Cardiovascular System - Cells, Tissues, Anatomical Directions, Body Cavities (Pearson MyLab & Mastering A&P) Flashcards

1
Q

The superior chambers of the heart are called the ________.

(One answer)

  • atria
  • ventricles
  • coronary chambers
  • caved
A

atria

Rationale: Your heart has 4 chambers. The upper chambers are called the left and right atria and the lower chambers are called the left and right ventricles.

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2
Q

Identify the correct sequence of blood flow through the chambers of the heart.

(One answer)

  • right ventricle, left ventricle, left atrium, lungs, right atrium
  • left atrium, left ventricle, right ventricle, right atrium, lungs
  • lungs, right ventricle, left ventricle, right atrium, left atrium
  • left ventricle, left atrium, lungs, right ventricle, right atrium
  • right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle
A

right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle

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3
Q

During pulmonary circulation, blood leaves the _______.

(One answer)

  • right atrium and goes directly to the left ventricle
  • right ventricle and moves to the lungs
  • right ventricle and goes directly to the aorta
  • left ventricle and moves to the lungs
  • right atrium and goes directly to the lungs
A

right ventricle and moves to the lungs

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4
Q

Which of the following INCREASES stroke volume?

(One answer)

  • exercise
  • severe blood loss
  • decrease in preload
  • decrease in end diastolic volume (EDV)
A

exercise

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5
Q

If the mitral valve is unable to close properly, ________.

(One answer)

  • blood could flow back into the left atrium
  • blood could flow back into the right ventricle
  • blood could flow back into the right atrium
  • blood could flow back into the left ventricle
A

blood could flow back into the left atrium

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6
Q

The ________ valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.

(One answer)

  • tricuspid
  • mitral
  • aortic semilunar
  • pulmonary semilunar
A

tricuspid

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7
Q

Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the time during which the ventricles are in systole?

(One answer)

  • T wave
  • P wave
  • Q-T interval
  • QRS complex
A

Q-T interval

Rationale: The Q-T interval is the period from the beginning of ventricular depolarization through ventricular repolarization, during which the ventricles are in systole.

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8
Q

Calculate the mean arterial pressure (MAP) for a patient whose systolic blood pressure is 120 mm Hg and diastolic blood pressure is 70 mm Hg.

(One answer)

  • 50 mm Hg
  • 87 mm Hg
  • 95 mm Hg
  • 120 mm Hg
A

87 mm Hg

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9
Q

The lining of the heart chambers is called the ________.

(One answer)

  • epicardium
  • endocardium
  • pericardium
  • myocardium
A

endocardium

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10
Q

Which of the following correctly describes how the baroreceptor reflexes would respond to a fall in blood pressure?

(One answer)

  • The cardioinhibitory center would be stimulated.
  • The cardioacceleratory center would increase parasympathetic output to the heart.
  • The vasomotor center would increase sympathetic output to arterial smooth muscle to increase TPR.
  • Contractility would decrease and heart rate would increase.
  • Baroreceptors would be stimulated and send increased impulses to the cardiovascular control center in the medulla.
A

The vasomotor center would increase sympathetic output to arterial smooth muscle to increase TPR.

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11
Q

The endocardium is composed of ________.

(One answer)

  • simple columnar epithelium
  • cardiac muscle cells
  • simple squamous epithelium
  • stratified squamous epithelium
  • simple cuboidal epithelium
A

simple squamous epithelium

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12
Q

Which of the following terms is correctly matched to its description?

(One answer)

  • ventricular diastole: period of ventricular contraction
  • atrial systole: period of atrial relaxation
  • quiescent period: period of total heart relaxation
  • stroke volume: amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle in one minute
A

quiescent period: period of total heart relaxation

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13
Q

Which chambers of the heart contain oxygenated blood?

(One answer)

  • right and left ventricles
  • left atrium and ventricle
  • right atrium and ventricle
  • right and left atria
A

left atrium and ventricle

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14
Q

Into which chamber of the heart do the pulmonary veins deliver blood?

(One answer)

  • left ventricle
  • left atrium
  • right atrium
  • right ventricle
A

left atrium

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15
Q

Electrical impulses pass through the conduction system of the heart in the following sequence:

(One answer)

  • SA node, bundle branches, bundle of His. AV node, and Purkinie fibers
  • SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers
  • SA node, bundle branches, AV node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers
  • SA node, bundle of His, AV node, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers
A

SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers

Rationale: The impulses of the heart originate at the SA node (pacemaker). The impulse is then transmitted to the AV node (atrioventricular node), where the impulse slows down to allow the atria to completely contract and thereby fill the adjacent ventricles. The AV node then transmits the impulse to the bundle of His, which branches into left and right bundle branches. The bundle branches give rise to the Purkinje fibers, which transmit the impulse to the ventricle walls and stimulate ventricular contraction.

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16
Q

Which of the following would take the longest time to regulate blood pressure?

(One answer)

  • baroreceptor-initiated reflexes
  • chemoreceptor-initiated reflexes
  • hormonal control of peripheral resistance
  • renal regulation
A

renal regulation

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17
Q

Which of the following structures receives the depolarization wave from the atria and passes impulses onto the ventricles?

(One answer)

  • AV node
  • bundle branches
  • atrioventricular bundle
  • SA node
A

AV node

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18
Q

What does AV node stand for?

A

atrioventricular node

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19
Q

Select the correct statement about the heart valves.

(One answer)

  • Aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves control the flow of blood into the heart.
  • The tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle.
  • The atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent backflow of blood added into the atria during ventricular contraction.
  • The mitral (bicuspid) valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle.
A

The atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent backflow of blood added into the atria during ventricular contraction.

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20
Q

What does SA node stand for?

A

sinoatrial node

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21
Q

Which of the following is a function of a plasma membrane protein?

(One answer)

  • forms a lipid bilayer
  • molecular transport through the membrane
  • circulating antibody
  • oxygen transport
A

molecular transport through the membrane

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22
Q

Mitochondria _________.

(One answer)

  • contain digestive enzymes called acid hydrolyses
  • are single-membrane structures involved in the breakdown of ATP
  • synthesize proteins for use outside the cell
  • contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function
A

contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function

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23
Q

The body cavities that protect the nervous system are located in the
cavity.

(One answer)

  • dorsal
  • ventral
  • cranial
  • vertebral
  • thoracic
A

dorsal

Rationale: The central nervous system is the complex series of nerve tissues that control the actions of the body. It is enclosed in the dorsal body cavity.

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24
Q

The body cavity which houses the lung is known as the ________.

(One answer)

  • the pelvic cavity
  • the pleural cavity
  • pericardial cavity
  • the cranial cavity
A

the pleural cavity

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25
Q

Which of the following best describes a sagittal plane?

(One answer)

  • a horizontal plane that divides the body into superior and inferior parts
  • a vertical plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior parts
  • a horizontal plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior parts
  • a vertical plane that divides the body into right and left parts
A

a vertical plane that divides the body into right and left parts

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26
Q

You observe a uniform tissue under a microscope. There is no lumen. The material looks densely packed, but you do not observe many nuclei. It appears that there are strands of fibers running in parallel directions. What type of tissue are you looking at?

(One answer)

  • epithelial tissue
  • nervous tissue
  • muscle tissue
  • connective tissue
A

connective tissue

27
Q

Which set of membrane proteins in the figure depicts an interaction between two separate cells?

  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
A

Panel D shows recognition of one cell by another via the glycocalyx.

28
Q

Which of the following is a component of the plasma membrane that creates a chemical barrier between the inside and the outside of the cell?

(One answer)

  • cholesterol
  • phospholipids
  • water
  • proteins
A

phospholipids

Rationale: The plasma (cell) membrane is a phospholipid bilayer, composed of two parallel sheets of phospholipid molecules lying tail to tail, with their polar heads exposed to water on either side of the membrane. Each lollipop-shaped phospholipid molecule has a polar “head” that is charged and is hydrophilic (hydro = water, philic = loving), and an uncharged, nonpolar “tail” that is made of two fatty acid chains and is hydrophobic.

29
Q

Which of the following names the three main parts of a human cell?

(One answer)

  • cytoplasm, plasma membrane, and nucleus
  • mitochondria, lysosome, and centriole
  • plasma membrane, mitochondria, and nucleus
  • cytosol, nucleus, and membrane
A

cytoplasm, plasma membrane, and nucleus

30
Q

A cell engulfing a relatively large particle will likely utilize ________.

(One answer)

  • phagocytosis
  • pinocytosis
  • receptor-mediated endocytosis
  • exocytosis
A

phagocytosis

31
Q

What process is indicated by C?

(One answer)

  • digestion of food particles
  • exocytosis of ribosomes from the cell
  • exocytosis of secretory proteins
  • exocytosis of RNA from the cell
A

exocytosis of secretory proteins

32
Q

What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called?

(One answer)

  • transverse
  • frontal
  • sagittal
  • median
A

frontal

Rationale: Coronal Plane (Frontal Plane) - A vertical plane running from side to side; divides the body or any of its parts into anterior and posterior portions.

33
Q

Which of the following epithelia forms the walls of the air sacs across which gas exchange occurs in the lungs?

(One answer)

  • pseudostratified columnar
  • simple cuboidal
  • simple squamous
  • simple columnar
A

simple squamous

34
Q

What is the function of the structures at D?

(One answer)

  • to allow large molecules, with the exception of DNA, to pass through the envelope
  • to act as an assembly point for ribosomes
  • they are enzymes for the replication of DNA
  • to act as attachment points for spindle fibers during cell replication
A

to allow large molecules, with the exception of DNA, to pass through the envelope

35
Q

Which of the following is the regional term designating the limbs?

(One answer)

  • the axial part
  • the lateral part
  • the appendicular part
  • the medial part
A

the appendicular part

36
Q

Some hormones enter cells via ______.

(One answer)

  • pinocytosis
  • receptor-mediated endocytosis
  • exocytosis
  • primary active transport
A

receptor-mediated endocytosis

37
Q

Myocardium (cardiac muscle tissue) must rhythmically contract for a lifetime. This requires a considerable amount of energy production by the cells. You would expect to see a relatively high amount of which organelle in these cells?

(One answer)

  • smooth endoplasmic reticulum
  • mitochondria
  • lysosomes
  • cytoskeleton
A

mitochondria

38
Q

If you know that the appendix lies in the right lower part of the trunk, you could also say it lies in the ________.

(One answer)

  • right inguinal region
  • hypogastric region
  • umbilical region
  • the right hypochondriac region
A

right inguinal region

39
Q

What are the three main components of connective tissue?

(One answer)

  • alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells
  • fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts
  • ground substance, fibers, and cells
  • collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers
A

ground substance, fibers, and cells

40
Q

Which of the following describes a parasagittal plane?

(One answer)

  • a transverse cut just above the knees
  • any cut dividing the body into anterior and posterior portions
  • two cuts dividing the body into left and right halves
  • any sagittal plane except in the midline
A

any sagittal plane except in the midline

41
Q

Which of the following tissues lines the majority of the digestive tract?

(One answer)

  • simple columnar
  • simple squamous
  • transitional
  • stratified cuboidal
  • pseudostratified ciliated columnar
A

simple columnar

Rationale: Simple columnar epithelial tissue lines most of the digestive tract, from the stomach to the anus.

42
Q

True or False: Pseudostratified epithelia are well adapted to the digestive system because the cilia increase the surface area for absorption.

A

False

Rationale: Pseudostratified epithelia are found in the linings of the respiratory tract. Cilia are used to move substances across membrane surfaces. Microvilli are used to increase surface area.

43
Q

What is the language of anatomy known as?

A

Anatomical terminology

44
Q

Using the anatomical terminology presented in this video, how would you describe the location of a bruise on the front right lower leg?

(One answer)

  • posterior, proximal to hip
  • anterior, proximal to knee
  • posterior, distal to hip
  • anterior, distal to knee
A

anterior, distal to knee

45
Q

What directional term would be used to indicate sunburn on a patient’s back?

(One answer)

  • posterior
  • anterior
  • proximal
  • distal
A

posterior

46
Q

The branch of anatomy that traces structural changes that occur in the body throughout the life span is referred to as __________.

(One answer)

  • surface anatomy
  • microscopic anatomy
  • regional anatomy
  • developmental anatomy
A

developmental anatomy

Rationale: Developmental anatomy traces structural changes that occur in the body throughout the life span.

47
Q

What does ‘posterior (dorsal*)’ mean?

A

It is an anatomical direction meaning toward or at the back of the body; behind.

*The terms ventral and anterior are synonymous in humans, but this is not the case in four-legged animals. Anterior refers to the leading portion of the body (abdominal surface in humans, head in a cat), but ventral specifically refers to the “belly” of a vertebrate animal, so it is the inferior surface of four- legged animals. Likewise, although the dorsal and posterior surfaces are the same in humans, the term dorsal specifically refers to an animal’s back (as in the dorsal fin of a shark). Thus, the dorsal surface of four-legged animals is their superior surface.

48
Q

What does ‘anterior (ventral*)’ mean?

A

It is an anatomical direction meaning toward or at the front of the body; in front of.

*The terms ventral and anterior are synonymous in humans, but this is not the case in four-legged animals. Anterior refers to the leading portion of the body (abdominal surface in humans, head in a cat), but ventral specifically refers to the “belly” of a vertebrate animal, so it is the inferior surface of four- legged animals. Likewise, although the dorsal and posterior surfaces are the same in humans, the term dorsal specifically refers to an animal’s back (as in the dorsal fin of a shark). Thus, the dorsal surface of four-legged animals is their superior surface.

49
Q

What does ‘superior (cranial)’ mean?

A

It is an anatomical direction meaning toward the head end or upper part of a structure or the body; above.

50
Q

What does ‘inferior (caudal)’ mean?

A

It is an anatomical direction meaning away from the head end or toward the lower part of a structure or the body; below.

51
Q

What does ‘medial’ mean?

A

It is an anatomical direction meaning toward or at the midline of the body; on the inner side of.

52
Q

What does ‘lateral’ mean?

A

It is an anatomical direction meaning away from the midline of the body; on the outer side of.

53
Q

What does ‘intermediate’ mean?

A

It is an anatomical direction meaning between a more medial and a more lateral structure.

54
Q

What does ‘proximal’ mean?

A

It is an anatomical direction meaning closer to the origin of the body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk.

55
Q

What does ‘distal’ mean?

A

It is an anatomical direction meaning farther from the origin of a body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk.

56
Q

What does ‘superficial (external)’ mean?

A

It is an anatomical direction meaning toward or at the body surface.

57
Q

What does ‘deep (internal)’ mean?

A

It is an anatomical direction meaning away from the body surface; more internal.

58
Q

Which of the following would be a characteristic that would increase absorption in a mucosal membrane?

(One answer)

  • Microvilli
  • Keratinization
  • Stratification
  • Calcification
A

Microvilli

59
Q

Which of the following organs lies in the dorsal cavity?

(One answer)

  • the spinal cord
  • the stomach
  • the kidney
  • the lungs
A

the spinal cord

60
Q

A serosa, or serous membrane, can be found within which one of the following body cavities?

(One answer)

  • the ventral body cavity
  • the dorsal body cavity
  • the spinal cavity
  • the cranial cavity
A

the ventral body cavity

61
Q

The basement membrane is located between which of the following tissue types?

(One answer)

  • nervous and connective tissue
  • epithelial and connective tissue
  • connective and muscle tissue
  • muscle and nervous tissue
  • epithelial and muscle tissue
A

epithelial and connective tissue

Rationale: Epithelial tissue secretes the superficial basal lamina region of the basement membrane, whereas connective tissue produces the deeper reticular layer of the basement membrane.

62
Q

Your friend is trying to convince you that if the ligaments binding the bones together at your freely movable joints (such as your knee, shoulder, and hip joints) contained a higher percentage of elastic fibers, you would be much more flexible. Is this true? If so, would this present any serious problems?

(One answer)

  • No, this is not true. The parallel arrangement of collagen fibers in dense regular connective tissue allows ligaments to stretch much more than elastic fibers could.
  • Yes, ligaments that are more elastic (or stretchy) will provide greater flexibility, but at the expense of joint stability. The joints would be prone to misalignment and dislocation.
  • No, this is not true. Joint flexibility is determined only by the flexibility of the skeletal muscles that cross the joint, not the composition of its reinforcing ligaments.
  • Yes, ligaments that are more elastic (or stretchy) will provide greater flexibility. This should not cause any problems since elastic and collagen fibers are equal in tensile strength.
A

Yes, ligaments that are more elastic (or stretchy) will provide greater flexibility, but at the expense of joint stability. The joints would be prone to misalignment and dislocation.

Rationale: In general, anything that increases the flexibility, or mobility (range of motion), of a joint will reduce joint stability. This will increase the likelihood of joint dislocations and misalignment.

63
Q

What type of tissue forms tendons?

(One answer)

  • areolar
  • adipose
  • elastic cartilage
  • dense irregular
  • dense regular connective tissue
A

dense regular connective tissue

Rationale: Dense regular connective tissue forms tendons.