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2a Formatives > Cardiovascular Pharmacology Formative 20/01/20 > Flashcards

Cardiovascular Pharmacology Formative 20/01/20 Flashcards

1
Q

Lidocaine is effective in the treatment of ventricular tachycardias because it:

  1. Slows conduction in healthy heart tissue
  2. Opens sodium channels
  3. Blocks sodium channels at rest
  4. Blocks the activation gate of the sodium channel
  5. Blocks the inactivation gate of the sodium channel
A
  1. Blocks the inactivation gate of the sodium channel
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2
Q

Digoxin can be a useful drug in the treatment of supraventricular tachycardias because it:

  1. stimulates the release of acetylcholine from sympathetic nerves
  2. is inotropic
  3. makes the membrane potential more positive releasing acetylcholine from parasympathetic nerves
  4. inhibits calcium channels
  5. stimulates sodium/calcium exchange
A

3.makes the membrane potential more positive releasing acetylcholine from parasympathetic nerves

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3
Q

Amlodipine and verapamil are both calcium channel blockers, what property makes verapamil the more effective anti-arrhythmic agent ?

  1. Additional sodium channel blockade
  2. Once daily treatment
  3. Lack of effect on the calcium channel at rest
  4. Blockade of all calcium channel types (L,N & T)
  5. Additional potassium channel blockade
A
  1. Lack of effect on the calcium channel at rest
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4
Q

Which additional property makes propranolol the most useful beta blocker to help control the arrhythmias which occur immediately following a heart attack ?

  1. Calcium channel block
  2. Potassium channel block
  3. Heart block
  4. Sodium channel block
  5. Parasympathetic activation
A
  1. Sodium channel block
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5
Q

In the treatment of heart failure, which transport protein or ion channel is inhibited by the loop diuretic, furosemide?

  1. Na/K ATP-ase
  2. Epithelial Na channel
  3. K channel
  4. Na/K/2Cl transporter
  5. Na/Cl transporter
A
  1. Na/K/2Cl transporter
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6
Q

ACE inhibitors reduce the circulating levels of which adrenal hormone?

  1. Aldosterone
  2. Adrenaline
  3. Cortisone
  4. Angiotensin II
  5. Atrial Natriuretic Peptide
A
  1. Aldosterone
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7
Q

Which drug exerts a direct inotropic effect (+ force of contraction) on heart muscle?

  1. Ramipril
  2. Furosemide
  3. Losartan
  4. Digoxin
  5. Spironolactone
  6. Glyceryl Trinitrate
A
  1. Digoxin
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8
Q

In chronic heart failure beta blockers are:

  1. Contra-indicated
  2. Beneficial by slowing the heart rate
  3. Beneficial by depressing the myocardium
  4. Beneficial by increasing oxygen demand
  5. Effective by blocking reflex sympathetic responses which stress the failing heart
A
  1. Effective by blocking reflex sympathetic responses which stress the failing heart
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9
Q

For which CVS drug is BRONCHOSPASM a potential side effect?

  1. Morphine
  2. Beta blocker
  3. Calcium Antagonist
  4. Aspirin
  5. Nitrate
  6. ACE inhibitor
A
  1. Beta blockers
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10
Q

For which CVS drug is COUGH a potential side effect?

  1. Morphine
  2. Beta Blockers
  3. Calcium antagonists
  4. Aspirin
  5. Nitrates
  6. ACE inhibitors
A
  1. ACE inhibitors
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11
Q

For which CVS drug is TOLERANCE a potential side effect?

  1. Bendroflumethiazide
  2. Beta blockers
  3. Calcium antagonist
  4. Aspirin
  5. Nitrate
  6. ACE inhibitor
A
  1. Nitrate
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12
Q

Which CVS drug is most likely to induce POSTURAL HYPOTENSION as a potential side effect?

  1. Morphine
  2. Beta blocker
  3. Calcium antagonist
  4. Aspirin
  5. Nitrate
  6. ACE inhibitor
A
  1. Calcium antagonist
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13
Q

Doxazosin is an antagonist at which type of peripheral receptor?

  1. Alpha-1 adrenoceptor
  2. Purine receptor
  3. Angiotensin II receptor
  4. Vasopressin receptor
  5. Beta-1 adrenoceptor
  6. Dopamine receptor
A
  1. Alpha-1 adrenoceptor
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14
Q

Atenolol is an antagonist at which type of peripheral receptor?

  1. Alpha-1 adrenoceptor
  2. Purine receptor
  3. Angiotensin II receptor
  4. Vasopressin receptor
  5. Beta-1 adrenoceptor
  6. Dopamine receptor
A
  1. Beta-1 adrenoceptor
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15
Q

The antihypertensive action of lisinopril is due to inhibition of which peripheral enzyme?

  1. Kininase II
  2. Renin
  3. Na/K ATP-ase
  4. Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE)
  5. DOPA decarboxylase
A
  1. Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE)
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16
Q

Which of the following drug side effects is less likely to be seen when treating hypertension with an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) rather than an ACE inhibitor?

  1. Hyperkalaemia
  2. Cough
  3. Angioedema
  4. Renal failure in the presence of bilateral renal stenosis
  5. Cold hands/cold feet
A
  1. Cough
17
Q

How do beta-blockers work to relieve the pain from angina pectoris?

  1. Reduce O2 demand by slowing the heart rate
  2. Reduce O2 demand by reducing myocardial contractility
  3. Improve O2 distribution by slowing the heart rate
  4. Increase O2 supply by dilating coronary arteries
  5. Increase O2 supply by stimulating respiration
A
  1. Reduce O2 demand by slowing the heart rate
  2. Reduce O2 demand by reducing myocardial contractility
  3. Improve O2 distribution by slowing the heart rate
18
Q

What is the major mechanism by which glyceryltrintrate can relieve the pain of angina pectoris?

  1. Dilatation of veins to reduce the preload on the heart
  2. Dilatation of arterioles to reduce the after load on the heart
  3. Dilatation of coronary arteries to increase cardiac perfusion
  4. Opening of collateral blood vessels to improve cardiac perfusion
  5. A positive inotropic effect
A

1.Dilatation of veins to reduce the preload on the heart

19
Q

Which of the following drugs is likely to be more suitable for the treatment of variant angina due to coronary artery vasospasm ?

  1. Bumetanide
  2. Losartan
  3. Isosorbide
  4. Amlodipine
  5. Glyceryl trintrate
A

4.Amlodipine

20
Q

Which of the following drugs might be used to reduce atheromatous disease, the underlying cause of angina pectoris?

  1. Atenolol
  2. Amlodipine
  3. Simvastatin
  4. Glyceryl trinitrate
  5. Enalapril
A

3.Simvastatin

2a Formatives (6 decks)

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