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Pl1002 Integrated Physiology > Autonomic Nervous System > Flashcards

Autonomic Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following neurotransmitters is primarily responsible for muscle contraction at the neuromuscular junction?
    * A. Dopamine
    * B. Noradrenaline
    * C. Acetylcholine
    * D. Serotonin
A

Answer: C. Acetylcholine
Explanation: Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter responsible for transmitting signals at the neuromuscular junction, causing muscle contraction by binding to nicotinic receptors on the muscle cell.

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2
Q
  1. Which enzyme is responsible for degrading acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft?
    * A. Monoamine oxidase
    * B. Acetylcholinesterase
    * C. Catechol-O-methyltransferase
    * D. Glutaminase
A

Answer: B. Acetylcholinesterase
Explanation: Acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine into acetate and choline in the synaptic cleft, terminating the signal transmission.

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3
Q
  1. What is the primary ion responsible for initiating neurotransmitter release at the synaptic terminal?
    * A. Sodium (Na+)
    * B. Potassium (K+)
    * C. Calcium (Ca2+)
    * D. Chloride (Cl-)
A

Answer: C. Calcium (Ca2+)
Explanation: The influx of Ca2+ into the presynaptic terminal triggers the release of neurotransmitters by causing synaptic vesicles to fuse with the membrane.

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4
Q
  1. In which part of the neuron is an action potential first generated?
    * A. Dendrites
    * B. Axon terminal
    * C. Soma
    * D. Axon hillock
A

Answer: D. Axon hillock
Explanation: The axon hillock is the site where the action potential is first generated due to the high concentration of voltage-gated sodium channels.

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)?
    * A. Depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane
    * B. Hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane
    * C. No change in membrane potential
    * D. Increased likelihood of an action potential
A

Answer: B. Hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane
Explanation: An IPSP causes hyperpolarization, making the inside of the postsynaptic neuron more negative and less likely to fire an action potential.

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6
Q
  1. What is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system?
    * A. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
    * B. Glutamate
    * C. Glycine
    * D. Serotonin
A

Answer: B. Glutamate
Explanation: Glutamate is the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS, playing a key role in synaptic plasticity and cognitive functions

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7
Q
  1. Which type of glial cell is responsible for forming myelin in the central nervous system?
    * A. Schwann cells
    * B. Oligodendrocytes
    * C. Astrocytes
    * D. Microglia
A

Answer: B. Oligodendrocytes
Explanation: Oligodendrocytes produce myelin in the CNS, which insulates axons and enhances the speed of electrical transmission.

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8
Q
  1. What is the main function of the blood-brain barrier?
    * A. To facilitate nutrient exchange between blood and brain tissue
    * B. To protect the brain from harmful substances and pathogens
    * C. To allow large molecules to enter the brain
    * D. To regulate body temperature
A

Answer: B. To protect the brain from harmful substances and pathogens
Explanation: The blood-brain barrier selectively allows nutrients to enter the brain while blocking harmful substances and pathogens.

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9
Q
  1. Temporal summation in neuronal signaling refers to:
    * A. Multiple synaptic inputs occurring simultaneously
    * B. Successive action potentials in a single presynaptic neuron
    * C. The diffusion of neurotransmitters across the synaptic cleft
    * D. The activation of multiple postsynaptic receptors
A

Answer: B. Successive action potentials in a single presynaptic neuron
Explanation: Temporal summation occurs when a single presynaptic neuron fires multiple times in rapid succession, leading to the accumulation of postsynaptic potentials.

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10
Q
  1. Which receptor type is directly coupled to ion channels and mediates fast synaptic transmission?
    * A. G-protein coupled receptors
    * B. Tyrosine kinase receptors
    * C. Ionotropic receptors
    * D. Nuclear receptors
A

Answer: C. Ionotropic receptors
Explanation: Ionotropic receptors are directly coupled to ion channels and mediate fast synaptic transmission by allowing ions to flow through the channel upon neurotransmitter binding.

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11
Q
  1. What is the role of astrocytes in the central nervous system?
    * A. Producing myelin
    * B. Engulfing pathogens and debris
    * C. Regulating the extracellular ionic and chemical environment
    * D. Transmitting electrical impulses
A

Answer: C. Regulating the extracellular ionic and chemical environment
Explanation: Astrocytes maintain the extracellular environment by regulating ion concentrations, removing excess neurotransmitters, and providing metabolic support to neurons.

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following ions primarily contributes to the resting membrane potential of a neuron?
    * A. Sodium (Na+)
    * B. Potassium (K+)
    * C. Calcium (Ca2+)
    * D. Chloride (Cl-)
A

Answer: B. Potassium (K+)
Explanation: The resting membrane potential is mainly established by the movement of K+ ions through leak channels, making the inside of the neuron negatively charged relative to the outside.

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13
Q
  1. During an action potential, the depolarization phase is primarily due to the influx of which ion?
    * A. Sodium (Na+)
    * B. Potassium (K+)
    * C. Calcium (Ca2+)
    * D. Chloride (Cl-)
A

Answer: A. Sodium (Na+)
Explanation: The depolarization phase of an action potential is caused by the rapid influx of Na+ ions through voltage-gated sodium channels.

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14
Q
  1. Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the regulation of mood, appetite, and sleep?
    * A. Dopamine
    * B. Serotonin
    * C. Glutamate
    * D. GABA
A

Answer: B. Serotonin
Explanation: Serotonin plays a crucial role in mood regulation, appetite control, and sleep cycles, with imbalances linked to depression and other mood disorders.

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15
Q
  1. Long-term potentiation (LTP) is most commonly studied in which part of the brain?
    * A. Cerebellum
    * B. Hypothalamus
    * C. Hippocampus
    * D. Thalamus
A

Answer: C. Hippocampus
Explanation: LTP, a process underlying synaptic plasticity and memory formation, is extensively studied in the hippocampus due to its critical role in learning and memory.

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16
Q
  1. What is the primary function of the nodes of Ranvier in myelinated axons?
    * A. To insulate the axon
    * B. To slow down action potential propagation
    * C. To regenerate action potentials and enable saltatory conduction
    * D. To store neurotransmitters
A

Answer: C. To regenerate action potentials and enable saltatory conduction
Explanation: Nodes of Ranvier are gaps in the myelin sheath where action potentials are regenerated, allowing for rapid saltatory conduction along the axon.

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17
Q
  1. Which type of glial cell acts as the main immune defense in the central nervous system?
    * A. Oligodendrocytes
    * B. Astrocytes
    * C. Microglia
    * D. Schwann cells
A

Answer: C. Microglia
Explanation: Microglia serve as the primary immune cells in the CNS, responding to injury and infection by phagocytosing debris and pathogens.

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18
Q
  1. The blood-brain barrier is formed by which type of cells?
    * A. Neurons
    * B. Endothelial cells
    * C. Astrocytes
    * D. Microglia
A

Answer: B. Endothelial cells
Explanation: The blood-brain barrier consists of endothelial cells with tight junctions, which regulate the passage of substances between the bloodstream and the brain.

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19
Q
  1. What effect does the parasympathetic nervous system have on heart rate?
    * A. Increases heart rate
    * B. Decreases heart rate
    * C. No effect on heart rate
    * D. Irregular effect on heart rate
A

Answer: B. Decreases heart rate
Explanation: The parasympathetic nervous system, primarily through the action of acetylcholine on muscarinic receptors, reduces heart rate.

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20
Q
  1. Which part of the neuron is primarily responsible for receiving synaptic inputs from other neurons?
    * A. Axon
    * B. Axon terminal
    * C. Soma
    * D. Dendrites
A

Answer: D. Dendrites
Explanation: Dendrites are branched extensions of the neuron that receive synaptic inputs from other neurons and transmit these signals to the soma.

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21
Q
  1. Which neurotransmitter is primarily inhibitory in the central nervous system?
    * A. Glutamate
    * B. GABA
    * C. Acetylcholine
    * D. Dopamine
A

Answer: B. GABA
Explanation: GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS, reducing neuronal excitability and preventing overstimulation.

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22
Q
  1. Which ion is primarily responsible for the repolarization phase of an action potential?
    * A. Sodium (Na+)
    * B. Potassium (K+)
    * C. Calcium (Ca2+)
    * D. Chloride (Cl-)
A

Answer: B. Potassium (K+)
Explanation: During repolarization, K+ ions flow out of the neuron through voltage-gated potassium channels, restoring the membrane potential to a negative value.

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23
Q
  1. The myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system is formed by which type of cell?
    * A. Oligodendrocytes
    * B. Astrocytes
    * C. Schwann cells
    * D. Microglia
A

Answer: C. Schwann cells
Explanation: Schwann cells form the myelin sheath in the PNS, providing insulation and enhancing the speed of electrical impulses along the axon.

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24
Q
  1. What is the primary role of synaptic vesicles in neurotransmission?
    * A. To store neurotransmitters
    * B. To degrade neurotransmitters
    * C. To transport ions across the membrane
    * D. To generate action potentials
A

Answer: A. To store neurotransmitters
Explanation: Synaptic vesicles store neurotransmitters and release them into the synaptic cleft during neurotransmission, facilitating communication between neurons.

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25
Q
  1. Which brain structure is critical for coordinating voluntary movements and balance?
    * A. Cerebellum
    * B. Thalamus
    * C. Hippocampus
    * D. Amygdala
A

Answer: A. Cerebellum
Explanation: The cerebellum plays a key role in coordinating voluntary movements, maintaining posture, and ensuring balance.

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26
Q
  1. The refractory period ensures that action potentials travel in which direction?
    * A. Both directions
    * B. One direction
    * C. No specific direction
    * D. Alternating directions
A

Answer: B. One direction
Explanation: The refractory period prevents the backward propagation of action potentials, ensuring they travel in a single direction along the axon.

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27
Q
  1. Which neurotransmitter is involved in the reward and pleasure pathways of the brain?
    * A. Serotonin
    * B. Dopamine
    * C. Glutamate
    * D. GABA
A

Answer: B. Dopamine
Explanation: Dopamine is a key neurotransmitter in the brain’s reward system, contributing to feelings of pleasure and reinforcement of rewarding behaviors.

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28
Q
  1. Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for processing visual information?
    * A. Occipital lobe
    * B. Temporal lobe
    * C. Parietal lobe
    * D. Frontal lobe
A

Answer: A. Occipital lobe
Explanation: The occipital lobe, located at the back of the brain, is dedicated to processing visual information.

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29
Q
  1. What is the function of voltage-gated sodium channels during an action potential?
    * A. To maintain the resting membrane potential
    * B. To initiate depolarization by allowing Na+ influx
    * C. To initiate repolarization by allowing K+ efflux
    * D. To inhibit neurotransmitter release
A

Answer: B. To initiate depolarization by allowing Na+ influx
Explanation: Voltage-gated sodium channels open during an action potential, allowing Na+ to enter the neuron, which causes depolarization.

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30
Q
  1. The limbic system is primarily associated with which functions?
    * A. Motor control and coordination
    * B. Sensory processing and perception
    * C. Emotions and memory
    * D. Language and communication
A

Answer: C. Emotions and memory
Explanation: The limbic system, including structures such as the amygdala and hippocampus, is involved in regulating emotions and forming memories.

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31
Q
  1. Which part of the neuron contains the nucleus and is responsible for most of the metabolic activities?
    * A. Dendrite
    * B. Axon
    * C. Soma
    * D. Axon terminal
A

Answer: C. Soma
Explanation: The soma, or cell body, contains the nucleus and is the metabolic center of the neuron, responsible for maintaining cell function and producing neurotransmitters.

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32
Q
  1. Which brain structure serves as the main relay station for sensory information?
    * A. Hypothalamus
    * B. Thalamus
    * C. Cerebellum
    * D. Medulla oblongata
A

Answer: B. Thalamus
Explanation: The thalamus acts as a relay station, processing and transmitting sensory information to the appropriate areas of the cerebral cortex.

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33
Q
  1. Which part of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for the “fight or flight” response?
    * A. Somatic nervous system
    * B. Parasympathetic nervous system
    * C. Sympathetic nervous system
    * D. Central nervous system
A

Answer: C. Sympathetic nervous system
Explanation: The sympathetic nervous system prepares the body for “fight or flight” by increasing heart rate, dilating airways, and mobilizing energy stores.

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34
Q
  1. What is the role of the corpus callosum in the brain?
    * A. Connecting the cerebrum and cerebellum
    * B. Relaying information from the spinal cord to the brain
    * C. Connecting the left and right cerebral hemispheres
    * D. Regulating autonomic functions
A

Answer: C. Connecting the left and right cerebral hemispheres
Explanation: The corpus callosum is a bundle of nerve fibers that connects the two cerebral hemispheres, enabling communication between them.

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35
Q
  1. Which type of receptor is involved in the sense of smell?
    * A. Mechanoreceptors
    * B. Chemoreceptors
    * C. Photoreceptors
    * D. Thermoreceptors
A

Answer: B. Chemoreceptors
Explanation: Chemoreceptors detect chemical stimuli, such as odor molecules, allowing the perception of smell.

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36
Q
  1. Which neurotransmitter is involved in regulating circadian rhythms and sleep-wake cycles?
    * A. Melatonin
    * B. Acetylcholine
    * C. Serotonin
    * D. Dopamine
A

Answer: A. Melatonin
Explanation: Melatonin is produced by the pineal gland and helps regulate circadian rhythms and sleep-wake cycles.

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37
Q
  1. Which brain structure is primarily involved in the formation of new memories?
    * A. Hippocampus
    * B. Amygdala
    * C. Thalamus
    * D. Basal ganglia
A

Answer: A. Hippocampus
Explanation: The hippocampus is crucial for the formation and consolidation of new memories, particularly declarative memories.

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38
Q
  1. What is the function of the sodium-potassium pump in neurons?
    * A. To propagate action potentials
    * B. To maintain resting membrane potential
    * C. To generate synaptic vesicles
    * D. To produce neurotransmitters
A

Answer: B. To maintain resting membrane potential
Explanation: The sodium-potassium pump helps maintain the resting membrane potential by actively transporting Na+ out of and K+ into the neuron.

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39
Q
  1. Which type of synapse directly connects the cytoplasm of two neurons, allowing for the direct passage of ions and small molecules?
    * A. Chemical synapse
    * B. Electrical synapse
    * C. Axoaxonic synapse
    * D. Dendrodendritic synapse
A

Answer: B. Electrical synapse
Explanation: Electrical synapses involve gap junctions that connect the cytoplasm of two neurons, allowing for the direct and rapid transmission of electrical signals.

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40
Q
  1. Which part of the brain regulates autonomic functions such as heart rate and blood pressure?
    * A. Cerebellum
    * B. Thalamus
    * C. Medulla oblongata
    * D. Hippocampus
A

Answer: C. Medulla oblongata
Explanation: The medulla oblongata regulates vital autonomic functions, including heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate.

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41
Q
  1. The process by which a neuron integrates incoming signals from multiple synapses to determine if it will generate an action potential is called:
    * A. Spatial summation
    * B. Temporal summation
    * C. Synaptic potentiation
    * D. Signal transduction
A

Answer: A. Spatial summation
Explanation: Spatial summation occurs when a neuron integrates signals from multiple synapses across its dendrites and soma to reach the threshold for an action potential.

42
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is not part of the limbic system?
    * A. Amygdala
    * B. Hippocampus
    * C. Hypothalamus
    * D. Pons
A

Answer: D. Pons
Explanation: The pons is part of the brainstem, involved in motor control and sensory analysis, and is not considered part of the limbic system, which is primarily associated with emotions and memory.

43
Q
  1. What is the primary function of myelination in the nervous system?
    * A. To slow down neural transmission
    * B. To enhance neural regeneration
    * C. To increase the speed of electrical impulses
    * D. To produce neurotransmitters
A

Answer: C. To increase the speed of electrical impulses
Explanation: Myelination increases the speed of electrical impulses along axons by enabling saltatory conduction, where the action potential jumps between nodes of Ranvier.

44
Q
  1. Which neurotransmitter is released by motor neurons to stimulate muscle contraction?
    * A. Serotonin
    * B. Dopamine
    * C. Acetylcholine
    * D. Glutamate
A

Answer: C. Acetylcholine
Explanation: Motor neurons release acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction to stimulate muscle contraction by binding to receptors on the muscle cell membrane.

45
Q
  1. The ventral root of a spinal nerve contains:
    * A. Sensory axons
    * B. Motor axons
    * C. Both sensory and motor axons
    * D. Interneurons
A

Answer: B. Motor axons
Explanation: The ventral root of a spinal nerve contains motor axons that transmit signals from the spinal cord to muscles and glands.

46
Q
  1. Which part of the brain is involved in processing auditory information?
    * A. Occipital lobe
    * B. Parietal lobe
    * C. Temporal lobe
    * D. Frontal lobe
A

Answer: C. Temporal lobe
Explanation: The temporal lobe is responsible for processing auditory information, including sound perception and recognition.

47
Q
  1. Which receptor type is activated by capsaicin, the compound that gives chili peppers their heat?
    * A. TRPV1 (Transient Receptor Potential Vanilloid 1)
    * B. NMDA receptor
    * C. GABA receptor
    * D. Nicotinic receptor
A

Answer: A. TRPV1 (Transient Receptor Potential Vanilloid 1)
Explanation: TRPV1 receptors are activated by capsaicin, leading to the sensation of heat and pain associated with spicy foods.

48
Q
  1. Which part of the brain is responsible for regulating circadian rhythms?
    * A. Amygdala
    * B. Hippocampus
    * C. Suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)
    * D. Cerebellum
A

Answer: C. Suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)
Explanation: The SCN, located in the hypothalamus, is the primary regulator of circadian rhythms, controlling the sleep-wake cycle and other daily physiological patterns.

49
Q
  1. The role of the reticular formation is primarily associated with:
    * A. Voluntary movement
    * B. Sensory processing
    * C. Arousal and consciousness
    * D. Memory formation
A

Answer: C. Arousal and consciousness
Explanation: The reticular formation, located in the brainstem, is involved in regulating arousal, sleep-wake cycles, and maintaining consciousness.

50
Q
  1. The primary visual cortex is located in which part of the brain?
    * A. Temporal lobe
    * B. Occipital lobe
    * C. Parietal lobe
    * D. Frontal lobe
A

Answer: B. Occipital lobe
Explanation: The primary visual cortex, responsible for processing visual information, is located in the occipital lobe at the back of the brain.

51
Q
  1. The neurotransmitter involved in the regulation of mood and anxiety, often targeted by antidepressants, is:
    * A. Dopamine
    * B. Serotonin
    * C. Acetylcholine
    * D. Glutamate
A

Answer: B. Serotonin
Explanation: Serotonin is involved in mood regulation, and its imbalance is linked to anxiety and depression, making it a target for many antidepressant medications.

52
Q
  1. Which type of neuron has a single axon and multiple dendrites extending from the cell body?
    * A. Unipolar neuron
    * B. Bipolar neuron
    * C. Multipolar neuron
    * D. Pseudounipolar neuron
A

Answer: C. Multipolar neuron
Explanation: Multipolar neurons have one axon and many dendrites, making them well-suited for integrating information from multiple sources.

53
Q
  1. The part of the brain that controls autonomic functions like heart rate and breathing is:
    * A. Hypothalamus
    * B. Medulla oblongata
    * C. Thalamus
    * D. Basal ganglia
A

Answer: B. Medulla oblongata
Explanation: The medulla oblongata controls vital autonomic functions, including heart rate, breathing, and blood pressure.

54
Q
  1. What is the role of oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system?
    * A. Producing cerebrospinal fluid
    * B. Removing cellular debris
    * C. Forming myelin sheaths around axons
    * D. Supporting blood-brain barrier integrity
A

Answer: C. Forming myelin sheaths around axons
Explanation: Oligodendrocytes form myelin sheaths around axons in the CNS, providing insulation and speeing up electrical signal transmission.

55
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is primarily involved in the regulation of thirst and hunger?
    * A. Cerebellum
    * B. Thalamus
    * C. Hypothalamus
    * D. Hippocampus
A

Answer: C. Hypothalamus
Explanation: The hypothalamus regulates homeostatic functions, including thirst, hunger, body temperature, and circadian rhythms.

56
Q
  1. Which type of ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential?
    * A. Ligand-gated ion channel
    * B. Mechanically-gated ion channel
    * C. Voltage-gated ion channel
    * D. Leakage ion channel
A

Answer: C. Voltage-gated ion channel
Explanation: Voltage-gated ion channels open in response to changes in membrane potential, playing a critical role in the initiation and propagation of action potentials.

57
Q
  1. Which part of the nervous system controls voluntary muscle movements?
    * A. Autonomic nervous system
    * B. Somatic nervous system
    * C. Sympathetic nervous system
    * D. Parasympathetic nervous system
A

Answer: B. Somatic nervous system
Explanation: The somatic nervous system controls voluntary movements by innervating skeletal muscles.

58
Q
  1. Which brain region is associated with the consolidation of procedural memories and habits?
    * A. Cerebellum
    * B. Hippocampus
    * C. Basal ganglia
    * D. Amygdala
A

Answer: C. Basal ganglia
Explanation: The basal ganglia are involved in the consolidation of procedural memories and habits, as well as the regulation of motor control.

59
Q
  1. The area of the brain that processes language comprehension is called:
    * A. Broca’s area
    * B. Wernicke’s area
    * C. Prefrontal cortex
    * D. Angular gyrus
A

Answer: B. Wernicke’s area
Explanation: Wernicke’s area, located in the temporal lobe, is responsible for language comprehension.

60
Q
  1. Which glial cell type is primarily responsible for forming the blood-brain barrier?
    * A. Microglia
    * B. Astrocytes
    * C. Schwann cells
    * D. Oligodendrocytes
A

Answer: B. Astrocytes
Explanation: Astrocytes contribute to the formation of the blood-brain barrier by maintaining the endothelial cells that line the blood vessels in the brain.

61
Q
  1. The depolarization of a neuron during an action potential is primarily due to the influx of:
    * A. Potassium ions
    * B. Sodium ions
    * C. Calcium ions
    * D. Chloride ions
A

Answer: B. Sodium ions
Explanation: During an action potential, depolarization occurs when sodium ions influx through voltage-gated sodium channels.

62
Q
  1. Which brain region is primarily responsible for processing emotions, such as fear and aggression?
    * A. Hippocampus
    * B. Amygdala
    * C. Thalamus
    * D. Cerebellum
A

Answer: B. Amygdala
Explanation: The amygdala is involved in processing emotions, including fear and aggression, and plays a key role in emotional memory.

63
Q
  1. The primary motor cortex is located in which part of the brain?
    * A. Frontal lobe
    * B. Parietal lobe
    * C. Temporal lobe
    * D. Occipital lobe
A

Answer: A. Frontal lobe
Explanation: The primary motor cortex, responsible for voluntary motor control, is located in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.

64
Q
  1. The neurotransmitter that acts as the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system is:
    * A. GABA
    * B. Glycine
    * C. Acetylcholine
    * D. Glutamate
A

Answer: D. Glutamate
Explanation: Glutamate is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS, playing a crucial role in synaptic plasticity and cognitive functions like learning and memory.

65
Q
  1. The process by which neurotransmitters are cleared from the synaptic cleft is called:
    * A. Reuptake
    * B. Exocytosis
    * C. Endocytosis
    * D. Synaptogenesis
A

Answer: A. Reuptake
Explanation: Reuptake involves the removal of neurotransmitters from the synaptic cleft by transporter proteins, thereby terminating the signal.

66
Q
  1. The cerebellum is primarily involved in:
    * A. Memory formation
    * B. Emotion regulation
    * C. Coordination of voluntary movements
    * D. Language comprehension
A

Answer: C. Coordination of voluntary movements
Explanation: The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movements, maintains posture and balance, and ensures smooth execution of motor tasks.

67
Q
  1. The main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord is:
    * A. Glutamate
    * B. Serotonin
    * C. GABA
    * D. Glycine
A

Answer: D. Glycine
Explanation: Glycine acts as the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord, modulating motor and sensory pathways.

68
Q
  1. Which of the following is a function of the prefrontal cortex?
    * A. Processing visual information
    * B. Regulating autonomic functions
    * C. Planning complex behaviors and decision making
    * D. Coordinating voluntary movements
A

Answer: C. Planning complex behaviors and decision making
Explanation: The prefrontal cortex is involved in higher cognitive functions, including planning complex behaviors, decision making, and moderating social behavior.

69
Q
  1. Which structure in the brain is responsible for producing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
    * A. Pituitary gland
    * B. Choroid plexus
    * C. Pineal gland
    * D. Basal ganglia
A

Answer: B. Choroid plexus
Explanation: The choroid plexus, located within the ventricles of the brain, produces cerebrospinal fluid, which cushions and protects the brain and spinal cord.

70
Q
  1. The region of the brain that processes somatosensory information is the:
    * A. Primary motor cortex
    * B. Primary visual cortex
    * C. Primary somatosensory cortex
    * D. Broca’s area
A

Answer: C. Primary somatosensory cortex
Explanation: The primary somatosensory cortex, located in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe, processes tactile and proprioceptive information.

71
Q
  1. Which part of the nervous system is responsible for the “rest and digest” functions?
    * A. Somatic nervous system
    * B. Parasympathetic nervous system
    * C. Sympathetic nervous system
    * D. Central nervous system
A

Answer: B. Parasympathetic nervous system
Explanation: The parasympathetic nervous system promotes “rest and digest” activities by slowing the heart rate, increasing digestive activities, and conserving energy.

72
Q
  1. Which neurotransmitter is primarily released at neuromuscular junctions to stimulate muscle contraction?
    * A. Norepinephrine
    * B. Dopamine
    * C. Acetylcholine
    * D. Serotonin
A

Answer: C. Acetylcholine
Explanation: Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter released at neuromuscular junctions, stimulating muscle contraction by binding to receptors on muscle cells.

73
Q
  1. The region of the brain involved in regulating body temperature, hunger, and thirst is the:
    * A. Thalamus
    * B. Cerebellum
    * C. Hypothalamus
    * D. Medulla oblongata
A

Answer: C. Hypothalamus
Explanation: The hypothalamus regulates homeostatic functions, including body temperature, hunger, and thirst, by coordinating the release of hormones and autonomic responses.

74
Q
  1. Which type of glial cell is responsible for myelinating axons in the peripheral nervous system?
    * A. Oligodendrocytes
    * B. Microglia
    * C. Astrocytes
    * D. Schwann cells
A

Answer: D. Schwann cells
Explanation: Schwann cells myelinate axons in the peripheral nervous system, providing insulation and increasing the speed of electrical signal transmission.

75
Q
  1. Which brain region is primarily associated with the control of fine motor movements and balance?
    * A. Basal ganglia
    * B. Cerebellum
    * C. Frontal lobe
    * D. Parietal lobe
A

Answer: B. Cerebellum
Explanation: The cerebellum coordinates fine motor movements and balance, ensuring smooth and precise execution of voluntary actions.

76
Q
  1. Which structure acts as the main relay station for sensory information in the brain?
    * A. Thalamus
    * B. Hypothalamus
    * C. Cerebellum
    * D. Medulla oblongata
A

Answer: A. Thalamus
Explanation: The thalamus serves as the main relay station for sensory information, directing sensory signals to the appropriate regions of the cerebral cortex.

77
Q
  1. Which ion is primarily responsible for initiating the release of neurotransmitters from the presynaptic terminal?
    * A. Sodium (Na+)
    * B. Potassium (K+)
    * C. Calcium (Ca2+)
    * D. Chloride (Cl-)
A

Answer: C. Calcium (Ca2+)
Explanation: The influx of calcium ions (Ca2+) into the presynaptic terminal triggers the release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft.

78
Q
  1. The blood-brain barrier is primarily maintained by which type of glial cell?
    * A. Microglia
    * B. Astrocytes
    * C. Oligodendrocytes
    * D. Schwann cells
A

Answer: B. Astrocytes
Explanation: Astrocytes play a crucial role in maintaining the blood-brain barrier by supporting the endothelial cells that form the barrier, ensuring selective permeability to protect the brain.

79
Q
  1. Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with the reward system and pleasure in the brain?
    * A. Serotonin
    * B. Dopamine
    * C. Glutamate
    * D. GABA
A

Answer: B. Dopamine
Explanation: Dopamine is closely associated with the brain’s reward system and the sensation of pleasure, playing a key role in motivation and reinforcement learning.

80
Q
  1. Which area of the brain is critical for speech production?
    * A. Wernicke’s area
    * B. Broca’s area
    * C. Angular gyrus
    * D. Hippocampus
A

Answer: B. Broca’s area
Explanation: Broca’s area, located in the frontal lobe, is critical for speech production and articulation.

81
Q
  1. Which type of receptor responds to painful stimuli?
    * A. Mechanoreceptors
    * B. Thermoreceptors
    * C. Nociceptors
    * D. Chemoreceptors
A

Answer: C. Nociceptors
Explanation: Nociceptors are sensory receptors that respond to painful stimuli, sending signals to the brain that are interpreted as pain.

82
Q
  1. Which part of the brain is involved in planning, organizing, and regulating voluntary movements?
    * A. Cerebellum
    * B. Basal ganglia
    * C. Prefrontal cortex
    * D. Motor cortex
A

Answer: B. Basal ganglia
Explanation: The basal ganglia play a key role in planning, organizing, and regulating voluntary movements, as well as habit formation and procedural learning.

83
Q
  1. The process by which an action potential is propagated along a myelinated axon is called:
    * A. Continuous conduction
    * B. Saltatory conduction
    * C. Synaptic transmission
    * D. Axonal transport
A

Answer: B. Saltatory conduction
Explanation: Saltatory conduction is the process by which an action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next along a myelinated axon, increasing the speed of transmission.

84
Q
  1. Which brain structure is primarily involved in regulating the sleep-wake cycle?
    * A. Hippocampus
    * B. Pineal gland
    * C. Amygdala
    * D. Cerebellum
A

Answer: B. Pineal gland
Explanation: The pineal gland produces melatonin and plays a crucial role in regulating the sleep-wake cycle and circadian rhythms.

85
Q
  1. Which neurotransmitter is known for its role in the central nervous system’s inhibition and is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain?
    * A. Glutamate
    * B. Acetylcholine
    * C. Dopamine
    * D. GABA
A

Answer: D. GABA
Explanation: GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, reducing neuronal excitability and preventing overstimulation.

86
Q
  1. Which of the following is a function of the parasympathetic nervous system?
    * A. Increasing heart rate
    * B. Dilating pupils
    * C. Stimulating digestive activities
    * D. Triggering the release of adrenaline
A

Answer: C. Stimulating digestive activities
Explanation: The parasympathetic nervous system stimulates digestive activities, promotes relaxation, and conserves energy by reducing heart rate and increasing gastrointestinal motility.

87
Q
  1. Which brain area is involved in processing visual information received from the eyes?
    * A. Temporal lobe
    * B. Frontal lobe
    * C. Parietal lobe
    * D. Occipital lobe
A

Answer: D. Occipital lobe
Explanation: The occipital lobe contains the primary visual cortex, responsible for processing visual information from the retinas.

88
Q
  1. The corpus callosum connects which two parts of the brain?
    * A. The two hemispheres of the cerebellum
    * B. The medulla and the pons
    * C. The left and right cerebral hemispheres
    * D. The thalamus and the hypothalamus
A

Answer: C. The left and right cerebral hemispheres
Explanation: The corpus callosum is a large bundle of nerve fibers that connects the left and right cerebral hemispheres, allowing communication between them.

89
Q
  1. Which brain structure is involved in emotional processing and fear responses?
    * A. Hippocampus
    * B. Amygdala
    * C. Thalamus
    * D. Cerebellum
A

Answer: B. Amygdala
Explanation: The amygdala is involved in emotional processing, particularly fear responses and the formation of emotional memories.

90
Q
  1. Which type of ion channel is involved in generating the action potential in neurons?
    * A. Voltage-gated ion channel
    * B. Ligand-gated ion channel
    * C. Mechanically-gated ion channel
    * D. Leakage ion channel
A

Answer: A. Voltage-gated ion channel
Explanation: Voltage-gated ion channels open in response to changes in membrane potential, playing a critical role in the initiation and propagation of action potentials.

91
Q
  1. The neurotransmitter that is associated with feelings of pleasure and reward in the brain is:
    * A. Serotonin
    * B. Dopamine
    * C. Glutamate
    * D. GABA
A

Answer: B. Dopamine
Explanation: Dopamine is closely associated with the brain’s reward system and the sensation of pleasure, playing a key role in motivation and reinforcement learning.

92
Q
  1. Which part of the brain is involved in regulating autonomic functions such as heart rate and breathing?
    * A. Cerebellum
    * B. Medulla oblongata
    * C. Thalamus
    * D. Hypothalamus
A

Answer: B. Medulla oblongata
Explanation: The medulla oblongata controls vital autonomic functions, including heart rate, breathing, and blood pressure.

93
Q
  1. The somatosensory cortex is located in which lobe of the brain?
    * A. Frontal lobe
    * B. Parietal lobe
    * C. Temporal lobe
    * D. Occipital lobe
A

Answer: B. Parietal lobe
Explanation: The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the parietal lobe, where it processes tactile and proprioceptive information from the body.

94
Q
  1. Which type of neuron transmits signals from the central nervous system to effector organs such as muscles and glands?
    * A. Sensory neuron
    * B. Motor neuron
    * C. Interneuron
    * D. Afferent neuron
A

Answer: B. Motor neuron
Explanation: Motor neurons transmit signals from the central nervous system to effector organs, such as muscles and glands, enabling movement and glandular secretion.

95
Q
  1. The neurotransmitter acetylcholine is primarily involved in:
    * A. Inhibiting neurotransmission
    * B. Exciting skeletal muscle cells
    * C. Regulating mood and emotions
    * D. Mediating reward pathways
A

Answer: B. Exciting skeletal muscle cells
Explanation: Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter at neuromuscular junctions, where it excites skeletal muscle cells and stimulates muscle contraction.

96
Q
  1. Which part of the nervous system is responsible for the “fight or flight” response?
    * A. Somatic nervous system
    * B. Parasympathetic nervous system
    * C. Sympathetic nervous system
    * D. Central nervous system
A

Answer: C. Sympathetic nervous system
Explanation: The sympathetic nervous system mediates the “fight or flight” response, preparing the body for rapid action by increasing heart rate, dilating pupils, and releasing adrenaline.

97
Q
  1. The brain structure that is critical for forming new explicit memories is the:
    * A. Amygdala
    * B. Hippocampus
    * C. Thalamus
    * D. Basal ganglia
A

Answer: B. Hippocampus
Explanation: The hippocampus is crucial for the formation of new explicit (declarative) memories, such as facts and events.

98
Q
  1. Which glial cell type acts as the main immune defense in the central nervous system?
    * A. Astrocytes
    * B. Oligodendrocytes
    * C. Schwann cells
    * D. Microglia
A

Answer: D. Microglia
Explanation: Microglia act as the main immune defense in the CNS, identifying and eliminating pathogens, cellular debris, and damaged neurons.

99
Q
  1. The neurotransmitter that is predominantly inhibitory in the central nervous system is:
    * A. Glutamate
    * B. Acetylcholine
    * C. Dopamine
    * D. GABA
A

Answer: D. GABA
Explanation: GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS, reducing neuronal excitability and preventing overstimulation.

100
Q
  1. Which brain area is involved in understanding spoken and written language?
    * A. Broca’s area
    * B. Wernicke’s area
    * C. Prefrontal cortex
    * D. Primary auditory cortex
A

Answer: B. Wernicke’s area
Explanation: Wernicke’s area, located in the temporal lobe, is essential for language comprehension, including understanding spoken and written language.

Pl1002 Integrated Physiology (7 decks)

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