Cardiovascular System Flashcards
Which of the following correctly describes preload in the cardiac cycle?
A. The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of systole.
B. The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole.
C. The resistance against which the heart must pump.
D. The pressure generated by the contraction of the atria.
Answer: B. The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole.
Explanation: Preload refers to the end-diastolic volume (EDV) that stretches the ventricles to their greatest dimensions under variable physiological demand
What is afterload in cardiac physiology?
A. The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole.
B. The resistance against which the heart must pump.
C. The force generated by the myocardium during contraction.
D. The pressure in the ventricles during diastole.
Answer: B. The resistance against which the heart must pump.
Explanation: Afterload is the pressure the heart must work against to eject blood during systole, often approximated by aortic pressure
Which of the following describes the role of baroreceptors in the cardiovascular system?
A. Detect changes in blood CO2 levels.
B. Monitor blood pressure changes and mediate reflex adjustments.
C. Respond to changes in blood glucose levels.
D. Monitor oxygen concentration in the blood.
Answer: B. Monitor blood pressure changes and mediate reflex adjustments.
Explanation: Baroreceptors are mechanoreceptors located in the carotid sinus and aortic arch that sense changes in blood pressure and help regulate it via reflex mechanisms
During exercise, which of the following occurs to increase cardiac output?
A. Decrease in heart rate and stroke volume.
B. Increase in heart rate and stroke volume.
C. Decrease in preload and afterload.
D. Increase in preload and decrease in afterload.
Answer: B. Increase in heart rate and stroke volume.
Explanation: Cardiac output increases during exercise primarily due to increases in both heart rate and stroke volume
What is the primary neurotransmitter released by the sympathetic nervous system that affects the heart?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. Serotonin
D. Norepinephrine
Answer: D. Norepinephrine.
Explanation: Norepinephrine is the primary neurotransmitter released by sympathetic nerve terminals in the heart, increasing heart rate and contractility
Which type of blood vessel has the greatest ability to control blood pressure and tissue perfusion?
A. Arteries
B. Veins
C. Capillaries
D. Arterioles
Answer: D. Arterioles.
Explanation: Arterioles, with their small diameter and smooth muscle walls, are the primary vessels regulating blood pressure and tissue perfusion by altering their resistance to flow
In the context of the cardiovascular system, what does the term ‘syncytium’ refer to?
A. The independent function of cardiac muscle cells.
B. The coordinated contraction of the heart muscle.
C. The pacemaker activity of the sinoatrial node.
D. The separation of the atria and ventricles by the septum.
Answer: B. The coordinated contraction of the heart muscle.
Explanation: The term ‘syncytium’ refers to the heart muscle functioning as a single, coordinated unit due to the electrical coupling of cardiac cells via gap junctions
What effect does sympathetic stimulation have on the coronary arteries?
A. Constriction
B. Dilation
C. No effect
D. Increase in venous return
Answer: B. Dilation.
Explanation: Sympathetic stimulation causes dilation of the coronary arteries, increasing blood flow to the myocardium to meet increased metabolic demands
What does the P wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) represent?
A. Ventricular depolarization
B. Atrial depolarization
C. Ventricular repolarization
D. Atrial repolarization
Answer: B. Atrial depolarization.
Explanation: The P wave on an ECG corresponds to the depolarization of the atria, leading to their contraction
How does the body primarily increase stroke volume during exercise?
A. By decreasing heart rate.
B. By increasing end-diastolic volume.
C. By reducing sympathetic stimulation.
D. By decreasing preload.
Answer: B. By increasing end-diastolic volume.
Explanation: During exercise, increased venous return raises end-diastolic volume (preload), which increases stroke volume via the Frank-Starling mechanism
What is the role of the sinoatrial (SA) node in the heart?
A. It acts as the primary pacemaker, initiating the electrical impulse that sets the heart rate.
B. It delays the impulse before it passes to the ventricles.
C. It coordinates the contraction of the ventricles.
D. It controls the opening and closing of the heart valves.
Answer: A. It acts as the primary pacemaker, initiating the electrical impulse that sets the heart rate.
Explanation: The SA node, located in the right atrium, is the natural pacemaker of the heart, initiating the electrical impulses that set the pace for heartbeats
What is the primary determinant of mean arterial pressure (MAP)?
A. Heart rate
B. Cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance
C. Stroke volume
D. Venous return
Answer: B. Cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance.
Explanation: Mean arterial pressure is primarily determined by the product of cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance
What happens to the arterioles during a ‘fight or flight’ response?
A. They constrict.
B. They dilate.
C. They remain unchanged.
D. They decrease in number.
Answer: A. They constrict.
Explanation: During a ‘fight or flight’ response, sympathetic stimulation causes arterioles in non-essential areas to constrict, redirecting blood flow to vital organs such as the heart and muscles
Which layer of the heart is primarily responsible for its contractile function?
A. Endocardium
B. Epicardium
C. Myocardium
D. Pericardium
Answer: C. Myocardium.
Explanation: The myocardium is the thick middle layer of the heart wall composed of cardiac muscle cells responsible for the contractile function of the heart
How is the cardiac output defined?
A. The amount of blood pumped by the heart in one beat.
B. The volume of blood ejected by the ventricles per minute.
C. The pressure exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood vessels.
D. The total volume of blood in the circulatory system.
Answer: B. The volume of blood ejected by the ventricles per minute.
Explanation: Cardiac output is defined as the amount of blood the heart pumps through the circulatory system in one minute, calculated as stroke volume times heart rate
What is the primary role of the atrioventricular (AV) valves?
A. To generate electrical impulses in the heart.
B. To prevent backflow of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction.
C. To regulate blood flow into the coronary arteries.
D. To increase the pressure within the atria.
Answer: B. To prevent backflow of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction.
Explanation: The AV valves (tricuspid and mitral) ensure unidirectional blood flow by preventing the backflow of blood from the ventricles into the atria during systole
What does the term ‘isovolumetric contraction’ refer to in the cardiac cycle?
A. The period when the ventricles are filling with blood.
B. The phase when the ventricles are contracting but no blood is being ejected.
C. The period when the atria are contracting and pushing blood into the ventricles.
D. The phase of rapid ventricular ejection.
Answer: B. The phase when the ventricles are contracting but no blood is being ejected.
Explanation: Isovolumetric contraction occurs when the ventricles contract with no corresponding volume change because the valves are closed
Which of the following factors most directly influences the force of ventricular contraction?
A. End-diastolic volume (preload)
B. Blood viscosity
C. Respiratory rate
D. Atrial pressure
Answer: A. End-diastolic volume (preload).
Explanation: The force of ventricular contraction is directly influenced by preload, as described by the Frank-Starling law of the heart
What effect does parasympathetic stimulation have on the heart?
A. Increases heart rate
B. Decreases heart rate
C. Increases cardiac output
D. Increases contractility
Answer: B. Decreases heart rate.
Explanation: Parasympathetic stimulation via the vagus nerve decreases heart rate by reducing the rate of depolarization of the SA node
What does the QRS complex on an ECG represent?
A. Atrial depolarization
B. Ventricular depolarization
C. Ventricular repolarization
D. Atrial repolarization
Answer: B. Ventricular depolarization.
Explanation: The QRS complex on an ECG corresponds to the depolarization of the ventricles, which precedes ventricular contraction
During which phase of the cardiac cycle does the ‘lub’ (first heart sound) occur?
A. During atrial contraction
B. During ventricular relaxation
C. During isovolumetric contraction
D. During ventricular ejection
Answer: C. During isovolumetric contraction.
Explanation: The ‘lub’ sound (S1) occurs during isovolumetric contraction when the AV valves close
Which structure in the heart serves as the delay center for electrical impulses between the atria and ventricles?
A. Sinoatrial (SA) node
B. Atrioventricular (AV) node
C. Bundle of His
D. Purkinje fibers
Answer: B. Atrioventricular (AV) node.
Explanation: The AV node delays the electrical impulse from the atria before it is transmitted to the ventricles, allowing for proper timing of ventricular filling
What is the major effect of activation of beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Increased heart rate and contractility
C. Vasodilation
D. Decreased blood pressure
Answer: B. Increased heart rate and contractility.
Explanation: Beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart increase heart rate and contractility when activated by norepinephrine or epinephrine
Which ion is primarily responsible for the depolarization phase of the cardiac action potential in pacemaker cells?
A. Sodium (Na+)
B. Potassium (K+)
C. Calcium (Ca2+)
D. Chloride (Cl-)
Answer: C. Calcium (Ca2+).
Explanation: In pacemaker cells, the depolarization phase is primarily due to the influx of calcium ions through voltage-gated calcium channels
What is the significance of the Frank-Starling law of the heart?
A. It explains how heart rate is regulated.
B. It describes the relationship between end-diastolic volume and stroke volume.
C. It accounts for the refractory period of the myocardium.
D. It details the autonomic regulation of heart function.
Answer: B. It describes the relationship between end-diastolic volume and stroke volume.
Explanation: The Frank-Starling law states that the stroke volume of the heart increases in response to an increase in the volume of blood filling the heart (the end-diastolic volume)
What triggers the release of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)?
A. Low blood pressure
B. Increased atrial pressure
C. Decreased blood volume
D. High potassium levels
Answer: B. Increased atrial pressure.
Explanation: ANP is released in response to increased atrial pressure, leading to vasodilation and natriuresis to reduce blood volume and pressure
Which phase of the cardiac cycle is associated with the T wave on an ECG?
A. Atrial depolarization
B. Ventricular depolarization
C. Ventricular repolarization
D. Atrial repolarization
Answer: C. Ventricular repolarization.
Explanation: The T wave on an ECG represents the repolarization of the ventricles
What is the role of the chordae tendineae in the heart?
A. To generate the electrical impulses in the heart.
B. To open the semilunar valves during systole.
C. To prevent the atrioventricular valves from inverting into the atria.
D. To anchor the heart within the thoracic cavity.
Answer: C. To prevent the atrioventricular valves from inverting into the atria.
Explanation: The chordae tendineae prevent the AV valves from being pushed back into the atria during ventricular contraction, ensuring one-way blood flow
What is the primary effect of acetylcholine on the heart?
A. Increases heart rate
B. Decreases heart rate
C. Increases cardiac output
D. Increases contractility
Answer: B. Decreases heart rate.
Explanation: Acetylcholine, released by the vagus nerve, decreases heart rate by slowing the rate of depolarization in the SA node
During which part of the cardiac cycle is the aortic valve open?
A. Ventricular filling
B. Isovolumetric contraction
C. Ventricular ejection
D. Isovolumetric relaxation
Answer: C. Ventricular ejection.
Explanation: The aortic valve opens during ventricular ejection, allowing blood to flow from the left ventricle into the aorta
Which condition is characterized by a rapid, irregular heart rhythm originating in the atria?
A. Bradycardia
B. Ventricular fibrillation
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Heart block
Answer: C. Atrial fibrillation.
Explanation: Atrial fibrillation is a condition characterized by a rapid and irregular rhythm originating in the atria, leading to inefficient atrial contractions
What is the function of the Purkinje fibers in the heart?
A. To initiate the electrical impulse in the heart.
B. To delay the impulse from the atria to the ventricles.
C. To rapidly conduct the impulse through the ventricles.
D. To regulate the opening and closing of heart valves.
Answer: C. To rapidly conduct the impulse through the ventricles.
Explanation: Purkinje fibers rapidly conduct the electrical impulse through the ventricles, ensuring coordinated ventricular contraction
Which of the following increases the risk of developing hypertension?
A. High dietary potassium
B. Physical inactivity
C. Low salt intake
D. Moderate alcohol consumption
Answer: B. Physical inactivity.
Explanation: Physical inactivity is a significant risk factor for developing hypertension
Which chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?
A. Right atrium
B. Right ventricle
C. Left atrium
D. Left ventricle
Answer: C. Left atrium.
Explanation: The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs via the pulmonary veins
What effect does the activation of alpha-1 adrenergic receptors have on blood vessels?
A. Vasodilation
B. Vasoconstriction
C. No effect
D. Decreased heart rate
Answer: B. Vasoconstriction.
Explanation: Activation of alpha-1 adrenergic receptors on vascular smooth muscle cells leads to vasoconstriction, increasing blood pressure
What condition results from the backflow of blood due to incomplete closure of heart valves?
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Myocardial infarction
Answer: B. Mitral regurgitation.
Explanation: Mitral regurgitation occurs when the mitral valve does not close completely, allowing blood to flow backward into the left atrium during ventricular contraction
Which ion plays a crucial role in the plateau phase of the cardiac action potential in ventricular myocytes?
A. Sodium (Na+)
B. Potassium (K+)
C. Calcium (Ca2+)
D. Chloride (Cl-)
Answer: C. Calcium (Ca2+).
Explanation: The plateau phase of the cardiac action potential in ventricular myocytes is maintained by the influx of calcium ions through voltage-gated calcium channels
Which of the following best describes systolic pressure?
A. The pressure in the arteries during ventricular relaxation.
B. The pressure in the veins during atrial contraction.
C. The pressure in the arteries during ventricular contraction.
D. The pressure in the ventricles during diastole.
Answer: C. The pressure in the arteries during ventricular contraction.
Explanation: Systolic pressure is the maximum pressure in the arteries during ventricular contraction
What is the primary purpose of the coronary circulation?
A. To supply oxygenated blood to the lungs.
B. To remove metabolic waste from the systemic circulation.
C. To provide oxygen and nutrients to the heart muscle.
D. To transport hormones throughout the body.
Answer: C. To provide oxygen and nutrients to the heart muscle.
Explanation: The coronary circulation supplies the heart muscle with oxygenated blood and nutrients, essential for its function
Which condition is associated with a narrowing of the aortic valve opening?
A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Pulmonary hypertension
Answer: C. Aortic stenosis.
Explanation: Aortic stenosis is characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve opening, restricting blood flow from the left ventricle into the aorta