Clinical Assessment of CV Patient - Lab Manual Flashcards

1
Q

explain flow of assessment for CV patient

A

interview patient
ask about chest pains
review special tests
perform visual inspection
assess blood pressure
determine symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

if a patient has excessive nasal secretions what is indicated

A

Upper respiratory infection
allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is important to understand about one’s cough

A

its onset
duration and quality
- chronic vs acute
- morning or evening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

white sputum indicates

A

irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

yellow sputum indicates

A

infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

green sputum indicates

A

stagnant pus in dilated bronchi
lung abscess
infected sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

rusty sputum indicates

A

pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

currant jelly sputum indicates

A

pulmonary embolus or neoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

pink sputum indicates

A

pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

black sputum indicates

A

old blood
aspergillosis
soot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

when observing sputum what needs to be considered

A

color
consistency
odor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

frothy consistency indicates

A

common in CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

gelatinous consistency indicates

A

neoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what pathology does hemoptysis indicate

A

pneumococcal pneumonia
- streaky with specks of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

bright red blood in the spit indicates

A

rupture of vessels
- could be manifestation of pulmonary TB or cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

foul smelling sputum may indicate

A

systemic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

explain the 4 point scale of dyspnea

A

1 - mild exertion (short distance on level surface, normal pace)

2 - moderate exertion (running short distance/climbing flight of steps)

3 - minimal exertion (breathlessness while talking, shaving, or washing)

4 - breathlessness at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what can be used to assess baseline dyspnea

A

borg dyspnea scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is necessary to palpate? why?

A

upper and lower chest
lower ribs bilaterally
back bilaterally

– in order to determine breathing pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does S1 sound like? what does it represent?

A

high pitched and split sound at cardiac apex

mitral and tricuspid valve closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

when will an accentuated S1 be present

A

mitral or tricuspid valve is widely separated in diastole
or
mitral or tricuspid valves that are hard to open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what would cause S1 to be dampened

A

when a stenotic valve becomes nearly immobile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what pathologies may cause a soft S1

A

moderate-severe aortic insufficiency
advanced HF
prolonged P-R interval
mitral valves are incompetent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what does S2 represent?
what physiological action can we assume causes it

A

closure of semilunar aortic / pulmonary valves
deceleration of blood in the root of pulmonary artery at end-systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

where can S2 be auscultated

A

second ICS in midclavicular line with diaphragm of stethoscope

26
Q

what can a soft semilunar aortic valve (A2) closure be indicative of

A

incompetent aortic valves
severe aortic stenosis
decreased diastolic pressure
air trapping of COPD

27
Q

an accentuated S2 can be caused by

A

a loud A2 or P2

P2 = when pulmonary component of S2 is louder than S1

28
Q

explain timing component of S2

A

A2 precedes P2

29
Q

what is wide splitting of S2

A

when P2 is delayed after A2
- early aortic valve closure or delayed pulmonic valve closure

30
Q

what is paradoxical splitting of S2? what may cause this?

A

A2 occurs after P2

early pulmonary valve closure
delayed activation of left ventricle
prolongation of left ventricular contraction

31
Q

what pathologies may cause wide splitting of S2?

A

severe mitral regurgitation
RBBB

32
Q

what pathologies may cause paradoxical S2

A

early pulmonic valve closure = severe tricuspid insufficiency

delayed activation of left ventricle = LBBB

prolongation of left ventricle contraction = HTN, aortic stenosis, severe systolic dysfunction

33
Q

what is fixed splitting? what may cause this?

A

when time interval between A2 and P2 does not increase during inspiration

large atrial septal defect
severe right ventricle failure

34
Q

when is S3 found

A

early in diastole

35
Q

how to auscultate for S3

A

end expiration with bell near apex
- patient in left lateral decubitus position

36
Q

explain the occurrence of S3

A

normal in children and young adults

> 40 y/o = increase in passive diastolic filling in either right or left ventricle

37
Q

left ventricle S3 is caused by

A

HR
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
left ventricular aneurysm
hyperdynamic states

38
Q

how is right ventricle S3 auscultated

A

patient supine
3rd intercostal space at left sternal border

39
Q

what would accentuate RVS3

A

inspiration

40
Q

how is S4 auscultated

A

bell of stethoscope
apex of heart in left lateral decubitus position

41
Q

when does S4 occur? how to distinguish it?

A

just before S1

can be extinguished by firm pressure on the bell of stethoscope

42
Q

what causes S4

A

vigorous atrial contraction to propel blood into stiffened left ventricle

43
Q

when will S4 accentuate

A

inspiration

44
Q

what is a ventricular gallop associated with

45
Q

explain ventricular gallop

A

occurs early in diastole when LV is passively filling

will require a very compliant LV

can be a sign of systolic CHF

46
Q

what is an atrial gallop associated with

47
Q

explain atrial gallop

A

late in diastole during active LV filling

almost always abnormal

noncompliant LV

sign of diastolic CHF

48
Q

what does a high-pitched diastolic click signify

A

abnormal semilunar valves
dilation of great vessels
augmented flow states

49
Q

what does a mid-diastolic opening snap indicate

A

opening of a stenotic mitral valve
– will disappear when stenotic valve becomes severely calcified because it does not move

50
Q

what does a dull sound early to mid-diastolic knock indicate

A

abrupt cessation of ventricular filling
– secondary to a non-compliant and constructive pericardium

51
Q

if a murmur is present in the right 2nd ICS

what is it called? what is indicated?

A

aortic area murmur
- systolic murmur

aortic stenosis / aortic valve sclerosis

52
Q

if a murmur is present in the left 2nd ICS

what is it called? what is indicated?

A

pulmonic area
– systolic ejection murmur

pulmonic stenosis
atrial septal defect
flow murmur

53
Q

if a murmur is present in the left 3rd ICS

what is it called? what is indicated?

A

Erb Point
– diastolic murmur
via aortic or pulmonic regurgitation
– systolic murmur
via hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

54
Q

if a murmur is present in the left 4th ICS

what is it called? what is indicated?

A

tricuspid area
– holosystolic murmur
via tricuspid regurgitation or ventricular septal defect

– diastolic murmur
via tricuspid stenosis

55
Q

if there is a murmur in the 5th ICS at apex of the heart

what is it called? what is indicated?

A

mitral area
– holosystolic murmur
via mitral regurgitation
– systolic murmur
mitral valve prolapse
– diastolic murmur
via mitral stenosis

56
Q

location of tricuspid valve in auscultation

A

just left laterally of sternum
5th ICS

57
Q

location of pulmonic valve in auscultation

A

just left laterally of sternum
2nd ICS

58
Q

location of aortic valve in auscultation

A

just right laterally of sternum
2nd ICS

59
Q

explain process of auscultation

A

begin at apex (midclavicular line 5th ICS)
- listen for S1/S2
move to tricuspid (5th ICS by sternum)
move to pulmonic (2nd ICS left of sternum)
move to aortic (2nd ICS right of sternum)

repeat process with bell looking for murmurs
– have patient lie on their left side to listen to murmurs at apex

60
Q

when will gallops be heard

A

S3 = following S2
S4 = just before S1