
 The cells that pass under the primitive ‘node’ will migrate towards the prechordal plate. This collection of cells is called the notochord.
 Above the notochord is the ectoderm; below it is the endoderm and to its sides is the mesoderm.
 The ectoderm that lies immediately above the notochord, called the neuroectoderm, gives rise to the entire nervous system.

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3
Q

when and what is neurulation?

A

day 22

Neurulation refers to the folding process in vertebrate embryos, which includes the transformation of the neural plate into the neural tube. The embryo at this stage is termed the neurula.

folding and closure of the neural plate

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4
Q

describe neurulation

A

 The notochord sends inductive signals to the overlying ectoderm, causing the central part of the ectoderm to proliferate and form a longitudinal thickening from the primitive node to the prechordal plate.
 The cells of this thickening are called neuroectodermal cells.
 These differentiate into a distinct columnar epithelium called the neural plate.
 The medial margin of the neural plate begins to depress downwards to form the neural groove.
 The lateral margin of the neural plate becomes elevated. This is called the neural fold.
 Eventually, the neural fold will keep on elevating, until they fuse. This fusion will continue cephalically and caudally, forming the neural tube.
 The opening of the neural tube at the cephalic end is called the anterior neuropore and the opening of the neural tube at the caudal end is called the posterior neuropore.
 The anterior neuropore closes at the 25th day of gestation and the posterior neuropore closes on the 27th day of gestation.
o This time of pregnancy is crucial because this is the time where the pregnant lady will miss her period due to the pregnancy. Also, this is the time where pregnant ladies are told to have ample folic acid
o If there is a deficiency in the levels of folic acid, then the anterior and posterior neuropores will not close properly.
o Failure of closure of the anterior neuropore is called Anencephaly – the brainstem forms, but the upper part of the brain doesn’t develop - the baby is not compatible with extra-uterine survival.
o Failure of closure of the posterior neuropore is called Spina Bifida.
 Once the neural folds have fused to form the neural tube, cells from the neural fold region, called neural crest cells, begin to migrate underneath the ectoderm + into the surrounding mesoderm and the endoderm too.
 Somites grow alongside the neural tube in pairs. Somites develop in succession, starting from the cranial end and finishing at the caudal end. A new pair of somites develops every 90 minutes and there are 44 pairs in total. These will form skeletal muscles, the vertebrae, the ribs, the dermis, cartilage and tendons.

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5
Q

the remnant of the notochord in adults is presented by what?

A

the nucleus pulposus (within the fibrous annulus ring) in the intervertebral disc

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6
Q

what are derivatives of the neural tube?

A
  • vesicles
  • alar and basal plates
  • tracts
  • pons
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7
Q

describe the formation and development of vesicles

A

 Once the anterior neuropore has closed, the cephalic (head) end of the neural tube begins to form three swellings bilaterally, called primary vesicles.
 The 3 primary vesicles are (starting from superior to inferior):
1. Prosencephalon (forebrain)
2. Mesencephalon (midbrain)
3. Rhombencephalon (hindbrain)

 Two flexures are formed:

1) The cervical flexure at the junction between the hindbrain and the spinal cord.
2) The cephalic/pontine flexure which is the first bend of the embryonic brain, in the mesencephalon region.

 These 3 primary vesicles then develop into 5 secondary vesicles:
o The Prosencephalon gives rise to the following secondary vesicles:
1. Telencephalon – rapidly growing. Dorsal territory gives rise to the cerebrum and hippocampus, whilst the ventral territory gives rise to the basal ganglia, basal forebrain nuclei and olfactory bulb. In short, it forms the four lobes of the brain: frontal lobe, parietal lobe, occipital lobe and temporal lobe.
2. Diencephalon – slow growing. This forms the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus, subthalamus, uvea (choroid, iris, ciliary body) and the retina.
o The Mesencephalon doesn’t develop into secondary vesicles:
3. Mesencephalon (Midbrain)
o The Rhombencephalon gives rise to the following secondary vesicles:
4. Metencephalon – posterior aspect of this develops into the cerebellum, whilst the anterior aspect forms the pons.
5. Myelencephalon – this forms the medulla oblongata.
 The pontine flexure forms the boundary between the metencephalon and the myelencephalon.

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8
Q

what is segmentation? what controls it?

A

The process of segmentation establishes regional identity in the body of the developing embryo by dividing it into repeating units. This is controlled by Hox genes. In some cases their pattern of expression coincides with, or even precedes, the formation of morphological features such as the various bends, folds, and constrictions that signify the progressive regionalisation of the developing neural tube. Hox gene expression does not extend into the midbrain or forebrain.

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9
Q

describe the formation and development of alar and basal plates

A

 The wall of a recently closed neural tube consists of neuroepithelial cells. Once the tube closes, neuroepithelial cells begin to give rise to neuroblasts. They form the mantle layer, a zone around the neuroepithelial layer. The mantle layer later forms the gray matter of the spinal cord. Grey matter is the collection of cell bodies.
 At the caudal end of the neural tube the neuroblasts proliferate outwards:
o Postero-laterally to form the Alar Plates (sensory grey matter). These are also known as the Dorsal Horns.
(Alar are ears and they are concerned with senses, hence sensory grey matter)
o Antero-laterally to form the Basal Plates (motor grey matter). These are also known as the Ventral Horns.
 The sulcus lamitans, present on the inner lateral walls of the neural tube, separates the neural tube in a ventral area (basal plates) and a dorsal area (alar plates).

 The cell bodies (neuroblasts) in the outer region of the basal plates develop nerve fibres (processes) that extend out to the peripheries, forming the motor nerves. These are called motor roots.
 At the same time, some of the neural crest cells that migrated outwards to the peripheries will proliferate to form the dorsal root ganglions. The cell bodies in these ganglions will develop nerve fibres that will extend to the peripheries AND nerve fibres that will extend to the cell bodies in the outer region of the alar plates. The nerve fibres (processes) between the alar plate and the dorsal root ganglion are called the sensory root.
 The outermost layer of the spinal cord, the marginal layer, contains nerve fibres emerging from neuroblasts in the mantle layer. As a result of myelination of nerve fibres, this layer is called the white matter of the spinal cord.

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10
Q

describe the development of the tracts and other aspects of the spinal cord

A

 Some cell bodies in the centre of the alar and basal plates, form nerve fibres which extend upwards (on the posterior side of the spinal cord), forming the ascending tracts. These nerve fibres collectively form the dorsal column.
 Some cell bodies in the centre of the alar and basal plates, form nerve fibres which extend to the opposite alar plate and then extend upwards (on the lateral side of the spinal cord), forming the lateral (ascending) tracts. These nerve fibres collectively form the lateral column.
 Some cell bodies in the centre of the alar and basal plates, form nerve fibres which extend anteriorly, crossing the nerve fibres from the opposite alar plate and then extending upwards (on the anterior side of the spinal cord), forming the anterior (ascending) tracts. These nerve fibres collectively form the ventral column.
 The nerve fibres entering the dorsal root from the dorsal root ganglion will follow the course of the anterior (ascending) tracts and the lateral (ascending) tracts, and will form part of the ventral column and lateral column respectively.

At the same time, cells of white matter begin to dissolve at the anterior aspect of the spinal cord, forming the anterior median fissure.

Similarly, some cells of the white matter on the posterior aspect of the spinal cord dissolves, forming the posterior median sulcus.

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11
Q

describe the development of the pons - which region of pons is motor and which sensory

A

 At the anterior aspect of the metencephalon, the pons will develop.
 Here, the neural tube is arranged as such that the if you imagine someone has stuck their hand in the posterior median sulcus and pushed laterally and round so that the two anterior motor horns (basal plates) are pushed together at the point of the anterior median fissure, and lateral to them are the dorsal horns (alar plates), which have been pushed all the way round to the anterior aspect.
 This means that the centre of the pons is the motor region, whilst the lateral part is the sensory region.

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12
Q

describe the development of derivatives of neural crest cells

A
  • Initially, when the neural crest cells begin to spread, after the fusion of the neural fold, they spread out underneath the ectoderm. This gives rise to cells in the skin - Melanocytes
  • Some of the neural crest cells are plastered around the entire neural tube and the derivative structures. This means that the neural crest cells surround the entire central nervous, including the entire brain and the spinal cord. This gives rise to the Arachnoid Mater and Pia Mater (Leptomeninges).
  • Some of the neural crest cells made aggregates throughout the length of the nervous system. These are the Sensory + Autonomic Ganglia of the Cranial Nerves and the Peripheral Spinal Nerves.
  • Schwann cells – myelination of the peripheral nervous system.
  • Some neural crest cells combine with the mesoderm to form the some Bones of the Neurocranium.
  • Sympathetic ganglia combine to form ‘glands’ that have lost their axons so they don’t innervate directly to the tissue, but instead secrete their neurotransmitters directly into the blood. This is the Adrenal Medulla, and is a neural crest cell derivative.
  • Calcitonin producing para-follicular cells of the thyroid gland.
  • Odentoblasts (in the teeth) that provide us with dentin in the early stages of our lives.
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13
Q

describe and explain neuronal migration in the PNS

A

• The neural crest arises from the dorsal neural tube along the entire length of the spinal cord and hindbrain.
• Thus, as neural crest cells begin to migrate, they carry with them information about their point of origin, including expression of distinct Hox genes that are limited to various spinal cord and hindbrain domains.
• Regardless of where neural crest cells originate, all of these cells must undergo an essential transition in order to begin their migration.
 They all begin as neuroepithelial cells, and thus have all of the cellular junctions and adhesive interaction that keep epithelial cells in place.
 To move, neural crest cells must downregulate expression of these adhesive genes and undergo an epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition.
 Thus, presumptive neural crest cells express several transcription factors, including the bHLH family members Snail1 and Snail2, which repress expression of intercellular junctional proteins and epithelial adhesion molecules.
 When the now motile neural crest cells reach their final destination, they cease to express Snail1/Snail2 and other transcription factors that favour the mesenchymal, migratory state.
 This change is thought to reflect the integration of a number of signals that neural crest cells encounter along their migratory route.
• Neural crest cells are largely guided along distinct migratory pathways provided by non-neural peripheral structures like somites.

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14
Q

what guides neuronal migration in the CNS?

A

The mechanisms of neuronal migration are diverse, and the successful completion of migration is essential for many aspects of normal brain function.

 A minority of nerve and glial cells in the CNS use existing axon pathways as migratory guides.
 During development, newborn neurons (neuroblasts) use the long processes of radial glia as scaffolds, traveling along the radial glial fibers in order to reach their final destinations.

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15
Q

the nervous system is patterned along which axes?

A

anteroposterior and dorsoventral axes

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16
Q

what is essential for the patterning of the DV and AP axes?

A

secreted molecules called morphogens

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17
Q

what is each axis set up by?

A
  • DV axis is set up by TGF-β family of proteins and SHH (sonic hedgehog).
  • AP axis is set up by retinoic acid and FGF and homeotic genes.
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18
Q

what do dorsal (sensory) and ventral (motor) regions of the developing spinal cord depend upon? (DV axis)

A

concentration gradients between members of the transforming growth factor beta (TGF-β) family of growth factors secreted in the dorsal neural tube and sonic hedgehog (SHH) secreted by the notochord and floor plate

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19
Q

describe how the two concentration gradients are formed in the DV axis

A

• Initially bone morphogenetic protein (BMP) 4 & 7 are secreted by the ectoderm overlying the neural tube, and the presence of these proteins establishes a second signaling centre in the roof plate.
• Then, BMP4 in the roof plate induces a cascade of TGF-β proteins, including BMP5, BMP7, activin, and dorsalin in the roof plate and surrounding area.
 This cascade is organized in time and space such that a concentration gradient of these factors is established (see image – there is diminishing concentration of BMP4, 7 and 5, dorsalin and actin from the dorsal to ventral region of the neural tube).
• As a result, cells near the roof plate are exposed to the highest concentrations with more ventrally positioned cells seeing less and less of these factors.
 This is why the TGF-β is secreted (mainly) into the dorsal neural tube.
(Bear in mind that the roof plate side of the neural tube (longitudinally) is at the posterior (dorsal) side of the spinal cord).

  • Similar events occur in the ventral region of the neural tube, only the signaling molecule is sonic hedgehog (SHH).
  • During neural tube development, Shh binds to a receptor encoded by the PTCH1 gene.
  • This factor is first expressed in the notochord followed by the establishment of a second signaling center in the floor plate.
  • As a result, there is diminishing concentration of SHH from the ventral to the dorsal region of the neural tube.
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20
Q

thus, what is formed in the DV axis? what does this activate?

A

Thus, two overlapping concentrations are established between the TGF- β family members and SHH.

These gradients then activate transcription factors that regulate differentiation of sensory and motor neurons.

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21
Q

what are the BMP receptors?

A
  • BMP receptors are serine/threonine kinases that phosphorylate a group of cytoplasmic proteins called SMADS (SMAD4 and R-SMAD).
  • Upon phosphorylation, SMAD multimers translocate to the nucleus and interact with other DNA-binding proteins, thus modulating gene expression in response to the BMP signal.
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22
Q

describe how the anterior-posterior axis is formed

A
  • AP axis is set up by retinoic acid and FGF and homeotic genes.
  • FGF is secreted into the posterior axis of the neural tube (caudal end).
  • Retinoic acid is secreted into the anterior axis of the neural tube (cephalic end).
  • The gradient is formed in this axis too.
  • Diffusible molecules are essential for the setting up of the AP axis (extrinsic clues)
  • FGF (fibroblast growth factor) – family of molecules
  • number of FGFs expressed by embryo at different stages
  • FGF 4 and 8 are important – expressed in gradient
  • somites form a gradient of retinoic acid (RA)

• Homeotic genes also play a role in the establishment of the AP axis (intrinsic clues).

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23
Q

the initial differentiation of neurones and glia

  • where are precursor cells located
  • how are new stem cells formed
  • how are neuroblasts generated
  • what are transit amplifying cells
  • what happens as cells become post-mitotic
A
  • The precursor cells are located in the ventricular zone, the innermost cell layer surrounding the lumen of the neural tube.
  • New stem cells are from symmetrical divisions of neuroectodermal cells. These cells divide relatively slowly and can renew themselves indefinitely.
  • In contrast, neuroblasts are generated from cells that divide asymmetrically - one of the two daughters becomes a post-mitotic neuroblasts while the other re-enters the cell cycle to give rise to another post-mitotic progeny via an asymmetric division.
  • These asymmetrically dividing progenitors divide more rapidly, have a limited capacity for division overtime, and are molecularly distinct from the slowly dividing precursors.
  • These cells are also known as transit amplifying cells.

• As cells become post-mitotic, they leave the ventricular zone and migrate to their final positions in the developing brain.
• In most regions of the brain where neurons are arranged into layered structures there is a systematic relationship between the layers and the time of cell origin.
 Thus, each layer consists of a cohort of cells generated during a specific developmental period.
 The implication of this phenomenon is that common periods of neurogenesis are important for the development of the cell types and connections that characterize each layer.

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24
Q

when does the anterior neuropore close?

A

at the 25th day of gestation

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25
Q

when does the posterior neuropore close?

A

at the 27th day of gestation

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26
Q

all neural tube defects are aetiologically related - what does this mean for risk of relatives developing NTD?

A

All neural tube defects are aetiologically related (related in terms of the causation of the defect), therefore, if one person in a family is affected, then there is an increased risk in relatives for all types of neural tube defects.

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27
Q

what is dysraphism?

A

“Dysraphism” is used when there is continuity between the posterior neuroectoderm and the cutaneous ectoderm.

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28
Q

are neural tube defects more common in males or females?

A

females

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29
Q

folic acid

  • by how much do they reduce rates of NTDs
  • which are the best supplements
  • what is recommended in England
A

• Folic acid supplements reduce the rates of neural tube defects by 70%.
 It is better to take supplements which combine the naturally occurring folates: folinic acid and THF.
• In England it is currently recommended that;
 To prevent first occurrence of an NTD women should take 400μg of folic acid daily before conception and during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy.
 To prevent recurrence of neural tube defect the dose should be 4 to 5 mg per day.

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30
Q

what drugs taken during pregnancy increase the risk of NTDs in the foetus?

A

examples:

  • sodium valproate (antiepileptic drug)
  • folic acid antagonists such as trimethoprim
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31
Q

how are NTDs diagnosed prenatally?

A
  • The fetal liver is the main source of α-fetoprotein (AFP), which leaks through open neural tube defects into the amniotic fluid and then into the maternal blood.
  • This abnormal increase in maternal serum α-fetoprotein is best detected at 16 to 18 weeks of pregnancy.
  • Maternal serum screening does not detect closed defects (those covered by skin) and is less sensitive in women taking the antiepileptic drug sodium valproate.

• Ultrasonography is recommended for all at-risk women and those with positive serum α-fetoprotein screening, those who have had one or more affected child, and those taking drugs associated with neural tube defects in the fetus.

  • However, occasionally spina bifida may not be diagnosed, particularly in the L5-S2 region. Diagnostically, the ultrasonographer is on the lookout for the lemon sign.
  • When adequate ultrasound images cannot be obtained, amniocentesis with measurement of α-fetoprotein and assay of neuronal acetylcholinesterase provides an alternative method of prenatal diagnosis.
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32
Q

from what week can anencephaly and spina bifida be detected from?

A
  • Anencephaly can be detected from the 12th week.

* Spina bifida can be detected from 16 to 20 weeks.

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33
Q

what are the lemon and banana signs?

A

ultrasound features of the Arnold-Chiari malformation in foetuses with open neural tube defects

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34
Q

what does the banana sign refer to?

A

the shape of the cerebellum owing to caudal (tail) displacement

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35
Q

what does the lemon sign refer to?

A

the lemon-shaped head, resulting from scalloping of the frontal bones

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36
Q

lemon sign

  • what does it have a strong association with
  • pathogenesis
  • what happens as the foetus matures
  • when is it present up to?
A

 The lemon sign has a strong association with spina bifida.
 Although the exact pathogenesis is unknown, it has been postulated that the decrease in the intra’spinal’ pressure (due to the failure of closure of the posterior neuropore)in neonates with spina bifida causes the brain to shift downward.
 This shift decreases the intra’cranial’ pressure, which is reflected onto the fetal cranium.
 The frontal bones are the most vulnerable to the decreased intracranial pressure and respond by flattening or scalloping inward.
 As the fetus matures, the lemon sign disappears because the frontal bones become stronger and are able to withstand the decreased pressure.
(The majority of neonates with spina bifida develop hydrocephalus as they mature.)
 This increase in intracranial pressure can lead to reversal of the flattening.

 The lemon sign is only present up to 24 weeks

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37
Q

what are the Arnold-Chiari malformations?

A

congenital disorders in which there is distortion of the base of the skull with protrusion of the lower brain stem and parts of the cerebellum through the foramen magnum

  • there is a downward displacement of the lower cerebellum, including the tonsils
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38
Q

do Chiari malformations cause symptoms in childhood? what are they associated with? what does it often manifest as?

A
  • It rarely causes symptoms in childhood
  • But may be associated with hydrocephalus and syringomyelia
  • It often manifests with headaches and cerebellar symptoms and neck pains
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39
Q

what are the four types of Chiari malformations?

A
  1. Type I:
     This is the only type that can be acquired.
     Characteristic of headaches.
  2. Type II:
     This is associated with lumbosacral myelomeningocele.
     Clinical features include paralysis below the spinal defect.
  3. Type III:
     This consists of a downward displacement of the cerebellum into a posterior encephalocele.
     This type is exceedingly rare and generally incompatible with life.
  4. Type IV:
     This is a form of cerebellar hypoplasia.
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40
Q

what is treatment of Chiari malformations?

A

Posterior fossa decompression surgery is performed on adults with type 1 & 2 malformations to create more space for the cerebellum and to relieve pressure on the spinal column.

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41
Q

what should patients be evaluated for before a lumbar puncture?

A

The patient should be evaluated for evidence of elevated intracranial pressure prior to a lumbar puncture, and the safest practice is to perform a CT scan first to avoid risk of herniation.

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42
Q

describe how a lumbar puncture procedure is performed. what can it be used to measure?

A

 A hollow spinal needle is introduced through the skin with a stylet occluding the lumen to prevent the introduction of skin cells into CSF during needle insertion.
 Note that the lumbar cistern is normally in direct communication with CSF in the ventricles and CSF flowing over the surface of the brain.
 The procedure may be done in the lying or seated position.
 A manometer tube is used to measure CSF pressure. Pressure measurements are more reliable in the lying position because in the seated position the entire column of CSF in the spinal canal adds to the pressure measured in the lumbar cistern. Normal CSF pressure in adults is less than 20 cm H2O.

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43
Q

where is the spinal needle generally inserted? why is this? what serves as a landmark for this?

A
  • Note that the bottom portion of the spinal cord, or conus medullaris, ends at about the L1 or L2 level of the vertebral bones, and the nerve roots continue downward into the lumbar cistern, forming the cauda equina.
  • To avoid hitting the spinal cord, the spinal needle is generally inserted at the space between the L4 or L5 vertebral bones.
  • As the tip of the needle enters the subarachnoid space, the nerve roots are usually harmlessly displaced.
  • The posterior iliac crest serves as a landmark to approximate level of the L4–L5 interspace.
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44
Q

what are different types of cranial dysraphism?

A
  1. anencephaly
  2. cephaloceles
  3. holoprosencephaly
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45
Q

anencephaly

  • what is it
  • survival
  • what associated with
  • screening
  • treatment
A
  • This is the partial or complete absence of the bones of the rear of the skull, the meninges, and cerebral hemispheres of the brain.
  • The absent brain is sometimes replaced by malformed cystic tissue, which may be exposed or covered with skin.
  • It occurs as a developmental defect, and most affected infants are stillborn; if born live they do not survive for more than a few hours/days/weeks.
  • Anencephaly is often associated with other defects of the nervous system, such as spina bifida.
  • Prenatal screening tests for anencephaly include detection of alpha-fetoprotein levels and ultrasound.
  • Treatment is supportive.
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46
Q

cephaloceles

  • what is it
  • what are the subtypes
  • how common
  • what associated with
  • treatment
A

• This is a herniation of cranial contents through a skull defect.
• There are several subtypes:
1. Cranial Meningocele: contains only meninges.
2. Encephalocele: contains brain tissue.
3. Ventriculocele: contains part of the ventricle within the herniated portion of the brain.
• Cephaloceles are less common than anencephaly or spina bifida.
• They are associated with other brain abnormalities such as agenesis (failure of development of an organ) of the corpus callosum or abnormal gyration.
• They may be part of a recognised syndrome, so it is important to look for abnormalities in other parts of the body.
• Sometimes neurosurgery is indicated.

• Posterior Cephaloceles:
 Most common group of Cephaloceles in Western countries and most are occipital encephaloceles.
• Anterior Cephaloceles:
 More common in some parts of Asia.

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47
Q

holoprosencephaly

  • what is it
  • what caused by
  • treatment
A
  • This occurs when the embryonic Prosencephalon does not undergo segmentation and cleavage (into telencephalon and diencephalon).
  • The anterior midline brain, cranium, and face are abnormal.
  • This malformation may be caused by defects of the sonic hedgehog gene.
  • Severely affected foetuses may die before birth.
  • Treatment is supportive.
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48
Q

what can spina bifida be divided into?

A

 Spina bifida occulta, which consists of failure of closure of the vertebral arches without an external lesion.
 Spina bifida cystica in which there is a cystic lesion on the back. The lesion may be either a meningocele without neural tissue or a myelomeningocele in which the spinal cord is a component of the cyst wall.

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49
Q

what is rachischisis? and craniorachischisis?

A

The term rachischisis is used for the most severe defect, which is a widely patent dorsal opening of the spine, often associated with anencephaly.

Craniorachischisis is the most severe type of neural tube defect in which both the brain and spinal cord remain open; both anencephaly and spina bifida (from the cervical region to the lumbar or sacral region of the spine) are present.

50
Q

spina bifida occulta

  • what is it
  • how is it found
  • is it benign
  • treatment
A
  • The term spina bifida occulta is often applied to a defect of the posterior arch of one or more lumbar or sacral vertebrae (usually L5 and S1), where (unlike spina bifida) there is normal skin covering the defect; there may be an overlying hairy patch.
  • It is an incidental finding on X-ray and it is not associated with neurological involvement.
  • It must not be assumed that spina bifida occulta is always benign. If examination of the skin over the spine reveals a naevus, hairy patch, dimple, sinus, or subcutaneous mass, further evaluation is necessary.
  • Even if there are no associated abnormalities of sphincter or limb control an MRI of the spinal cord is indicated.
  • A spinal cord malformation such as tethering may cause an asymmetrical lower motor neurone weakness with wasting, deformity, and diminished reflexes in the lower limb.
  • Alternatively there may be a progressive gait disturbance with spasticity.
  • Either presentation may be associated with disturbed bladder control.
  • Dorsal dermal sinuses may connect the skin surface to the dura or to an intradural dermoid cyst.
  • They are most commonly found in the occipital and lumbosacral regions. An open sinus tract can cause recurrent meningitis so ideally they should be explored and excised.

Treatment
• If an abnormality involving the cord or nerve roots is found, there is often a good case for neurosurgical intervention.
• The aim is to free the spinal cord from its abnormal attachments to allow for growth and prevent further damage.

51
Q

meningocele

  • what is it
  • how common
  • is hydrocephalus usually associated
  • neurological examination
A
  • In this condition, there is protrusion of the meninges outside the spinal canal: the sac does not contain any neural tissue.
  • Meningoceles account for about 5% of cases with spina bifida cystica.
  • There is no associated hydrocephalus and the neurological examination is usually normal.
  • They must be distinguished from meningomyeloceles because the prognosis is very different!
52
Q

myelomeningocele

  • how serious
  • how common
  • what is it
  • what is there a risk of
  • what is condition accompanied by
  • what usually present as well
  • where in spine
  • what are the neurological abnormalities caused by it
  • hydrocephalus
  • management
  • treatment
  • outcomes
A
  • This is the most serious and most common form of spina bifida cystica.
  • In this condition, the spinal cord and the nerve roots are exposed, often adhering to the fine membrane that overlies them (this may leak CSF).
  • There is a constant risk of infection and this condition is accompanied by paralysis and numbness of the legs and urinary incontinence.
  • Hydrocephalus and Arnold-Chiari malformation are usually present.

• It is lumbosacral in about 80% of cases.
• Neurological abnormalities depend on the level of the lesion, which is best judged clinically by determining the upper limit of sensory loss. There is usually a mixture of upper and lower motor neurone signs depending on the level.
 Whatever the level of the lesion, there is disturbance of bladder and bowel sphincters and also bladder detrusor (muscle in the wall of the bladder) dysfunction.
 The sensory level correlates with the severity of abnormalities in the urinary tract and is also related to long-term disability.
 Higher lesions of the cord are associated with bladder outlet obstruction, dilatation of the upper urinary tract, and chronic pyelonephritis.
• The primary functional deficits are lower limb paralysis and sensory loss, bladder and bowel dysfunction, and cognitive dysfunction.

• Hydrocephalus complicates about 90% of cases of lumbosacral meningomyelocele.
• Usually it is associated with the Chiari II malformation, where there is downward displacement of the cerebellar vermis or tonsils through the foramen magnum to overlap the spinal cord.
 The fourth ventricle is elongated and the midbrain distorted, causing palsies from involvement of the lower cranial nerves and central apnoea (which may be misdiagnosed as epilepsy in older children).
• Hydrocephalus may also be due to aqueduct stenosis or have no clear structural cause.
• If there is evidence of progressive ventricular dilatation (often detected by ultrasonography) or signs of increasing intracranial pressure, insertion of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt is usually necessary.

  • Almost all cases of Chiari II malformation are associated with meningomyelocele.
  • In contrast the other types of Arnold Chiari malformations (I, III, and IV) are not associated with spina bifida.

• If leg movements are present on the ultrasound below the cyst, then baby can usually move the leg. Otherwise, complete paralysis is present.
Management
• The emphasis is on prevention. Currently there are measures been taken to repair the myelomeningocele whilst the baby is in the uterus. This is because the amniotic fluid is toxic to the exposed lesion and so to fix this would mean less damage to the baby’s health once it is born.
• It is recommended that women planning to conceive supplement their diet with folic acid, which reduces the risk of neural tube defects.

• Screening of maternal serum for α-fetoprotein is possible and prenatal diagnosis by ultrasound and amniocentesis is available.

Treatment
• Most infants with an open spine or myelomeningocele undergo surgery within the first 48 hours of life to close the defect.
• Antibiotics are given to prevent Infection of the exposed spinal cord and nerves until these structures can be protected by surgery.
• With modern treatment, almost all children with myelomeningocele survive and most are able to live productive lives with some degree of independence.
• Even with these treatments, however, most have some degree of permanent leg paralysis and often difficulties with bowel and bladder function.
The extent of paralysis depends on which part of the spinal cord is involved. The higher the defect the more severe the paralysis.

  • A large number of Spina Bifida sufferers develop an allergy to latex.
  • Bone mineral density is decreased in patients with myelomeningocele.
  • Obesity is prevalent in children with myelomeningocele.
53
Q

what is hydrocephalus?

A

the abnormal accumulation of CSF in the intracranial cavity

54
Q

what can hydrocephalus result from? what is the most common cause?

A
  1. Excess CSF production (rare).
  2. Decrease in reabsorption via the arachnoid granulations.
  3. Obstruction of flow at any point in the ventricles or subarachnoid space.

• The most common cause of hydrocephalus is the obstruction of the CSF flow from the fourth ventricle into the subarachnoid space, with a consequent enlargement of the ventricles.

55
Q

what does hydrocephalus cause in babies and in adults?

A
  • In babies, whose cranial structures have not yet fused, this causes enlargement of the head with thinning of the cerebral hemispheres.
  • In adults, because the skull is rigid, the increased pressure compresses blood vessels and damages brain tissue.
56
Q

what are the two categories that hydrocephalus is divided into in clinical practice?

A
  1. Communicating Hydrocephalus:
     This is caused by impaired CSF reabsorption in the arachnoid granulations, obstruction of flow in the subarachnoid space, or (rarely) by excess CSF production.
  2. Obstructive (Non-communicating) Hydrocephalus:
     This is caused by obstruction of flow within the ventricular system.
57
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of hydrocephalus?

A

• These are similar to those of elevated intracranial pressure.
• These can be acute or chronic, depending on how quickly the hydrocephalus develops.
• These symptoms include:
 Headaches, nausea, vomiting, cognitive impairment, decreased level of consciousness, papilledema, decreased vision, and sixth-nerve palsies.
• In addition, ventricular dilation in hydrocephalus may compress descending white matter pathways from the frontal lobes, leading to frontal lobe–like abnormalities including an unsteady magnetic gait (feet barely leave the floor) and incontinence.
• In neonatal hydrocephalus, when the cranial sutures have not yet fused, the skull expands to reduce elevated intracranial pressure, resulting in increased head circumference.
• A bulging anterior fontanelle is also an important sign of elevated intracranial pressure in infants.

• It is important to recognize the eye movement abnormalities associated with hydrocephalus.
 In mild or slowly developing cases, only a sixth-nerve palsy may be seen, which causes incomplete or slow abduction of the eye in the horizontal direction.
 Hydrocephalus may affect the sixth nerve of one or both eyes.
 When hydrocephalus is more severe, inward deviation of one or both eyes may be present at rest.

58
Q

what is treatment for hydrocephalus?

A
  • It involves a procedure that allows the CSF to bypass the obstruction and drain from the ventricles.
  • External ventricular drain (ventriculostomy) – works by draining the fluid from the lateral ventricles into a bag outside the head.
  • Ventriculoperitoneal shunt – this is a more permanent form of treatment. A shunt tubing passes form the lateral ventricle out of the skull and is then tunnelled under the skin to drain into the peritoneal cavity of the abdomen. A valve prevents flow of fluid in the reverse direction, from the abdomen to ventricle.
59
Q

what is normal pressure hydrocephalus? what do patients present with? what are CSF pressure measurements like? treatment? outcomes?

A

• This is a condition that is sometimes seen in the elderly.
• It is characterised by chronically dilated ventricles.
• Patients with this condition normally present with a clinical triad of:
1. Gait difficulties (walking difficulties)
2. Urinary incontinence
3. Mental decline.
• CSF pressure measurements in this condition are usually not elevated.
• Some patients improve dramatically, particularly with regard to gait, after large-volume CSF removal by lumbar puncture or in a more permanent manner following ventriculoperitoneal shunting.

60
Q

describe bipolar affective disorder

- what happens during each period

A
  • This is a mental illness characterised by periods of elevated mood and periods of depression.
  • Periods of elevated mood are termed ‘mania’.
  • Although mania can rarely occur by itself without depressive mood swings (thus being ‘unipolar’), it is far more commonly found in association with depressive swings.
  • During mania, the patient feels or acts abnormally happy, energetic or irritable. They often make poorly though out decisions with little regard to consequences. The need for sleep is usually reduced.
  • Hypomania is shorter lived than mania and is not accompanied by psychotic symptoms. It is a mild form of mania.
  • During periods of depression there may be crying, poor eye contact with others, and a negative outlook on life.
61
Q

what is bipolar I and bipolar II?

A
  1. Bipolar I: this is defined as one of more manic or mixed (signs of mania and depression) episodes – severe bipolar.
  2. Bipolar II: this is defined as a depressive episode with at least one episode of hypomania – milder form of bipolar.
    Hypomania is noticeably abnormal but does not result in functional impairment or hospitalisation.
62
Q

what is the epidemiology of bipolar disorder?

A
  • The lifetime prevalence of bipolar affective disorder is 1% across the world.
  • It is equally common in men and women.
  • There is no variation by socio-economic class or race.
  • The mean age of onset is 21.
63
Q

what is the genetic aetiology of bipolar disorder?

A

 There is a strong evidence for a genetic aetiology in this disorder.
 There is a 60–80% concordance rate in monozygotic twins, compared to 15% in dizygotic twins, suggesting a high rate of heritability.

64
Q

what are the two hypotheses for bipolar disorder?

A
  • monoamine hypothesis

- diathesis-stress hypothesis

65
Q

monoamine hypothesis

  • what does it suggest
  • observations
  • conclusion from observations
  • concerns about hypothesis
A

 This hypothesis suggests that depression might result from a problem with the central diffuse modulatory systems.

 Observations:
1) Resperine (a drug used to control blood pressure) depletes central catecholamines (adrenaline/ noradrenaline) and serotonin by interfering with their loading into synaptic vesicles.
2) A class of drugs, used to treat TB, caused a marked elevation in mood.
 These drugs inhibit monoamine oxidase (MAO), the enzyme that destroys catecholamines and serotonin, therefore causing an increase in their levels.
3) Another drug – imipramine (an antidepressant) – inhibits the reuptake of released serotonin and noradrenaline, thus promoting their action in the synaptic cleft.

Conclusion from observations:
 Mood is closely tied to the levels of released “monoamine” neurotransmitters – noradrenaline and serotonin – in the brain.
 According to this idea, called the monoamine hypothesis of mood disorders, depression is a consequence of a deficit in one of these diffuse modulatory systems.
 Modern drug treatments for depression have in common enhanced neurotransmission at central serotonergic and/or noradrenergic synapses.

Concerns:
 Antidepressant action of medication takes several weeks to develop, despite them having almost immediate effects on transmission at the modulatory synapses.
 Drugs that raise noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft, such as cocaine, are not effective as antidepressants.
 New conclusion: effective drugs promote long-term adaptive changes in the brain, involving alterations in gene expression, that alleviate the depression.

66
Q

describe and explain the diathesis-stress hypothesis

A

 Observations:
1) Evidence shows that mood disorders run in families and that our genes predispose us to this type of mental illness.
 The medical term for predisposition for a certain disease is diathesis.
2) Early childhood abuse or neglect, or other stresses of life, are important risk factors in the development of mood disorders in adults.
 Combining these two observations, the diathesis-stress hypothesis of mood disorders was proposed.

 Exaggerated activity in the HPA (hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal) system is associated with anxiety disorders.
 Anxiety and depression coexist.
 Hyperactivity of the HPA axis is associated with depression.
 Blood cortisol levels are elevated, as is the concentration of corticotrophin-releasing-hormone (CRH) in the CSF.
 Research on animals (through injecting CRH into their brains) suggests that high levels of CRH is associated with depression.
 The animals injected with CRH into their brain produced similar behavioural effects that are similar to those of major depression: insomnia, decreased appetite, decreased interest in sex, and increased behavioural expression of anxiety.

 The activation of the hippocampal glucocorticoid receptors by cortisol normally leads to feedback inhibition of the HPA axis.
 In depressed patients, this feedback is disrupted, explaining why HPA function is hyperactive.
 A molecular basis for the diminished hippocampal response to cortisol is a decreased number of glucocorticoid receptors.
 Glucocorticoid receptors, like all proteins, are a product of gene expression.
 In rats, it has been shown that the amount of glucocorticoid receptor gene expression is regulated by early sensory experience. Rats that received a lot of maternal care as pups express more glucocorticoid receptors in their hippocampus, less CRH in their hypothalamus, and reduced anxiety as adults.

 Childhood abuse and neglect, in addition to genetic factors, put people at risk for developing mood and anxiety disorders, and these animal findings suggest one cause.

 This hypothesis suggests that, in addition to genetic factors, elevations in brain CRH, and decreased feedback inhibition of the HPA system, may make the brain especially vulnerable to depression.

67
Q

what is treatment for acute mania?

A

 Stop antidepressants.
 Acute mania is treated with an atypical antipsychotic (neuroleptic), sodium valproate or lithium.
o Recommended atypical antipsychotics include olanzapine, quetiapine and risperidone.
 Severe mania is best treated with a combination of Valproic acid or lithium and a neuroleptic.
 Valproic acid is also helpful in hypomania or in rapidly cycling illnesses.

68
Q

what treatment is used for prevention in bipolar disorder?

A

 Since bipolar illnesses tend to be relapsing and remitting, prevention of recurrence is the major therapeutic challenge in management.
 Recommendations include lithium, olanzapine, and valproic acid (so long as the patient is not a woman at risk of pregnancy).
 Lithium (carbonate or citrate):
o This is one of the main agents used for prophylaxis in patients with repeated episodes of bipolar illness.
o It is rapidly absorbed into the gastrointestinal tract and more than 95% is excreted by the kidneys.
o Lithium is a mood-stabilising drug that prevents mania more than depression.
o It reduces the frequency and severity of relapses by half and significantly reduces the likelihood of suicide.
 Valproic Acid (as the Semisodium salt):
o Recommended both in prophylaxis and treatment of manic states.

69
Q

what is the average duration of a manic episode? what percentage makes a full recovery in time? how common is recurrence?

A
  • The average duration of a manic episode is 2 months, with 95% making a full recovery in time.
  • Recurrence is the rule in bipolar disorders, with up to 90% relapsing within 10 years.
70
Q

semisodium valproate

  • what is name of drug
  • who shouldn’t it be given to
  • what is it
  • what is its mechanism of action
  • how might it work
  • what other properties does it have
A

Semisodium Valproate (Depakote)
• This drug SHOULD NOT BE GIVEN TO PEOPLE UNDER THE AGE OF 18 YEARS!
• This is a fatty acid with anticonvulsant properties used in treatment and management of seizure disorders, mania, and prophylactic treatment of migraine headache.
• Anticonvulsant: a drug that prevents/ reduces the severity and frequency of seizures.
• Mechanism of action:
1) Maybe increasing gamma-aminobutyric acid levels in the brain.
2) Or by altering the properties of voltage dependent sodium channels.

 Valproic Acid dissociates to the valproate ion in the GI tract and then binds to and inhibits GABA transaminase.
 The drug’s anticonvulsant activity may be related to increased brain concentrations of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS, by inhibiting enzymes that catabolize (break down) GABA or block the reuptake of GABA into glia and nerve endings.
 Valproic Acid may also work by suppressing repetitive neuronal firing through inhibition of voltage-sensitive sodium channels.

  • Semisodium Valproate has folate antagonist properties. A person taking this medication, whilst being pregnant is at great risk of her child being born with neural tube defects.
  • Folate antagonist: semisodium valproate inhibits the DHFR protein. This enzyme is used to activate folic acid in the human body before it can enter the folate metabolism cycle.
71
Q

breach position

  • what is it
  • who more common in and why
  • what is done to help and why
A
  • In normal pregnancy the baby is lying with its head proximal to the cervix in comparison with the bum. This allows for an easier pregnancy allowing the head to open up the womb before the limbs and the bum eventually come through.
  • In a breach presentation the baby is lying with its caudal (tail) end the most proximal to the cervix. This makes for a harder delivery for the mother since the bigger end of the baby has to come through first.
  • Breach presentation is more common in babies with spina bifida because the babies leg only undergo spontaneous spasms and this results in the leg not developing strongly enough to kick the baby round into the normal birthing position.
  • Babies with spina bifida or an encephalocele are usually delivered by caesarean section. This is because of the cyst that is present with these disorders and the chance that the brain or spinal cord might be damaged through these cyst during the birthing process.
  • Studies, however, have not conclusively shown that normal pregnancy increases the damage done to babies with neural tube defects, in comparison with caesarean section. A C-section is still favoured just in case though.
72
Q

what is glia? how numerous? major distinction between glia and neurones?

A
  • Glia – this is the connective tissue of the nervous system, consisting of several different types of cell associated with neurons.
  • Glia are more numerous than neurons in the brain, outnumbering them by a ratio of 3 to 1.
  • The major distinction is that glia do not participate directly in synaptic interactions and electrical signalling, although their supportive functions help define synaptic contacts and maintain the signalling abilities of neurons.
  • Although glial cells also have complex processes extending from their cell bodies, these are generally less prominent than neuronal branches, and do not serve the same purposes as axons and dendrites.
73
Q

what roles do glial cells play in the nervous system?

A

 Maintaining the ionic milieu of nerve cells.
 Modulating the rate of nerve signal propagation.
 Modulating synaptic action by controlling the uptake of neurotransmitters at or near the synaptic cleft.
 Providing a scaffold for some aspects of neural development.
 Aiding in (or impeding, in some instances) recovery from neural injury.

74
Q

describe the rules for consent and children

A

Minors (less than 18 years old) and consent
• The law is complex and not always clear.
• Do not allow a person, under 18 years, to come to serious harm on the grounds that the minor and the parents refuse consent for necessary and urgent treatment.

16-17 year olds (governed by the family law reform act 1969)
• Are presumed to have capacity to give consent to medical procedures unless the contrary is shown.
• If they have the capacity, they can give consent.
• If the patient refuses consent then those with parental responsibility, or a court, can give consent to treatment that is in the child’s best interest.

Under 16 years old and Gillick competent (governed by common law)
• Children under 16 years old are presumed not to have capacity to consent unless they satisfy health professionals that they do have such capacity.
• However, the common law case of gillick established that a child aged less than 16 years who does have the capacity can give consent for medical treatment.
• The criteria for judging capacity are not well specified. The key words in the gillick case was that children have capacity when they reach a sufficient understanding and intelligence to enable them to understand fully what is proposed.
• It is unlikely that the courts would consider children of 13 years or less to be gillick competent in most situation, although there is no clear legal guidance on this matter.
• If the patient refuses consent, the legal situation is as for 16-17 year olds above.

Children who are not Gillick competent
• At least one person with parental responsibility should normally give consent.
• Those with parental responsibility are under a legal obligation to act in the child’s best interests.
• If all those with parental responsibility refuse consent for a procedure that the doctors think is strongly in the child’s best interests, then the doctors should involve the courts (specific issue order).
• In an emergency, if parental consent is not forthcoming and there is no time to involve the courts, act to save the child from death or serious harm.

75
Q

what are the risk factors for spina bifida?

A
  • female
  • Hispanics and whites of northern European descent
  • folic acid deficiency
  • diabetes
  • obesity
  • valproic acid
76
Q

what is the axon hillock?

A

at base of cell body when turns into axon

77
Q

describe changes to membrane potential

- how happen and where

A
  • Induced by synaptic input to the dendrites and/or soma
  • Can be made more positive (depolarised) by EPSPs (excitatory post-synaptic potential)
  • Can be hyperpolarised by IPSPs (inhibitory post-synaptic potential)
  • These are spatially and temporally summed at the soma

The action potential:

  • Begins at the axon initial segment/hillock (probably the hillock first)
  • Due to voltage gated ion channels
  • About 2ms in duration
78
Q

what are autoreceptors?

A
  • Neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft can act on receptors on the presynaptic cell
  • Can affect the release of neurotransmitter on the presynaptic cell – increase or decrease
79
Q

what is a neuromodulator?

A

A synapse releases a neurotransmitter that doesn’t much change the cell membrane polarity level, but changes the way in which that cell membrane will respond to an incoming message

80
Q

what are the different types of synapses?

A
  • Axosomatic
  • axon goes to the soma
  • often inhibitory
  • Axoaxonic
  • presynaptic bulb, falls on the presynaptic bulb of another neurone

Hard to predict what’s going on because:

  • Could be excitatory, inhibitory or modulatory
  • Synapses can be axosomatic or axoaxonic – lots of different attachments
  • there’s also axodendritic
81
Q

what are most of the connections made by cortical cells made by?

A

Most of the connections made by cortical cells are to near neighbour cells in the same layer/column, by axon collaterals

82
Q

what happens when the electrical gradient one way balances the concentration gradient the other way?

A

there is an equilibrium and so no net movement

83
Q

what are the different features of the sodium channel?

A
  • Activation (m) gate – opens quickly
  • Ion selectively filter – stop K+ ions going through
  • Inactivation (h) gate – shuts more slowly
84
Q

how does a small then large depolarisation lead to proper depolarisation?

A

Small depolarisation increases K+ efflux through ‘resting’ channels -> hyperpolarisation = negative feedback
Larger depolarisation makes Na+ channels open -> Na+ influx
When threshold reached: Na+ influx > K+ efflux
So net entry of +ve charge -> depolarisation

At peak of action potential Na permeability has increased so much that pNa»pK
So, action potential peak voltage is roughly given by Nernst equation for Na

85
Q

which fibres are more sensitive to local anaesthetic? why is this useful?

A

Small nerve fibres are much more sensitive to local anaesthetics – probably because if you block enough sodium channels in a small fibre, that is enough to stop the action potential, but if you block it in a large fibre you have to block a much greater fraction
- Pain fibres are smaller than muscle fibres, therefore this is very useful as your motor fibres aren’t blocked but the pain ones are

86
Q

what happens in the first 8 weeks of development?

A

First 8 weeks are crucial for almost every development process – fully patterned in first 8 weeks, rest is growth and maturation

87
Q

how does the nervous system develop?

A
  1. Induction of the neural plate
  2. Patterning of the central nervous system
  3. Neuronal differentiation (neurogenesis)
  4. Wiring of the brain to establish functional neuronal circuits
88
Q

neurulation

  • what happens as neural folds close
  • where does closure happen first
  • describe steps from induction to closure of neural plate
A
  • As neural folds close, neural crest delaminates and migrates away
  • Closure happens first in middle of the tube and then zips rostrally and caudally
  • The mechanism of induction of the neural plate and neurulation is conserved in all vertebrates
  • Induction of the neural plate -> elevation -> convergence -> closure
  • Folding and closure of the neural tube occurs first in the cervical region (middle of embryo)
  • The neural tube then ‘zips’ up towards the head and towards the tail, leaving two openings which are the anterior and posterior neuropores
  • The anterior neuropore closes around day 25
  • The posterior neuropore closes around day 28
89
Q

what is the neural plate derived from?

A

ectoderm

90
Q

where is there high levels of Shh and BMP? what happens to cells depending on what combination of BMP and Shh these cells see?

A
  • High levels of Shh in the ventral part of spinal cord
  • High levels of BMP in the dorsal regions of the spinal cord
  • Depending on what combination of BMP and Shh these cells see, they will require a specific cell type identity

The combination of 2 morphogen gradients give a unique identity to the different subpopulation of neurons along the DV (dorsoventral) axis (e.g. most ventral parts of the neural tube gives rise to motor neurons and most dorsal parts of the neural tube gives rise to sensory neurons)

91
Q

what mediates the splitting of your brain into the two hemispheres? mutation in this causes what?

A
  • Shh mediates the splitting of your brain into the two hemispheres
  • Mutation in Shh causes holoprosencephaly
92
Q

what are neural progenitor cells? how do they proliferate? what mode do they switch to?

A

Neural (not neuronal) progenitor cells = cell that can give rise to all the different cell types of the nervous system e.g. neurones, glial cells

  • Neural progenitor cells proliferate by dividing at the apical surface
  • Progenitor cells switch to stem-cell mode divisions during later stages of development
93
Q

describe how neurones are formed. what’s the importance of this?

A

Neurons are formed through…

  • Asymmetric cell divisions
  • One daughter cell differentiates into a neurone
  • The other daughter cell remains as a progenitor cell and divides again
  • This maintains the progenitor pool for further differentiation
94
Q

neuronal differentiation involves acute loss of what?

A

apical polarity = prevents cells from differentiating into neurones

95
Q

what is periventricular heterotopia?

A

when nerve cells don’t migrate properly during the early development of the foetal brain

  • Initially characterised by seizures
  • Mid intellectual disability
  • More severe forms result in brain malformations, microcephaly, developmental delay and blood vessel malformations
96
Q

it is thought that when you learn new facts, what is happening?

A

It’s thought that when you learn new facts, what you’re really doing is forming synapses – forming neural circuitry

97
Q

what are the principles of neuronal wiring?

A
  • A pioneer axon reaches its target by responding to guidance cues
  • ‘followers’ then use this path to project their axons
  • Axons will form synapses through molecular and activity dependant mechanisms
  • A dynamic process of elimination of neurons which do not form synapses refined the circuit
98
Q

is encephalocele a neural tube defect?

A

no

99
Q

what happens if you have spina bifida as well as hydrocephalus?

A

CSF is pushed down spine and leaks out lesion

100
Q

Chiari II malformation

  • what is it
  • what characterised by
  • what does it cause
  • what causes it
A

Chiari II malformation is a complex developmental malformation of the CNS characterised by small posterior fossa and downward displacement of the cerebellum and brainstem through an enlarged foramen magnum

  • Causes obstruction for CSF to flow
  • Think it’s also due to the CSF flow pushing the cerebellum down

Myelomeningocele (MMC) in the lumbar spine is almost always present and believed to be related to the pathophysiology of the intracranial changes

101
Q

what are four distinctions between brainstem-spinal cord development and development of cerebral cortex?

A
  • Regard spinal cord and brainstem as the old brain – common to all vertebrae – they’re hard wired, fixed in terms of behavioural responses
  • Neocortex = new brain – very plastic – can change and learn
  1. Notochord (produces Shh) does not control cerebral development, just brainstem and spinal cord
  2. Genetics
    - hox genes for brainstem and spinal cord – not for front end
    - Emx and Otx genes for prosencephalon
  3. Timing
    - at two months brainstem and spinal cord kind of finish developing
    - cerebral cortex hasn’t even started
  4. The fluid system changes
    - no high volume of CSF in neural tube – neural tube in head (such as ventricles) and spinal cord
    - for cerebral cortex development, the choroid plexus starts making high volumes of CSF – has to exit the system at the 4th ventricle and enters subarachnoid space
    - 70% of CSF comes from lateral ventricles
    - production and drainage of fluid in cerebral cortex is active – arachnoid cells start to pump fluid out
102
Q

what happens if CSF signalling pathway is damaged?

A

Cortical heterotopias (misplaced neural tissue) – characterised by islands of neurons in abnormal location along their migration route due to problems in their migration process

103
Q

why is folic acid so important?

A

400mg folic acid per day – during pregnancy
- Can’t make DNA without it
- Can’t methylate and control DNA expression without it
- Folate + vitamin D -> make dopamine, serotonin…
THF = tetrahydrofolic acid – what is used by the body?? = active form of folate

104
Q

what does the pineal gland release?

A

melatonin

The pineal gland is a small endocrine gland in the brain of animals with backbones. The pineal gland produces melatonin, a serotonin-derived hormone which modulates sleep patterns in both circadian and seasonal cycles. The shape of the gland resembles a pine cone from which it derived its name

105
Q

how many pairs of nerves arise from the cervical region of the spinal cord?

A

8

106
Q

where can nerve cell bodies of preganglionic sympathetic fibres be found?

A

in the thoracic region of the spinal cord

107
Q

why is the cortex grey?

A

the cortex is grey because nerves in this area lack the insulation that makes most other parts of the brain appear to be white

108
Q

where is the primary auditory cortex?

A

superior gyrus in temporal lobe

109
Q

where is the frontal swallowing centre?

A

in motor centre

110
Q

what is the basal ganglia invovled in?

A

the control of movement and posture

111
Q

limbic system

  • what involved with and links with
  • what is part of the limbic lobe
  • describe what different parts of the limbic system do
A
  • Involved with memory
  • Links with olfactory area
  • Parahippocampal gyrus (limbic lobe)
  • Cingulate gyrus (limbic lobe)
  • Thalamus – portion of brain that is responsible for detecting and relaying information from our senses, such as smell and vision
  • Hypothalamus – produces hormones
  • Cingulate gyrus – pathway that transmits messages between the inner and outer portions of the limbic system
  • Amygdala
  • Hippocampus – converting short-term memories into long-term memories
112
Q

where is the fourth ventricle situated?

A

between the cerebellum and the brain stem

113
Q

what’s on the ventral surface of the midbrain?

A
  • Crus cerebri

- Oculomotor nerve

114
Q

what’s on the dorsal surface of the midbrain?

A
  • Superior colliculi
  • Inferior colliculi
  • Trochlear nerve (only nerve that comes out of the posterior side of brainstem)
115
Q

what else is found in the midbrain?

A
  • Periaqueduct
  • Periaqueductal grey matter – involved in pain modulation
  • Red nucleus
116
Q

the dorsal surface of the pons is also what?

A

the floor of fourth ventricle

117
Q

what’s on the ventral surface of the medulla?

A
  • Olive
  • Pyramid
  • Decussation of pyramids
118
Q

what’s on the dorsal surface of the medulla?

A
  • Cuneate tubercle
  • Gracile tubercle
  • Fasiculus cuneatus
  • Fasiculus gracilis
119
Q

what’s the cerebellum involved in?

A

the coordination of movement and balance

120
Q

what are the cervical and lumbar enlargements?

A
  • Cervical enlargement – lots of nerve cell bodies and axons going out to upper limbs
  • Lumbar enlargement – lots of nerve cell bodies and axons going out to lower limbs
121
Q

how many different spinal segments are there? how many of each?

A

31 spinal segments:

  • 8 cervical
  • 12 thoracic
  • 5 lumbar
  • 5 sacral
  • 1 coccygeal
122
Q

where are there mixed (motor and sensory) fibres?

A
  • dorsal and ventral rami
  • spinal nerve
  • not in dorsal and ventral roots