Cardiovascular System Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following correctly describes preload in the cardiac cycle?

A. The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of systole.
B. The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole.
C. The resistance against which the heart must pump.
D. The pressure generated by the contraction of the atria.

A

Answer: B. The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole.
Explanation: Preload refers to the end-diastolic volume (EDV) that stretches the ventricles to their greatest dimensions under variable physiological demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is afterload in cardiac physiology?

A. The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole.
B. The resistance against which the heart must pump.
C. The force generated by the myocardium during contraction.
D. The pressure in the ventricles during diastole.

A

Answer: B. The resistance against which the heart must pump.
Explanation: Afterload is the pressure the heart must work against to eject blood during systole, often approximated by aortic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following describes the role of baroreceptors in the cardiovascular system?

A. Detect changes in blood CO2 levels.
B. Monitor blood pressure changes and mediate reflex adjustments.
C. Respond to changes in blood glucose levels.
D. Monitor oxygen concentration in the blood.

A

Answer: B. Monitor blood pressure changes and mediate reflex adjustments.
Explanation: Baroreceptors are mechanoreceptors located in the carotid sinus and aortic arch that sense changes in blood pressure and help regulate it via reflex mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

During exercise, which of the following occurs to increase cardiac output?

A. Decrease in heart rate and stroke volume.
B. Increase in heart rate and stroke volume.
C. Decrease in preload and afterload.
D. Increase in preload and decrease in afterload.

A

Answer: B. Increase in heart rate and stroke volume.
Explanation: Cardiac output increases during exercise primarily due to increases in both heart rate and stroke volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter released by the sympathetic nervous system that affects the heart?

A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. Serotonin
D. Norepinephrine

A

Answer: D. Norepinephrine.
Explanation: Norepinephrine is the primary neurotransmitter released by sympathetic nerve terminals in the heart, increasing heart rate and contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which type of blood vessel has the greatest ability to control blood pressure and tissue perfusion?

A. Arteries
B. Veins
C. Capillaries
D. Arterioles

A

Answer: D. Arterioles.
Explanation: Arterioles, with their small diameter and smooth muscle walls, are the primary vessels regulating blood pressure and tissue perfusion by altering their resistance to flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In the context of the cardiovascular system, what does the term ‘syncytium’ refer to?

A. The independent function of cardiac muscle cells.
B. The coordinated contraction of the heart muscle.
C. The pacemaker activity of the sinoatrial node.
D. The separation of the atria and ventricles by the septum.

A

Answer: B. The coordinated contraction of the heart muscle.
Explanation: The term ‘syncytium’ refers to the heart muscle functioning as a single, coordinated unit due to the electrical coupling of cardiac cells via gap junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What effect does sympathetic stimulation have on the coronary arteries?

A. Constriction
B. Dilation
C. No effect
D. Increase in venous return

A

Answer: B. Dilation.
Explanation: Sympathetic stimulation causes dilation of the coronary arteries, increasing blood flow to the myocardium to meet increased metabolic demands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the P wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) represent?

A. Ventricular depolarization
B. Atrial depolarization
C. Ventricular repolarization
D. Atrial repolarization

A

Answer: B. Atrial depolarization.
Explanation: The P wave on an ECG corresponds to the depolarization of the atria, leading to their contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does the body primarily increase stroke volume during exercise?

A. By decreasing heart rate.
B. By increasing end-diastolic volume.
C. By reducing sympathetic stimulation.
D. By decreasing preload.

A

Answer: B. By increasing end-diastolic volume.
Explanation: During exercise, increased venous return raises end-diastolic volume (preload), which increases stroke volume via the Frank-Starling mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the role of the sinoatrial (SA) node in the heart?

A. It acts as the primary pacemaker, initiating the electrical impulse that sets the heart rate.
B. It delays the impulse before it passes to the ventricles.
C. It coordinates the contraction of the ventricles.
D. It controls the opening and closing of the heart valves.

A

Answer: A. It acts as the primary pacemaker, initiating the electrical impulse that sets the heart rate.
Explanation: The SA node, located in the right atrium, is the natural pacemaker of the heart, initiating the electrical impulses that set the pace for heartbeats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the primary determinant of mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

A. Heart rate
B. Cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance
C. Stroke volume
D. Venous return

A

Answer: B. Cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance.
Explanation: Mean arterial pressure is primarily determined by the product of cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens to the arterioles during a ‘fight or flight’ response?

A. They constrict.
B. They dilate.
C. They remain unchanged.
D. They decrease in number.

A

Answer: A. They constrict.
Explanation: During a ‘fight or flight’ response, sympathetic stimulation causes arterioles in non-essential areas to constrict, redirecting blood flow to vital organs such as the heart and muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which layer of the heart is primarily responsible for its contractile function?

A. Endocardium
B. Epicardium
C. Myocardium
D. Pericardium

A

Answer: C. Myocardium.
Explanation: The myocardium is the thick middle layer of the heart wall composed of cardiac muscle cells responsible for the contractile function of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is the cardiac output defined?

A. The amount of blood pumped by the heart in one beat.
B. The volume of blood ejected by the ventricles per minute.
C. The pressure exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood vessels.
D. The total volume of blood in the circulatory system.

A

Answer: B. The volume of blood ejected by the ventricles per minute.
Explanation: Cardiac output is defined as the amount of blood the heart pumps through the circulatory system in one minute, calculated as stroke volume times heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the primary role of the atrioventricular (AV) valves?

A. To generate electrical impulses in the heart.
B. To prevent backflow of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction.
C. To regulate blood flow into the coronary arteries.
D. To increase the pressure within the atria.

A

Answer: B. To prevent backflow of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction.
Explanation: The AV valves (tricuspid and mitral) ensure unidirectional blood flow by preventing the backflow of blood from the ventricles into the atria during systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the term ‘isovolumetric contraction’ refer to in the cardiac cycle?

A. The period when the ventricles are filling with blood.
B. The phase when the ventricles are contracting but no blood is being ejected.
C. The period when the atria are contracting and pushing blood into the ventricles.
D. The phase of rapid ventricular ejection.

A

Answer: B. The phase when the ventricles are contracting but no blood is being ejected.
Explanation: Isovolumetric contraction occurs when the ventricles contract with no corresponding volume change because the valves are closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following factors most directly influences the force of ventricular contraction?

A. End-diastolic volume (preload)
B. Blood viscosity
C. Respiratory rate
D. Atrial pressure

A

Answer: A. End-diastolic volume (preload).
Explanation: The force of ventricular contraction is directly influenced by preload, as described by the Frank-Starling law of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What effect does parasympathetic stimulation have on the heart?

A. Increases heart rate
B. Decreases heart rate
C. Increases cardiac output
D. Increases contractility

A

Answer: B. Decreases heart rate.
Explanation: Parasympathetic stimulation via the vagus nerve decreases heart rate by reducing the rate of depolarization of the SA node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the QRS complex on an ECG represent?

A. Atrial depolarization
B. Ventricular depolarization
C. Ventricular repolarization
D. Atrial repolarization

A

Answer: B. Ventricular depolarization.
Explanation: The QRS complex on an ECG corresponds to the depolarization of the ventricles, which precedes ventricular contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

During which phase of the cardiac cycle does the ‘lub’ (first heart sound) occur?

A. During atrial contraction
B. During ventricular relaxation
C. During isovolumetric contraction
D. During ventricular ejection

A

Answer: C. During isovolumetric contraction.
Explanation: The ‘lub’ sound (S1) occurs during isovolumetric contraction when the AV valves close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which structure in the heart serves as the delay center for electrical impulses between the atria and ventricles?

A. Sinoatrial (SA) node
B. Atrioventricular (AV) node
C. Bundle of His
D. Purkinje fibers

A

Answer: B. Atrioventricular (AV) node.
Explanation: The AV node delays the electrical impulse from the atria before it is transmitted to the ventricles, allowing for proper timing of ventricular filling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the major effect of activation of beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart?

A. Decreased heart rate
B. Increased heart rate and contractility
C. Vasodilation
D. Decreased blood pressure

A

Answer: B. Increased heart rate and contractility.
Explanation: Beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart increase heart rate and contractility when activated by norepinephrine or epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which ion is primarily responsible for the depolarization phase of the cardiac action potential in pacemaker cells?

A. Sodium (Na+)
B. Potassium (K+)
C. Calcium (Ca2+)
D. Chloride (Cl-)

A

Answer: C. Calcium (Ca2+).
Explanation: In pacemaker cells, the depolarization phase is primarily due to the influx of calcium ions through voltage-gated calcium channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the significance of the Frank-Starling law of the heart?

A. It explains how heart rate is regulated.
B. It describes the relationship between end-diastolic volume and stroke volume.
C. It accounts for the refractory period of the myocardium.
D. It details the autonomic regulation of heart function.

A

Answer: B. It describes the relationship between end-diastolic volume and stroke volume.
Explanation: The Frank-Starling law states that the stroke volume of the heart increases in response to an increase in the volume of blood filling the heart (the end-diastolic volume)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What triggers the release of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)?

A. Low blood pressure
B. Increased atrial pressure
C. Decreased blood volume
D. High potassium levels

A

Answer: B. Increased atrial pressure.
Explanation: ANP is released in response to increased atrial pressure, leading to vasodilation and natriuresis to reduce blood volume and pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which phase of the cardiac cycle is associated with the T wave on an ECG?

A. Atrial depolarization
B. Ventricular depolarization
C. Ventricular repolarization
D. Atrial repolarization

A

Answer: C. Ventricular repolarization.
Explanation: The T wave on an ECG represents the repolarization of the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the role of the chordae tendineae in the heart?

A. To generate the electrical impulses in the heart.
B. To open the semilunar valves during systole.
C. To prevent the atrioventricular valves from inverting into the atria.
D. To anchor the heart within the thoracic cavity.

A

Answer: C. To prevent the atrioventricular valves from inverting into the atria.
Explanation: The chordae tendineae prevent the AV valves from being pushed back into the atria during ventricular contraction, ensuring one-way blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the primary effect of acetylcholine on the heart?

A. Increases heart rate
B. Decreases heart rate
C. Increases cardiac output
D. Increases contractility

A

Answer: B. Decreases heart rate.
Explanation: Acetylcholine, released by the vagus nerve, decreases heart rate by slowing the rate of depolarization in the SA node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

During which part of the cardiac cycle is the aortic valve open?

A. Ventricular filling
B. Isovolumetric contraction
C. Ventricular ejection
D. Isovolumetric relaxation

A

Answer: C. Ventricular ejection.
Explanation: The aortic valve opens during ventricular ejection, allowing blood to flow from the left ventricle into the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which condition is characterized by a rapid, irregular heart rhythm originating in the atria?

A. Bradycardia
B. Ventricular fibrillation
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Heart block

A

Answer: C. Atrial fibrillation.
Explanation: Atrial fibrillation is a condition characterized by a rapid and irregular rhythm originating in the atria, leading to inefficient atrial contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the function of the Purkinje fibers in the heart?

A. To initiate the electrical impulse in the heart.
B. To delay the impulse from the atria to the ventricles.
C. To rapidly conduct the impulse through the ventricles.
D. To regulate the opening and closing of heart valves.

A

Answer: C. To rapidly conduct the impulse through the ventricles.
Explanation: Purkinje fibers rapidly conduct the electrical impulse through the ventricles, ensuring coordinated ventricular contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following increases the risk of developing hypertension?

A. High dietary potassium
B. Physical inactivity
C. Low salt intake
D. Moderate alcohol consumption

A

Answer: B. Physical inactivity.
Explanation: Physical inactivity is a significant risk factor for developing hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?

A. Right atrium
B. Right ventricle
C. Left atrium
D. Left ventricle

A

Answer: C. Left atrium.
Explanation: The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs via the pulmonary veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What effect does the activation of alpha-1 adrenergic receptors have on blood vessels?

A. Vasodilation
B. Vasoconstriction
C. No effect
D. Decreased heart rate

A

Answer: B. Vasoconstriction.
Explanation: Activation of alpha-1 adrenergic receptors on vascular smooth muscle cells leads to vasoconstriction, increasing blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What condition results from the backflow of blood due to incomplete closure of heart valves?

A. Aortic stenosis
B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Myocardial infarction

A

Answer: B. Mitral regurgitation.
Explanation: Mitral regurgitation occurs when the mitral valve does not close completely, allowing blood to flow backward into the left atrium during ventricular contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which ion plays a crucial role in the plateau phase of the cardiac action potential in ventricular myocytes?

A. Sodium (Na+)
B. Potassium (K+)
C. Calcium (Ca2+)
D. Chloride (Cl-)

A

Answer: C. Calcium (Ca2+).
Explanation: The plateau phase of the cardiac action potential in ventricular myocytes is maintained by the influx of calcium ions through voltage-gated calcium channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following best describes systolic pressure?

A. The pressure in the arteries during ventricular relaxation.
B. The pressure in the veins during atrial contraction.
C. The pressure in the arteries during ventricular contraction.
D. The pressure in the ventricles during diastole.

A

Answer: C. The pressure in the arteries during ventricular contraction.
Explanation: Systolic pressure is the maximum pressure in the arteries during ventricular contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the primary purpose of the coronary circulation?

A. To supply oxygenated blood to the lungs.
B. To remove metabolic waste from the systemic circulation.
C. To provide oxygen and nutrients to the heart muscle.
D. To transport hormones throughout the body.

A

Answer: C. To provide oxygen and nutrients to the heart muscle.
Explanation: The coronary circulation supplies the heart muscle with oxygenated blood and nutrients, essential for its function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which condition is associated with a narrowing of the aortic valve opening?

A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Pulmonary hypertension

A

Answer: C. Aortic stenosis.
Explanation: Aortic stenosis is characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve opening, restricting blood flow from the left ventricle into the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the effect of hyperkalemia on cardiac cells?

A. Decreased excitability
B. Increased excitability
C. No effect
D. Increased contractility

A

Answer: A. Decreased excitability.
Explanation: Hyperkalemia, or elevated potassium levels, reduces the excitability of cardiac cells, potentially leading to arrhythmias

42
Q

Which type of blood vessel primarily regulates blood flow to capillary beds?

A. Arteries
B. Veins
C. Capillaries
D. Arterioles

A

Answer: D. Arterioles.
Explanation: Arterioles are the primary regulators of blood flow to capillary beds by adjusting their diameter

43
Q

What is the primary function of the venous valves?

A. To increase blood pressure
B. To regulate blood flow to the capillaries
C. To prevent backflow of blood in the veins
D. To control the heart rate

A

Answer: C. To prevent backflow of blood in the veins.
Explanation: Venous valves prevent the backflow of blood, ensuring unidirectional flow towards the heart

44
Q

Which heart chamber has the thickest myocardium?

A. Right atrium
B. Right ventricle
C. Left atrium
D. Left ventricle

A

Answer: D. Left ventricle.
Explanation: The left ventricle has the thickest myocardium to generate the high pressure needed to pump blood through the systemic circulation

45
Q

Which part of the ECG corresponds to atrial repolarization?

A. P wave
B. QRS complex
C. T wave
D. It is not visible on a normal ECG

A

Answer: D. It is not visible on a normal ECG.
Explanation: Atrial repolarization is usually not visible on a normal ECG because it occurs during the QRS complex and is obscured by ventricular depolarization

46
Q

What is the effect of the Frank-Starling mechanism on the heart?

A. Decreases stroke volume with increased preload
B. Increases stroke volume with increased preload
C. Decreases heart rate with increased preload
D. Has no effect on stroke volume

A

Answer: B. Increases stroke volume with increased preload.
Explanation: The Frank-Starling mechanism describes how increased preload (end-diastolic volume) leads to an increased stroke volume due to more forceful ventricular contractions

47
Q

Which of the following can lead to an increase in cardiac afterload?

A. Decreased arterial pressure
B. Increased arterial pressure
C. Decreased heart rate
D. Increased venous return

A

Answer: B. Increased arterial pressure.
Explanation: Increased arterial pressure raises the resistance against which the heart must pump, increasing afterload

48
Q

What is the primary role of the heart’s conduction system?

A. To control the opening and closing of the heart valves
B. To regulate the amount of blood entering the heart
C. To coordinate the timing of cardiac muscle contraction
D. To maintain blood pressure

A

Answer: C. To coordinate the timing of cardiac muscle contraction.
Explanation: The heart’s conduction system ensures that cardiac muscle contractions are properly timed for efficient pumping of blood

49
Q

What is the result of sympathetic stimulation of the heart?

A. Decreased heart rate and decreased contractility
B. Increased heart rate and increased contractility
C. Decreased cardiac output
D. No significant effect

A

Answer: B. Increased heart rate and increased contractility.
Explanation: Sympathetic stimulation increases both heart rate and contractility, enhancing cardiac output

50
Q

Which of the following is the most important factor in determining the resistance to blood flow in blood vessels?

A. Blood viscosity
B. Vessel length
C. Vessel diameter
D. Total blood volume

A

Answer: C. Vessel diameter.
Explanation: Vessel diameter has the greatest impact on resistance to blood flow, with even small changes in diameter causing significant changes in resistance

51
Q

What is the primary function of the AV node?

A. To initiate the heartbeat
B. To delay the electrical impulse before it enters the ventricles
C. To rapidly conduct the electrical impulse through the ventricles
D. To maintain the heart’s rhythm during rest

A

Answer: B. To delay the electrical impulse before it enters the ventricles.
Explanation: The AV node delays the electrical impulse from the atria before it passes to the ventricles, ensuring proper timing of ventricular contraction

52
Q

Which factor is directly proportional to cardiac output?

A. Stroke volume only
B. Heart rate only
C. Stroke volume and heart rate
D. Systemic vascular resistance

A

Answer: C. Stroke volume and heart rate.
Explanation: Cardiac output is the product of stroke volume and heart rate

53
Q

Which of the following conditions would likely result in a decrease in cardiac output?

A. Increased preload
B. Increased afterload
C. Increased heart rate
D. Increased contractility

A

Answer: B. Increased afterload.
Explanation: Increased afterload increases the resistance against which the heart must pump, potentially reducing cardiac output if the heart cannot compensate adequately

54
Q

Which component of the ECG represents ventricular repolarization?

A. P wave
B. QRS complex
C. T wave
D. U wave

A

Answer: C. T wave.
Explanation: The T wave represents the repolarization of the ventricles【5†source】.

55
Q

What is the function of the pericardium?

A. To contract and pump blood
B. To provide a protective sac around the heart
C. To generate electrical impulses
D. To regulate blood pressure

A

Answer: B. To provide a protective sac around the heart.
Explanation: The pericardium is a double-walled sac that surrounds and protects the heart【7†source】.

56
Q

Which of the following best describes isovolumetric relaxation?

A. The phase when the ventricles are contracting but no blood is being ejected
B. The phase when the ventricles are filling with blood
C. The phase when the ventricles are relaxing but all valves are closed
D. The phase when blood is being ejected from the ventricles

A

Answer: C. The phase when the ventricles are relaxing but all valves are closed.
Explanation: Isovolumetric relaxation occurs when the ventricles relax but no blood enters because the valves are closed【6†source】.

57
Q

What is the primary cause of the second heart sound (‘dub’)?

A. Opening of the AV valves
B. Closing of the AV valves
C. Opening of the semilunar valves
D. Closing of the semilunar valves

A

Answer: D. Closing of the semilunar valves.
Explanation: The second heart sound (‘dub’) is caused by the closing of the semilunar valves at the end of ventricular systole【6†source】.

58
Q

Which type of blood vessel has the highest blood pressure?

A. Capillaries
B. Veins
C. Arteries
D. Venules

A

Answer: C. Arteries.
Explanation: Arteries have the highest blood pressure because they receive blood directly from the heart under high pressure【7†source】.

59
Q

What effect does the parasympathetic nervous system have on the SA node?

A. Increases heart rate
B. Decreases heart rate
C. Increases contractility
D. No effect

A

Answer: B. Decreases heart rate.
Explanation: Parasympathetic stimulation via the vagus nerve decreases the rate of depolarization in the SA node, slowing heart rate

60
Q

What is the role of the aortic arch baroreceptors in blood pressure regulation?

A. To sense changes in blood CO2 levels
B. To detect changes in blood pressure and send signals to the brain
C. To monitor oxygen levels in the blood
D. To regulate blood glucose levels

A

Answer: B. To detect changes in blood pressure and send signals to the brain.
Explanation: Baroreceptors in the aortic arch detect changes in blood pressure and send signals to the brain to help regulate it

61
Q

Which factor primarily determines end-diastolic volume (EDV)?

A. Venous return
B. Heart rate
C. Contractility
D. Afterload

A

Answer: A. Venous return.
Explanation: End-diastolic volume is primarily determined by venous return, the volume of blood returning to the heart

62
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of the SA node?

A. It serves as the heart’s primary pacemaker.
B. It delays the impulse from the atria to the ventricles.
C. It rapidly conducts the impulse through the ventricles.
D. It generates the action potentials for ventricular contraction.

A

Answer: A. It serves as the heart’s primary pacemaker.
Explanation: The SA node is the heart’s primary pacemaker, generating the electrical impulses that initiate each heartbeat

63
Q

What is the primary function of the semilunar valves?

A. To prevent backflow of blood into the atria
B. To prevent backflow of blood into the ventricles
C. To regulate blood flow to the coronary arteries
D. To control the rate of the heartbeat

A

Answer: B. To prevent backflow of blood into the ventricles.
Explanation: The semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary) prevent the backflow of blood into the ventricles from the arteries

64
Q

Which condition is characterized by thickening and hardening of the arterial walls?

A. Atherosclerosis
B. Thrombosis
C. Aneurysm
D. Varicose veins

A

Answer: A. Atherosclerosis.
Explanation: Atherosclerosis is the condition characterized by thickening and hardening of the arterial walls due to plaque buildup

65
Q

What effect does increased parasympathetic activity have on heart rate?

A. Increases heart rate
B. Decreases heart rate
C. Increases contractility
D. Increases afterload

A

Answer: B. Decreases heart rate.
Explanation: Increased parasympathetic activity decreases heart rate by slowing the rate of depolarization in the SA node

66
Q

What is the function of the capillaries in the circulatory system?

A. To carry blood away from the heart
B. To return blood to the heart
C. To facilitate exchange of nutrients and gases between blood and tissues
D. To regulate blood pressure

A

Answer: C. To facilitate exchange of nutrients and gases between blood and tissues.
Explanation: Capillaries are small blood vessels where the exchange of nutrients, gases, and waste products occurs between blood and tissues

67
Q

Which structure in the heart prevents the backflow of blood from the right ventricle to the right atrium?

A. Mitral valve
B. Aortic valve
C. Tricuspid valve
D. Pulmonary valve

A

Answer: C. Tricuspid valve.
Explanation: The tricuspid valve prevents backflow of blood from the right ventricle to the right atrium

68
Q

What is the primary role of norepinephrine in the cardiovascular system?

A. To decrease heart rate
B. To increase heart rate and contractility
C. To constrict veins
D. To regulate blood pressure

A

Answer: B. To increase heart rate and contractility.
Explanation: Norepinephrine increases heart rate and contractility by stimulating beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart

69
Q

Which condition is associated with a rapid and irregular heart rate originating from the ventricles?

A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Ventricular fibrillation
C. Bradycardia
D. Heart block

A

Answer: B. Ventricular fibrillation.
Explanation: Ventricular fibrillation is characterized by rapid and irregular electrical activity in the ventricles, leading to ineffective contractions

70
Q

What is the effect of beta-1 adrenergic receptor stimulation on the heart?

A. Decreases heart rate
B. Decreases contractility
C. Increases heart rate and contractility
D. Increases vascular resistance

A

Answer: C. Increases heart rate and contractility.
Explanation: Stimulation of beta-1 adrenergic receptors increases heart rate and contractility, enhancing cardiac output

71
Q

Which heart sound is associated with the closing of the atrioventricular valves?

A. First heart sound (S1)
B. Second heart sound (S2)
C. Third heart sound (S3)
D. Fourth heart sound (S4)

A

Answer: A. First heart sound (S1).
Explanation: The first heart sound (S1), or ‘lub,’ is associated with the closing of the atrioventricular valves (tricuspid and mitral) at the beginning of ventricular systole【6†source】.

72
Q

Which hormone is released in response to increased blood volume and pressure in the atria?

A. Aldosterone
B. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
D. Renin

A

Answer: C. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).
Explanation: Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is released by the atria in response to increased blood volume and pressure, promoting diuresis and vasodilation to reduce blood volume and pressure

73
Q

What is the effect of sympathetic stimulation on arterioles?

A. Vasodilation
B. Vasoconstriction
C. Increased permeability
D. No effect

A

Answer: B. Vasoconstriction.
Explanation: Sympathetic stimulation typically causes vasoconstriction of arterioles, increasing vascular resistance and blood pressure

74
Q

What is the primary role of the pulmonary veins?

A. To carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs
B. To carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium
C. To transport blood from the right ventricle to the lungs
D. To supply oxygen to the heart muscle

A

Answer: B. To carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium.
Explanation: The pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart

75
Q

What is the primary effect of the parasympathetic nervous system on the heart?

A. Increased heart rate
B. Decreased heart rate
C. Increased contractility
D. Increased blood pressure

A

Answer: B. Decreased heart rate.
Explanation: The parasympathetic nervous system decreases heart rate by slowing the rate of depolarization in the SA node

76
Q

Which of the following conditions is characterized by an inability of the heart to pump sufficient blood to meet the body’s needs?

A. Hypertension
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Atrial fibrillation

A

Answer: C. Congestive heart failure.
Explanation: Congestive heart failure is a condition where the heart is unable to pump sufficient blood to meet the body’s needs, leading to fluid buildup and other symptoms

77
Q

What is the primary function of the venae cavae?

A. To carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart
B. To return deoxygenated blood from the body to the right atrium
C. To transport blood from the heart to the body
D. To supply oxygen to the heart muscle

A

Answer: B. To return deoxygenated blood from the body to the right atrium.
Explanation: The venae cavae (superior and inferior) return deoxygenated blood from the body to the right atrium of the heart

78
Q

Which structure in the heart prevents backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium?

A. Mitral valve
B. Aortic valve
C. Tricuspid valve
D. Pulmonary valve

A

Answer: A. Mitral valve.
Explanation: The mitral valve prevents backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium

79
Q

What is the significance of the QT interval on an ECG?

A. It represents atrial depolarization.
B. It measures the time of ventricular depolarization and repolarization.
C. It indicates the time taken for atrial contraction.
D. It shows the duration of ventricular diastole.

A

Answer: B. It measures the time of ventricular depolarization and repolarization.
Explanation: The QT interval on an ECG measures the time taken for ventricular depolarization and repolarization, indicating the electrical activity of the ventricles

80
Q

What is the primary determinant of stroke volume?

A. Heart rate
B. Afterload
C. Preload
D. Blood pressure

A

Answer: C. Preload.
Explanation: Preload, or end-diastolic volume, is the primary determinant of stroke volume due to its influence on ventricular filling and contraction strength

81
Q

What condition results from a blockage in the coronary arteries?

A. Myocardial infarction
B. Hypertension
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Atrial fibrillation

A

Answer: A. Myocardial infarction.
Explanation: A myocardial infarction, or heart attack, occurs when a blockage in the coronary arteries restricts blood flow to the heart muscle, causing tissue damage

82
Q

Which heart chamber pumps blood into the pulmonary circulation?

A. Right atrium
B. Right ventricle
C. Left atrium
D. Left ventricle

A

Answer: B. Right ventricle.
Explanation: The right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood into the pulmonary circulation via the pulmonary artery​

83
Q

What is the primary function of the pulmonary artery?

A. To carry oxygenated blood to the lungs
B. To carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs
C. To return oxygenated blood to the heart
D. To supply oxygenated blood to the heart muscle

A

Answer: B. To carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs.
Explanation: The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs for oxygenation

84
Q

Which condition is characterized by elevated blood pressure without an identifiable cause?

A. Secondary hypertension
B. Essential hypertension
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Orthostatic hypotension

A

Answer: B. Essential hypertension.
Explanation: Essential hypertension is high blood pressure with no identifiable cause, also known as primary hypertension

85
Q

What is the primary effect of aldosterone on the cardiovascular system?

A. Decreases blood volume
B. Increases blood volume and blood pressure
C. Reduces heart rate
D. Lowers blood pressure

A

Answer: B. Increases blood volume and blood pressure.
Explanation: Aldosterone promotes sodium and water retention by the kidneys, increasing blood volume and blood pressure

86
Q

What is the role of the aortic valve in the heart?

A. To prevent backflow of blood into the left ventricle
B. To regulate blood flow into the pulmonary artery
C. To prevent backflow of blood into the right ventricle
D. To regulate blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle

A

Answer: A. To prevent backflow of blood into the left ventricle.
Explanation: The aortic valve prevents the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during diastole​

87
Q

What causes the second heart sound (S2) in the cardiac cycle?

A. Closing of the AV valves
B. Opening of the semilunar valves
C. Closing of the semilunar valves
D. Opening of the AV valves

A

Answer: C. Closing of the semilunar valves.
Explanation: The second heart sound (S2) is caused by the closing of the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary) at the end of systole​

88
Q

What is the primary action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in the cardiovascular system?

A. Reduces blood volume
B. Increases urine output
C. Promotes water retention by the kidneys
D. Lowers blood pressure

A

Answer: C. Promotes water retention by the kidneys.
Explanation: ADH promotes water retention by the kidneys, increasing blood volume and, consequently, blood pressure

89
Q

Which structure in the heart ensures one-way blood flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle?

A. Mitral valve
B. Aortic valve
C. Tricuspid valve
D. Pulmonary valve

A

Answer: C. Tricuspid valve.
Explanation: The tricuspid valve ensures one-way blood flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle, preventing backflow​

90
Q

What is the primary function of the bundle of His in the heart’s conduction system?

A. To delay the impulse from the atria to the ventricles
B. To rapidly conduct the impulse through the ventricles
C. To conduct the impulse from the AV node to the Purkinje fibers
D. To initiate the heartbeat

A

Answer: C. To conduct the impulse from the AV node to the Purkinje fibers.
Explanation: The bundle of His conducts the electrical impulse from the AV node to the Purkinje fibers, facilitating coordinated ventricular contraction​

91
Q

What is the effect of increased blood CO2 levels on the cardiovascular system?

A. Vasodilation and increased heart rate
B. Vasoconstriction and decreased heart rate
C. Increased contractility
D. Decreased cardiac output

A

Answer: A. Vasodilation and increased heart rate.
Explanation: Increased blood CO2 levels lead to vasodilation and increased heart rate as the body attempts to enhance oxygen delivery and CO2 removal​

92
Q

Which of the following is a potential consequence of untreated hypertension?

A. Stroke
B. Hypotension
C. Bradycardia
D. Pulmonary embolism

A

Answer: A. Stroke.
Explanation: Untreated hypertension can lead to several complications, including stroke, due to the excessive pressure on blood vessels​

93
Q

What is the role of the papillary muscles in the heart?

A. To open the semilunar valves
B. To anchor the chordae tendineae and prevent valve prolapse
C. To contract and pump blood
D. To initiate electrical impulses

A

Answer: B. To anchor the chordae tendineae and prevent valve prolapse.
Explanation: Papillary muscles anchor the chordae tendineae, preventing the AV valves from prolapsing into the atria during ventricular contraction​

94
Q

What is the primary function of the pericardium?

A. To pump blood
B. To provide a protective covering for the heart
C. To conduct electrical impulses
D. To regulate blood pressure

A

Answer: B. To provide a protective covering for the heart.
Explanation: The pericardium is a double-walled sac that surrounds and protects the heart​

95
Q

Which condition involves the formation of a blood clot within a blood vessel?

A. Atherosclerosis
B. Thrombosis
C. Aneurysm
D. Varicose veins

A

Answer: B. Thrombosis.
Explanation: Thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot within a blood vessel, which can obstruct blood flow

96
Q

What is the primary determinant of systemic vascular resistance?

A. Heart rate
B. Blood viscosity
C. Vessel diameter
D. Blood volume

A

Answer: C. Vessel diameter.
Explanation: Systemic vascular resistance is primarily determined by the diameter of blood vessels, particularly arterioles​

97
Q

Which part of the ECG represents ventricular depolarization?

A. P wave
B. QRS complex
C. T wave
D. U wave

A

Answer: B. QRS complex.
Explanation: The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, which precedes ventricular contraction​

98
Q

What is the primary effect of acetylcholine on the heart?

A. Increases heart rate
B. Decreases heart rate
C. Increases contractility
D. Increases blood pressure

A

Answer: B. Decreases heart rate.
Explanation: Acetylcholine, released by the vagus nerve, decreases heart rate by slowing the rate of depolarization in the SA node​

99
Q

What is the primary cause of the first heart sound (S1) in the cardiac cycle?

A. Opening of the AV valves
B. Closing of the AV valves
C. Opening of the semilunar valves
D. Closing of the semilunar valves

A

Answer: B. Closing of the AV valves.
Explanation: The first heart sound (S1), or ‘lub,’ is caused by the closing of the atrioventricular valves (tricuspid and mitral) at the beginning of ventricular systole​

100
Q

Which hormone increases heart rate and force of contraction?
- A. Aldosterone
- B. Norepinephrine
- C. Insulin
- D. Oxytocin

A

Answer B: norepinephrine
Explanation: Norepinephrine increases heart rate and force of contraction by stimulating beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart