Cardiovascular System Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis? Vascular spasm, fibrinolysis, platelet plug formation, coagulation

A

FIBRINOLYSIS

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2
Q

All of the following can be expected with polycythemia except: high hematocrit, low blood viscosity, increased blood volume, high blood pressure

A

low blood viscosity

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3
Q

What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?

A

Kidney

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4
Q

If you centrifuge or spin whole blood you will find the band of white blood cells and platelets, the Buffy coat, is much thinner than the packed red blood cells below it. The difference reflects the fact that…

A

White blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells

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5
Q

When does the period of atrial repolarization occur?

A

Ventricular depolarization

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6
Q

To auscultate the aortic semi lunar valve, you would place your stethoscope in the…

A

Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum

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7
Q

If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, …

A

Threshold is reached more quickly and heart rate would increase

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8
Q

While auscultating heart sounds during a check up, Andy’s Dr. hears a high-pitched sound during ventricular contraction. Which type of valve could cause this?

A

Stenotic Aortic semi lunar valve

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9
Q

Anastomoses among coronary arterial branches provided collateral routes for blood delivery to the heart muscle. True or false?

A

True

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10
Q

What chemicals affects blood pressure for both the short and long term?

A

Angiotensin II

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11
Q

An obstruction in the superior vena cava would decrease the flow of blood from the head and neck to the heart. True or false?

A

True

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12
Q

What scenario would not promote reabsorption from the venous end of the capillary bed?

A

Increasing solute concentration in the nearby interstitial fluid

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13
Q

The adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its requirements at any point in time is termed autoregulation. True or false?

A

True

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14
Q

Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation?

A

Tunic media

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15
Q

If a person is severely dehydrated you would expect to see all of the following except Lower plasma levels, higher hematocrit, higher blood viscosity, or lower immunity

A

LOWER IMMUNITY

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16
Q

Protein-containing fluid within lymphatic vessels

A

Lymph

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17
Q

Stores blood platelets

A

Spleen

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18
Q

Receives lymph from most of the body

A

Thoracic duct

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19
Q

Small organs intimately associated with lymphatic vessels

A

Lymph nodes

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20
Q

Isolated clusters of lymph follicles found in the wall of the small intestines

A

Peyer’s patches

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21
Q

Captures antigens and brings them back to you lymph nodes

A

Dendritic cells

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22
Q

Main antibody of both primary and secondary immune response

A

IgG

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23
Q

Antibody that protects mucosal barriers

A

IgA

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24
Q

Antibodies involved in allergies

A

IgE

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25
Q

Along with IgM, this antibody is a B cell receptor

A

IgD

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26
Q

First antibody to peak during a primary immune response

A

IgM

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27
Q

Enables quick and efficient response to secondary exposure to antigen

A

Memory cell

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28
Q

It’s absence results in no immune response

A

Helper T cell

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29
Q

Forms antibody producing cells

A

B cell

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30
Q

Kills cancer cells and virus-infected body cells

A

Cytoxic T cells

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31
Q

Slows or stops the immune response

A

Regulatory T cell

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32
Q

Which immune response is the first line of defense?

A

Intact skin and mucous membranes

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33
Q

Which immune response is the second line of defense

A

The inflammatory response

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34
Q

Which immune response is the third line of defense

A

The immune response

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35
Q

Which immune response is the innate defense system?

A

The inflammatory response and skin and mucous membranes

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36
Q

What is the major contributor to plasma osmotic pressure and is an important blood buffer?

A

Albumin

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37
Q

Which white blood cell has a multilobed nucleus, functions as a Phagocyte, and contains fine indistinct granules?

A

Neutrophil

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38
Q

Which RBC transport CO2 and oxygen?

A

Erythrocyte

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39
Q

Which wbc contains a U- or an S-shaped nucleus, granules stains very dark, and releases histamine and heparin

A

Basophil

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40
Q

Which is the largest of the WBCs, is crucial in defense against viruses, and is associated with chronic infections?

A

Monocytes

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41
Q

Thrombin catalyzes the activation of these molecules present in plasma

A

Fibrinogen

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42
Q

Which layer is the inner lining of the heart?

A

Endocardium

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43
Q

Which layer of the heart is the heart muscle?

A

Myocardium

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44
Q

Layer of the heart is the serous layer covering the heart muscle?

A

Epicardium

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45
Q

Which layer of the heart is the outermost layer of the serous pericardium?

A

Parietal layer

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46
Q

What is the largest artery of the body?

A

Aorta

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47
Q

Which artery supplies the kidney?

A

Renal artery

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48
Q

Which artery supplies the duodenum and stomach?

A

Common hepatic artery

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49
Q

Which artery supplies the distal areas of the large intestine?

A

Inferior mesenteric artery

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50
Q

Which artery location is a common place to take a pulse

A

Radial artery

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51
Q

What is fibrinolysis?

A

the enzymatic breakdown of the fibrin in blood clots.

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52
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

an abnormally increased concentration of hemoglobin in the blood, through either reduction of plasma volume or increase in red cell numbers. It may be a primary disease of unknown cause, or a secondary condition linked to respiratory or circulatory disorder or cancer.

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53
Q

What are the 3 functions of blood?

A

Transport, regulation, and protection

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54
Q

What are the 4 delivery (transport) functions of blood?

A

Oxygen from lungs; nutrients from digestive system to all body cells; metabolic wastes from cells to elimination sites; hormones from endocrine organs to target organs

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55
Q

What are 3 regulatory functions?

A

Maintaining appropriate body temp by absorbing and distributing heat throughout body and to skin surface to encourage heat loss; maintain normal pH in body tissues; maintain adequate fluid volume in the circulatory system

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56
Q

What is the sequence of erythrocyte maturation?

A

stem cell, pro erythroblast, basophilic erythroblast, polychromatic erythroblast, orthochromatic erythroblast, reticulocyte, erythrocyte

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57
Q

What are three factors that would trigger erythropoiesis?

A

hemorrhage, insufficient hemoglobin per RBC, living at a high altitude

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58
Q

What substance accounts for the flexibility of the RBC membrane?

A

spectrin

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59
Q

Why is the RBC metabolism anaerobic?

A

no mitochondria

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60
Q

What is a common anemic occurrence after transfusion error or is a possible consequence of sickle-cell anemia?

A

Hemolytic anemia

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61
Q

What anemia is associated with destroyed or severely inhibited bone marrow?

A

Aplastic anemia

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62
Q

What anemia is a consequence of acute blood loss?

A

hemorrhagic anemia

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63
Q

What is pernicious anemia?

A

A common problem of individuals who have a portion of their stomach removed to manage bleeding ulcers

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64
Q

What are platelets?

A

Cell fragments that help stop bleeding

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65
Q

What is diapedesis?

A

the process of WBCs moving in and out of blood vessels

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66
Q

What is the differential WBC count?

A

The count of WBCs that provide info on the relative number of each WBC type

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67
Q

What does blood consist of?

A

Plasma and formed elements

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68
Q

What viscous fluid is 90% water and 10% solutes?

A

plasma

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69
Q

What viscous fluid is slightly alkaline and represents 8% of total body weight?

A

blood

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70
Q

What plasma proteins are made mostly by the liver?

A

albumin, globulins, and fibrinogen

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71
Q

What are the formed elements making up 45% of whole blood?

A

erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets

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72
Q

Where do formed elements arise from?

A

hematopoietic stem cells in red bone marrow

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73
Q

What are the small, anucleate, biconcave cells that contain hemoglobin?

A

erythrocytes

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74
Q

what is oxyhemoglobin?

A

when oxygen binds to iron atoms in hemoglobin molecules within the lungs

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75
Q

What is deoxyhemoglobin?

A

When oxygen dissociates from iron in the tissues

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76
Q

Where is differentiation of reticulocytes completed?

A

In the bloodstream

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77
Q

What two substances enhance erythropoiesis?

A

Erythropoietin and testosterone

78
Q

What substances are essential from hemoglobin production?

A

Iron, vitamin b12, and folic acid

79
Q

What is the life span of an RBC cell?

A

120 days

80
Q

Describe 4 processes that happen to damaged or old erythrocytes?

A

Macrophages of the spleen or liver remove them from circulation; released iron is stored as ferritin to be reused, and the heme group is degraded to bilirubin and secreted in bile; amino acids of global are metabolized or recycled

81
Q

Which WBCs defend the body?

A

Leukocytes

82
Q

What are 2 main categories of leukocytes?

A

Granulocytes and agranulocytes

83
Q

Which WBCs are granulocytes?

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

84
Q

What are the functions of eosinophils?

A

They attack parasitic worms and their numbers increase during allergic reactions

85
Q

What substance released by basophils promotes vasodilation and enhances migration of leukocytes to inflammatory sites?

A

histamine

86
Q

Agranulocytes have crucial roles in immunity and include…

A

lymphocytes and monocytes

87
Q

Which agranulocytes are known as the “immune cells”?

A

lymphocytes

88
Q

Which agranulocytes differentiate into macrophages?

A

monocytes

89
Q

What is leukopoiesis?

A

A process directed by colony-stimulating factors and interleukins released by supporting cells of the red bone marrow and mature WBCs

90
Q

What are 2 leukocyte disorders?

A

leukemias and infectious mononucleosis

91
Q

Where are platelets formed?

A

In red marrow

92
Q

What process prevents blood loss?

A

hemostasis

93
Q

coagulation of blood may be initiated by either the intrinsic or the extrinsic pathway. True or false?

A

True

94
Q

What type of disorders involve undesirable clot formations, which may block vessels?

A

thromboembolic

95
Q

What is thrombocytopenia?

A

A deficit of platelets which causes spontaneous bleeding from small blood vessels

96
Q

What is hemophilia?

A

A genetic deficiency of certain coagulation factors

97
Q

What is the name of the condition where there is bodywide clotting in undamaged blood vessels and subsequent hemorrhages?

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

98
Q

When are whole blood transfusions given?

A

To replace severe and rapid blood loss

99
Q

What are packed RBCs transfusion?

A

given to replace lost 02-carrying capacity

100
Q

How are blood groups/types identified?

A

By the agglutinogens (antigens) present on RBC membranes

101
Q

What happens when mismatched blood is transfused?

A

the recipient’s agglutinins (plasma antibodies) clump the foreign RBCs, which may block blood vessels temporarily and then they are lysed. Released hemoglobin may cause kidney shutdown.

102
Q

What re the fetal hematopoietic sites?

A

the yolk sac, liver, and spleen

103
Q

Where do fetal blood cells develop?

A

from blood islands derived from mesoderm; by month 7, red bone marrow is the primary blood-forming site

104
Q

Where is the pulmonary circuit pump located?

A

The right side of the heart

105
Q

Where does the blood from the pulmonary circuit pump initially go?

A

The lungs to pick up oxygen an dump carbon dioxide

106
Q

Where is the systemic circuit pump located?

A

The left side of the heart

107
Q

Where does blood from the systemic circuit pump initially go?

A

To the body tissues, supplying them with O2 and nutrients and removing CO2

108
Q

Where is the human heart located?

A

obliquely within the mediastinum of the thorax

109
Q

Describe the double sac enclosing the heart.

A

it is made up of the outer fibrous pericardium and the inner serous pericardium (parietal and visceral layers).

110
Q

What is the pericardial cavity?

A

The area between the serous layers containing lubricating serous fluid

111
Q

Which vessels enter the right atrium?

A

superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus

112
Q

The right ventricle discharges blood into the ….

A

pulmonary trunk

113
Q

the left ventricle pumps blood into the…

A

aorta

114
Q

What are the functions of the atrioventricular (AV) valves (tricuspid, mitral)?

A

prevent back flow into the atria when ventricles are contracting

115
Q

What is the function of the semilunar (SL) valves (pulmonary, aortic)?

A

prevent back flow into the ventricles when the ventricles are relaxing

116
Q

What are branching, striated, generally uninucleate cells?

A

cardiac muscle cells

117
Q

Cardiac muscle cells contain myofibrils consisting of typical sarcomeres. True or False?

A

True

118
Q

Which cardiac cells trigger action potentials throughout the heart?

A

pacemaker cells

119
Q

Pacemaker cells are contractile muscle cells. True or False

A

False, the are non contractile muscle cells that exhibit automaticity and rhythmicity and can independently initiate action potentials (electrical impulses)

120
Q

What is a pacemaker potential?

A

The slow, positive increase in voltage across the cell’s membrane (the membrane potential) that occurs between the end of one action potential and the beginning of the next action potential.

121
Q

The heart’s intrinsic conduction system consists of…

A

SA and AV nodes, the AV bundle and bundle branches, and the subendocardial conducting network

122
Q

Which node has the fastest rate of spontaneous depolarization and acts as the heart’s pacemaker (sinus rhythm)?

A

The SA node

123
Q

Defects in the intrinsic conduction system may cause…

A

arrhythmias, fibrillation, and heart attack

124
Q

The sympathetic nervous system innervates the heart. True or false?

A

False, the autonomic nervous system

125
Q

What is a graphic representation of the cardiac conduction cycle?

A

An electrocardiogram (ECG)

126
Q

The P wave of an ECG reflects ….

A

atrial depolarization

127
Q

The QRS complex indicates …

A

ventricular deploarization

128
Q

The T wave represents …

A

ventricular repolarization

129
Q

The mechanical events associated with blood flow through the heart describes the …

A

cardiac cycle

130
Q

Abnormal heart sounds (murmurs) usually reflect valve problems. True or false?

A

True

131
Q

Stroke volume and heart rate are regulated to alter cardiac output. True or false?

A

True

132
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

The typical amount of blood (5 L/min) pumped out by each ventricle in 1 minute

133
Q

What is stroke volume?

A

The amount of blood pumped out by a ventricle with each contraction.

134
Q

Heart rate x Stroke volume =

A

Cardiac output

135
Q

What substances effect the chemical regulation of the heart?

A

Hormones (epinephrine and thyroxine) and ions (particularly potassium and calcium)

136
Q

Activation of the sympathetic nervous system increases heart rate and contractibility. True or false?

A

True

137
Q

Parasympathetic activation decreases heart rate and contractility. True or false.

A

Both, it does decrease HR but has little to no effect on contractility

138
Q

What effects stroke volume?

A

Anything that influences heart rate or blood volume, which influences venous return

139
Q

The difference between end diastolic volume (EDV) and end systolic volume (ESV) =

A

Stroke volume

140
Q

Congenital heart defects are the most common of all birth defects. True or false?

A

True

141
Q

List 4 risk factors for cardiac disease.

A

Dietary factors, excessive stress, cigarette smoking, and lack of exercise

142
Q

the fetal heart arise from which primary germ layer?

A

mesoderm

143
Q

What are the three layers of MOST blood vessels?

A

tunica intima, tunic media, and tunica externa

144
Q

Capillary walls are composed of the tunica media only. True or false?

A

False, the tunica intima

145
Q

What are three functions of arteries?

A

Pressure reservoirs, distributing vessels, and/or resistance vessels

146
Q

What are elastic arteries?

A

The large conducting arteries close to the heart that expand during systole, act as pressure reservoirs, and recoil during diastole to keep blood moving

147
Q

What are muscular arteries?

A

Distributing arteries that carry blood to specific organs; they are much less stretchy and more active in vasoconstriction

148
Q

Arterioles regulate blood flow into capillary beds. True or false?

A

True

149
Q

Capillaries are distributing vessels. True or false?

A

False, they are exchange vessels

150
Q

What is a degenerative vascular disease that decreases the elasticity of arteries?

A

Atherosclerosis

151
Q

What feature allows exchange between capillary blood and interstitial fluid?

A

Intercelluar clefts

152
Q

List the 3 types of capillaries from the most permeable to the least.

A

Sinusoid, fenestrated, & continuous (lacks pores)

153
Q

What is a vascular shunt?

A

Metarteriole-thoroughfare channels that connect the terminal arteriole and post capillary venue at opposite ends of a capillary bed

154
Q

What is the function of a pre capillary sphincter?

A

To regulate the amount of blood flowing into the true capillaries, which arise from and rejoin the shunt channels

155
Q

Veins have comparatively larger lumens than arteries and a system of valves to prevent back flow. True or false?

A

True

156
Q

Due to only being partially filled, these vessels can serve as blood reservoirs.

A

Veins

157
Q

What are anastomoses?

A

Special interconnections between blood vessels that provide alternate channels in the same organ

158
Q

Vascular anastomoses form where?

A

Between arteries, btw veins, and btw arterioles and venules

159
Q

Blood flows from high to low pressure against resistance? True or false?

A

True

160
Q

What is blood flow?

A

The amount of blood flowing through a vessel, and organ, or the entire circulation in a given time period

161
Q

What is blood pressure (BP)?

A

the force per unit area exerted on a vessel wall by the contained blood

162
Q

What is resistance?

A

the opposition to blood flow

163
Q

What factors contribute to resistance?

A

blood viscosity and blood vessel length and diameter

164
Q

Blood flow is directly proportional to blood pressure and inversely proportional to resistance. True or false?

A

True

165
Q

Systemic blood pressure is highest in the ___ and lowest in the ___.

A

aorta; venae cavae

166
Q

Where does the steepest drop of BP occur?

A

in the arterioles, where resistance is the greatest

167
Q

Arterial BP depends on what two things?

A

compliance of the elastic arteries and on how much blood is forced into them

168
Q

What is systolic pressure?

A

When arterial blood pressure is the highest (during systole)

169
Q

What is diastolic pressure?

A

When blood is forced distally in the circulation by the rebound of elastic arteries during diastole; arterial BP drops to its lowest value

170
Q

What is pulse pressure?

A

Systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure

171
Q

What is MAP?

A

The mean arterial pressure is the pressure that keeps blood moving throughout the cardiac cycle; MAP = diastolic pressure plus 1/3 of pulse pressure

172
Q

What 2 measurements are used to assess cardiovascular efficiency?

A

Pulse pressure and blood pressure

173
Q

Since venous pressure in nonpulsatile and low due to cumulative effects of resistance, what factors promote venous return?

A

venous valves, large lumens, functional adaptations (muscular and respiratory pumps), and sympathetic nervous system activity

174
Q

Blood pressure varies directly with what 3 factors?

A

CO2, peripheral resistance (R), and blood volume

175
Q

What is the major factor determining resistance?

A

Vessel diameter

176
Q

Which factor significantly affects blood pressure?

A

small changes in the diameter or vessels (chiefly arterioles)

177
Q

Which hormones increase BP by promoting vasoconstriction?

A

epinephrine, NE, ADH, and angiotensin II

178
Q

Which hormones decrease BP by promoting vasodilation?

A

atrial natriuretic peptide

179
Q

Intrinsic controls determine blood flow through…

A

Auto regulation that involve local adjustment of blood flow to individual organs based on their immediate requirements

180
Q

Extrinsic controls controls determine blood flow through…

A

nerves and hormones that maintain MAP and redistribute blood during exercise and thermoregulation

181
Q

Autoregulation involves…

A

myogenic controls that maintain flow despite changes in blood pressure, and local chemical factors

182
Q

What are 3 vasodilators?

A

CO2, H+, nitric oxide, and decreased O2 concentration

183
Q

Blood flows fastest where? slowest?

A

The cross-sectional area of the vascular bed is least (aorta); the total cross-sectional area is greatest (capillaries)

184
Q

What is the importance of a slow blood flow through the capillaries?

A

To allow time for diffusion of nutrients and gases, and bulk flow of fluids

185
Q

Nutrients, gases, and other solutes smaller than plasma proteins cross the capillary wall by…

A

diffusion

186
Q

Larger molecules are actively transported via pinocytotic vesicles or caveolae. True or false?

A

True

187
Q

How are water-soluble substances exchanged in capillaries? Fat-soluble substance?

A

Through the clefts or fenestrations; through the lipid portion of the endothelial cell membrane

188
Q

Which vessels collect the small net loss of fluid in the interstitial space?

A

Lymphatic vessels

189
Q

What factors determine the bulk flow of fluids at the capillary bed/interstitial space junction?

A

Hydrostatic and osmotic pressure (outward minus inward pressure)

190
Q

What is edema?

A

The abnormal accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space as a result of imbalances in pressures that drive bulk flow or a block of lymphatic drainage