Cardiovascular System Flashcards
Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis? Vascular spasm, fibrinolysis, platelet plug formation, coagulation
FIBRINOLYSIS
All of the following can be expected with polycythemia except: high hematocrit, low blood viscosity, increased blood volume, high blood pressure
low blood viscosity
What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?
Kidney
If you centrifuge or spin whole blood you will find the band of white blood cells and platelets, the Buffy coat, is much thinner than the packed red blood cells below it. The difference reflects the fact that…
White blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells
When does the period of atrial repolarization occur?
Ventricular depolarization
To auscultate the aortic semi lunar valve, you would place your stethoscope in the…
Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, …
Threshold is reached more quickly and heart rate would increase
While auscultating heart sounds during a check up, Andy’s Dr. hears a high-pitched sound during ventricular contraction. Which type of valve could cause this?
Stenotic Aortic semi lunar valve
Anastomoses among coronary arterial branches provided collateral routes for blood delivery to the heart muscle. True or false?
True
What chemicals affects blood pressure for both the short and long term?
Angiotensin II
An obstruction in the superior vena cava would decrease the flow of blood from the head and neck to the heart. True or false?
True
What scenario would not promote reabsorption from the venous end of the capillary bed?
Increasing solute concentration in the nearby interstitial fluid
The adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its requirements at any point in time is termed autoregulation. True or false?
True
Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation?
Tunic media
If a person is severely dehydrated you would expect to see all of the following except Lower plasma levels, higher hematocrit, higher blood viscosity, or lower immunity
LOWER IMMUNITY
Protein-containing fluid within lymphatic vessels
Lymph
Stores blood platelets
Spleen
Receives lymph from most of the body
Thoracic duct
Small organs intimately associated with lymphatic vessels
Lymph nodes
Isolated clusters of lymph follicles found in the wall of the small intestines
Peyer’s patches
Captures antigens and brings them back to you lymph nodes
Dendritic cells
Main antibody of both primary and secondary immune response
IgG
Antibody that protects mucosal barriers
IgA
Antibodies involved in allergies
IgE
Along with IgM, this antibody is a B cell receptor
IgD
First antibody to peak during a primary immune response
IgM
Enables quick and efficient response to secondary exposure to antigen
Memory cell
It’s absence results in no immune response
Helper T cell
Forms antibody producing cells
B cell
Kills cancer cells and virus-infected body cells
Cytoxic T cells
Slows or stops the immune response
Regulatory T cell
Which immune response is the first line of defense?
Intact skin and mucous membranes
Which immune response is the second line of defense
The inflammatory response
Which immune response is the third line of defense
The immune response
Which immune response is the innate defense system?
The inflammatory response and skin and mucous membranes
What is the major contributor to plasma osmotic pressure and is an important blood buffer?
Albumin
Which white blood cell has a multilobed nucleus, functions as a Phagocyte, and contains fine indistinct granules?
Neutrophil
Which RBC transport CO2 and oxygen?
Erythrocyte
Which wbc contains a U- or an S-shaped nucleus, granules stains very dark, and releases histamine and heparin
Basophil
Which is the largest of the WBCs, is crucial in defense against viruses, and is associated with chronic infections?
Monocytes
Thrombin catalyzes the activation of these molecules present in plasma
Fibrinogen
Which layer is the inner lining of the heart?
Endocardium
Which layer of the heart is the heart muscle?
Myocardium
Layer of the heart is the serous layer covering the heart muscle?
Epicardium
Which layer of the heart is the outermost layer of the serous pericardium?
Parietal layer
What is the largest artery of the body?
Aorta
Which artery supplies the kidney?
Renal artery
Which artery supplies the duodenum and stomach?
Common hepatic artery
Which artery supplies the distal areas of the large intestine?
Inferior mesenteric artery
Which artery location is a common place to take a pulse
Radial artery
What is fibrinolysis?
the enzymatic breakdown of the fibrin in blood clots.
What is polycythemia?
an abnormally increased concentration of hemoglobin in the blood, through either reduction of plasma volume or increase in red cell numbers. It may be a primary disease of unknown cause, or a secondary condition linked to respiratory or circulatory disorder or cancer.
What are the 3 functions of blood?
Transport, regulation, and protection
What are the 4 delivery (transport) functions of blood?
Oxygen from lungs; nutrients from digestive system to all body cells; metabolic wastes from cells to elimination sites; hormones from endocrine organs to target organs
What are 3 regulatory functions?
Maintaining appropriate body temp by absorbing and distributing heat throughout body and to skin surface to encourage heat loss; maintain normal pH in body tissues; maintain adequate fluid volume in the circulatory system
What is the sequence of erythrocyte maturation?
stem cell, pro erythroblast, basophilic erythroblast, polychromatic erythroblast, orthochromatic erythroblast, reticulocyte, erythrocyte
What are three factors that would trigger erythropoiesis?
hemorrhage, insufficient hemoglobin per RBC, living at a high altitude
What substance accounts for the flexibility of the RBC membrane?
spectrin
Why is the RBC metabolism anaerobic?
no mitochondria
What is a common anemic occurrence after transfusion error or is a possible consequence of sickle-cell anemia?
Hemolytic anemia
What anemia is associated with destroyed or severely inhibited bone marrow?
Aplastic anemia
What anemia is a consequence of acute blood loss?
hemorrhagic anemia
What is pernicious anemia?
A common problem of individuals who have a portion of their stomach removed to manage bleeding ulcers
What are platelets?
Cell fragments that help stop bleeding
What is diapedesis?
the process of WBCs moving in and out of blood vessels
What is the differential WBC count?
The count of WBCs that provide info on the relative number of each WBC type
What does blood consist of?
Plasma and formed elements
What viscous fluid is 90% water and 10% solutes?
plasma
What viscous fluid is slightly alkaline and represents 8% of total body weight?
blood
What plasma proteins are made mostly by the liver?
albumin, globulins, and fibrinogen
What are the formed elements making up 45% of whole blood?
erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets
Where do formed elements arise from?
hematopoietic stem cells in red bone marrow
What are the small, anucleate, biconcave cells that contain hemoglobin?
erythrocytes
what is oxyhemoglobin?
when oxygen binds to iron atoms in hemoglobin molecules within the lungs
What is deoxyhemoglobin?
When oxygen dissociates from iron in the tissues
Where is differentiation of reticulocytes completed?
In the bloodstream
What two substances enhance erythropoiesis?
Erythropoietin and testosterone
What substances are essential from hemoglobin production?
Iron, vitamin b12, and folic acid
What is the life span of an RBC cell?
120 days
Describe 4 processes that happen to damaged or old erythrocytes?
Macrophages of the spleen or liver remove them from circulation; released iron is stored as ferritin to be reused, and the heme group is degraded to bilirubin and secreted in bile; amino acids of global are metabolized or recycled
Which WBCs defend the body?
Leukocytes
What are 2 main categories of leukocytes?
Granulocytes and agranulocytes
Which WBCs are granulocytes?
neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
What are the functions of eosinophils?
They attack parasitic worms and their numbers increase during allergic reactions
What substance released by basophils promotes vasodilation and enhances migration of leukocytes to inflammatory sites?
histamine
Agranulocytes have crucial roles in immunity and include…
lymphocytes and monocytes
Which agranulocytes are known as the “immune cells”?
lymphocytes
Which agranulocytes differentiate into macrophages?
monocytes
What is leukopoiesis?
A process directed by colony-stimulating factors and interleukins released by supporting cells of the red bone marrow and mature WBCs
What are 2 leukocyte disorders?
leukemias and infectious mononucleosis
Where are platelets formed?
In red marrow
What process prevents blood loss?
hemostasis
coagulation of blood may be initiated by either the intrinsic or the extrinsic pathway. True or false?
True
What type of disorders involve undesirable clot formations, which may block vessels?
thromboembolic
What is thrombocytopenia?
A deficit of platelets which causes spontaneous bleeding from small blood vessels
What is hemophilia?
A genetic deficiency of certain coagulation factors
What is the name of the condition where there is bodywide clotting in undamaged blood vessels and subsequent hemorrhages?
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
When are whole blood transfusions given?
To replace severe and rapid blood loss
What are packed RBCs transfusion?
given to replace lost 02-carrying capacity
How are blood groups/types identified?
By the agglutinogens (antigens) present on RBC membranes
What happens when mismatched blood is transfused?
the recipient’s agglutinins (plasma antibodies) clump the foreign RBCs, which may block blood vessels temporarily and then they are lysed. Released hemoglobin may cause kidney shutdown.
What re the fetal hematopoietic sites?
the yolk sac, liver, and spleen
Where do fetal blood cells develop?
from blood islands derived from mesoderm; by month 7, red bone marrow is the primary blood-forming site
Where is the pulmonary circuit pump located?
The right side of the heart
Where does the blood from the pulmonary circuit pump initially go?
The lungs to pick up oxygen an dump carbon dioxide
Where is the systemic circuit pump located?
The left side of the heart
Where does blood from the systemic circuit pump initially go?
To the body tissues, supplying them with O2 and nutrients and removing CO2
Where is the human heart located?
obliquely within the mediastinum of the thorax
Describe the double sac enclosing the heart.
it is made up of the outer fibrous pericardium and the inner serous pericardium (parietal and visceral layers).
What is the pericardial cavity?
The area between the serous layers containing lubricating serous fluid
Which vessels enter the right atrium?
superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus
The right ventricle discharges blood into the ….
pulmonary trunk
the left ventricle pumps blood into the…
aorta
What are the functions of the atrioventricular (AV) valves (tricuspid, mitral)?
prevent back flow into the atria when ventricles are contracting
What is the function of the semilunar (SL) valves (pulmonary, aortic)?
prevent back flow into the ventricles when the ventricles are relaxing
What are branching, striated, generally uninucleate cells?
cardiac muscle cells
Cardiac muscle cells contain myofibrils consisting of typical sarcomeres. True or False?
True
Which cardiac cells trigger action potentials throughout the heart?
pacemaker cells
Pacemaker cells are contractile muscle cells. True or False
False, the are non contractile muscle cells that exhibit automaticity and rhythmicity and can independently initiate action potentials (electrical impulses)
What is a pacemaker potential?
The slow, positive increase in voltage across the cell’s membrane (the membrane potential) that occurs between the end of one action potential and the beginning of the next action potential.
The heart’s intrinsic conduction system consists of…
SA and AV nodes, the AV bundle and bundle branches, and the subendocardial conducting network
Which node has the fastest rate of spontaneous depolarization and acts as the heart’s pacemaker (sinus rhythm)?
The SA node
Defects in the intrinsic conduction system may cause…
arrhythmias, fibrillation, and heart attack
The sympathetic nervous system innervates the heart. True or false?
False, the autonomic nervous system
What is a graphic representation of the cardiac conduction cycle?
An electrocardiogram (ECG)
The P wave of an ECG reflects ….
atrial depolarization
The QRS complex indicates …
ventricular deploarization
The T wave represents …
ventricular repolarization
The mechanical events associated with blood flow through the heart describes the …
cardiac cycle
Abnormal heart sounds (murmurs) usually reflect valve problems. True or false?
True
Stroke volume and heart rate are regulated to alter cardiac output. True or false?
True
What is cardiac output?
The typical amount of blood (5 L/min) pumped out by each ventricle in 1 minute
What is stroke volume?
The amount of blood pumped out by a ventricle with each contraction.
Heart rate x Stroke volume =
Cardiac output
What substances effect the chemical regulation of the heart?
Hormones (epinephrine and thyroxine) and ions (particularly potassium and calcium)
Activation of the sympathetic nervous system increases heart rate and contractibility. True or false?
True
Parasympathetic activation decreases heart rate and contractility. True or false.
Both, it does decrease HR but has little to no effect on contractility
What effects stroke volume?
Anything that influences heart rate or blood volume, which influences venous return
The difference between end diastolic volume (EDV) and end systolic volume (ESV) =
Stroke volume
Congenital heart defects are the most common of all birth defects. True or false?
True
List 4 risk factors for cardiac disease.
Dietary factors, excessive stress, cigarette smoking, and lack of exercise
the fetal heart arise from which primary germ layer?
mesoderm
What are the three layers of MOST blood vessels?
tunica intima, tunic media, and tunica externa
Capillary walls are composed of the tunica media only. True or false?
False, the tunica intima
What are three functions of arteries?
Pressure reservoirs, distributing vessels, and/or resistance vessels
What are elastic arteries?
The large conducting arteries close to the heart that expand during systole, act as pressure reservoirs, and recoil during diastole to keep blood moving
What are muscular arteries?
Distributing arteries that carry blood to specific organs; they are much less stretchy and more active in vasoconstriction
Arterioles regulate blood flow into capillary beds. True or false?
True
Capillaries are distributing vessels. True or false?
False, they are exchange vessels
What is a degenerative vascular disease that decreases the elasticity of arteries?
Atherosclerosis
What feature allows exchange between capillary blood and interstitial fluid?
Intercelluar clefts
List the 3 types of capillaries from the most permeable to the least.
Sinusoid, fenestrated, & continuous (lacks pores)
What is a vascular shunt?
Metarteriole-thoroughfare channels that connect the terminal arteriole and post capillary venue at opposite ends of a capillary bed
What is the function of a pre capillary sphincter?
To regulate the amount of blood flowing into the true capillaries, which arise from and rejoin the shunt channels
Veins have comparatively larger lumens than arteries and a system of valves to prevent back flow. True or false?
True
Due to only being partially filled, these vessels can serve as blood reservoirs.
Veins
What are anastomoses?
Special interconnections between blood vessels that provide alternate channels in the same organ
Vascular anastomoses form where?
Between arteries, btw veins, and btw arterioles and venules
Blood flows from high to low pressure against resistance? True or false?
True
What is blood flow?
The amount of blood flowing through a vessel, and organ, or the entire circulation in a given time period
What is blood pressure (BP)?
the force per unit area exerted on a vessel wall by the contained blood
What is resistance?
the opposition to blood flow
What factors contribute to resistance?
blood viscosity and blood vessel length and diameter
Blood flow is directly proportional to blood pressure and inversely proportional to resistance. True or false?
True
Systemic blood pressure is highest in the ___ and lowest in the ___.
aorta; venae cavae
Where does the steepest drop of BP occur?
in the arterioles, where resistance is the greatest
Arterial BP depends on what two things?
compliance of the elastic arteries and on how much blood is forced into them
What is systolic pressure?
When arterial blood pressure is the highest (during systole)
What is diastolic pressure?
When blood is forced distally in the circulation by the rebound of elastic arteries during diastole; arterial BP drops to its lowest value
What is pulse pressure?
Systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
What is MAP?
The mean arterial pressure is the pressure that keeps blood moving throughout the cardiac cycle; MAP = diastolic pressure plus 1/3 of pulse pressure
What 2 measurements are used to assess cardiovascular efficiency?
Pulse pressure and blood pressure
Since venous pressure in nonpulsatile and low due to cumulative effects of resistance, what factors promote venous return?
venous valves, large lumens, functional adaptations (muscular and respiratory pumps), and sympathetic nervous system activity
Blood pressure varies directly with what 3 factors?
CO2, peripheral resistance (R), and blood volume
What is the major factor determining resistance?
Vessel diameter
Which factor significantly affects blood pressure?
small changes in the diameter or vessels (chiefly arterioles)
Which hormones increase BP by promoting vasoconstriction?
epinephrine, NE, ADH, and angiotensin II
Which hormones decrease BP by promoting vasodilation?
atrial natriuretic peptide
Intrinsic controls determine blood flow through…
Auto regulation that involve local adjustment of blood flow to individual organs based on their immediate requirements
Extrinsic controls controls determine blood flow through…
nerves and hormones that maintain MAP and redistribute blood during exercise and thermoregulation
Autoregulation involves…
myogenic controls that maintain flow despite changes in blood pressure, and local chemical factors
What are 3 vasodilators?
CO2, H+, nitric oxide, and decreased O2 concentration
Blood flows fastest where? slowest?
The cross-sectional area of the vascular bed is least (aorta); the total cross-sectional area is greatest (capillaries)
What is the importance of a slow blood flow through the capillaries?
To allow time for diffusion of nutrients and gases, and bulk flow of fluids
Nutrients, gases, and other solutes smaller than plasma proteins cross the capillary wall by…
diffusion
Larger molecules are actively transported via pinocytotic vesicles or caveolae. True or false?
True
How are water-soluble substances exchanged in capillaries? Fat-soluble substance?
Through the clefts or fenestrations; through the lipid portion of the endothelial cell membrane
Which vessels collect the small net loss of fluid in the interstitial space?
Lymphatic vessels
What factors determine the bulk flow of fluids at the capillary bed/interstitial space junction?
Hydrostatic and osmotic pressure (outward minus inward pressure)
What is edema?
The abnormal accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space as a result of imbalances in pressures that drive bulk flow or a block of lymphatic drainage
