Cardiovascular & Thoracic Intervention - CH13 PPT Flashcards

1
Q

most common form of thoracotomy surgery

A

posterolateral thoracotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are most cardiac procedures typically performed through

A

median sternotomy of varying length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are most pericardium / epicardium procedures typically performed through

A

subxiphoid incision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are diaphragmatic procedures most commonly performed through

A

lateral thoracotomy
or
thoracoabdominal incision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

explain therapeutic implications for a patient that has had a posterolateral thoracotomy

A

trapezius, rhomboid major, teres major, lat and seratus anterior are all cut through and sewn together

  • will have to rehab these muscles as well as the cardiopulmonary system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

early therapeutic interventions post-thoracotomy

A

splinting for pain
splinted cough technique
incentive spirometer
functional mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what does functional mobility do for pts post-thoracotomy

A

encourages chest expansion
airway clearance
– reduces risl of atelectasis, pneumonia and venous thromboembolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

explain the incision associated with an anterolateral thoracotomy

A

from sternal edge
to
midaxillary line at 4th/5th intercostal space in a curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what muscles are affected in an anterolateral thoracotomy incision

A

trapezius
serratus anterior
latissimus dorsi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what would a left sided anterolateral thoracotomy be to treat

A

cardiac tamponade
descending thoracic aorta repair
pericardial effusion
left pneumonectomy / small resection of left lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what would a right sided anterolateral thoracotomy be to treat

A

right pneumonectomy / resection of lung
distal esophageal surgeries
access to hilum
mitral valve replacement/repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

explain the incision related to an axillary (lateral) thoracotomy

A

shorter incision that is either horizontal or vertical

will spare chest/shoulder muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

advantages and disadvantages of axillary thoracotomy

A

ad - minimizes change in pulmonary function and mobility which aids recovery

disad - least amount of visibility for surgeon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the indication for an axillary thoracotomy

A

minimally invasive cardiac procedures
epicardial pacemaker placement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

explain the incision of a median sternotomy

A

inferior to suprasternal notch and extend down midline of sternum below xiphoid

sternal retractor divides sternum fully and holds incision open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is a VATS

A

video-assisted thorascopic surgery
- minimally invasive cardiothoracic surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is a VATS done for

A

lung cancer
pleural issues
esophageal / abdominal issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is a RATS

A

robotic assisted thoracoscopic surgery
- robot used for 3D visibility and greater movement in surgical arms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

advantage of VATS

A

greater precision
reduced length of stay
decreased blood loss
lower incisional pain
less pulmonary involvement post-sx
earlier mobility
decreased inflammatory cytokine reaction

20
Q

what is an alternative to lung volume reduction surgery (LVRS)

A

endoscopy through various bronchoscopic lung volume reduction procedures

21
Q

what is an endobronchial coil

A

coil within the alveoli that improves inspiration and expiration by assisting in the opening of them

22
Q

what are chest tubes inserted for

A

evacuation of fluid or air that could impede breathing or collapse a lung

23
Q

in relation to the ribs, where is a chest tube placed?

A

between two ribs
at the uppermost part of the lower of the 2 ribs

24
Q

how does chest tube attachment progress

A

typically attached to the wall initially
progressed to gravity only as air leak reduces/drainage amount subsides

25
what are thoracic surgical complications often related to
pain blood loss/bleeding medication effects infection
26
what are major causes of perioperative morbidity/mortality
atelectasis pneumothorax pneumonia respiratory failure prolonged air leak arrhythmia ischemia
27
explain pt education regarding smoking and pre-operative care
need to stop smoking at least 4 weeks ahead of surgery -- if not, morbidity/mortality risk is greatly increased due to high amounts of carboxyhemoglobin
28
what is a PCI used for
to preserve myocardial integrity in pts with coronary arterial atherosclerotic disease
29
what is a PCI? what is similar to one?
percutaneous coronary intervention PTCA = percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty
30
what is common among PCI procedures
introduction of balloon-equipped catheter via peripheral arterial access site
31
what surgeries are under the umbrella of a PCI
angioplasty arthrectomy stenting
32
when is a CABG done
multivessel disease or if PCI will not be enough for atherosclerotic coronary artery occlusion
33
what is a OPCAB
off pump coronary artery bypass - variation of CABG involving a sternotomy that allows for operation on a beating heart
34
what is a MIDCAB
minimally invasive direct coronary artery bypass -- robot assisted that minimizes invasiveness
35
what is a TAVR
transcatheter AV replacement - percutaneous approach with minimal incision that deploys a valve endoscopically
36
what is a PPM
cardiac permanent pacemaker - electronic pulse generator that creates an artificial action potential
37
what does a PPM do
controls cardiac arrhythmias by initiating myocardial depolarization via electrical voltage difference between two electrodes
38
what rates are pacemakers typically used to treat
bradycardic rates
39
what conditions typically require a PPM
SA nodal disorders (bradycardia) AV nodal disorders (heart block, mobitz 2) tachyarrhythmias (SVC, ventricular ectopy)
40
what are the modes of PPM
fixed rate demand/inhibited mode synchronized mode
41
what is a fixed rate pacemaker
one that paces regardless of one's heart rate or rhythm - cannot use HR during PT because it will not change, must use Borg or something else to evaluate exertion
42
what is a demand inhibited mode pacemaker
one that activates when it reads a slower beat or one that inhibits when it reads a faster beat
43
what is a synchronized mode pacemaker
one that fires in correspondence with a beat depending upon what is needed ie - fires atria or ventricle depending upon the signal or lack thereof
44
explain polarity in pacing vs synchronization pacemakers
pacing = unipolar sync = bipolar
45
what is an ICD
implantable cardioverter defibrillator - for those with life-threatening arrhythmias
46
explain what an ICD does
sends an electrical impulse to the heart when ventricular arrhythmias occur