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RUSVM Pharmacology > Cardiovascular (final exam) > Flashcards

Cardiovascular (final exam) Flashcards

1
Q

Cardiac stimulant drug groups

A 
B1 agonists
Methylxanthines
Positive inotropes
Inodilator
“Other” cardiac stimulants
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2
Q

B1 agonists

A 
Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Isoproterenol
Dopamine
Dobutamine
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3
Q

Methylxanthines

A

Aminophylline

Theophylline

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4
Q

Positive inotropes

A

Digoxin

Dobutamine (B1 agonist)

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5
Q

Inodilator

A

Pimobendan

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6
Q

“Other” cardiac stimulants

A

Glucagon

Calcium salts

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7
Q

Congestive heart failure drugs

A 
Positive inotropes
Inodilators
Vasodilators
Diuretics
Beta-blockers
Adjunctives
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8
Q

Diuretics indicated in congestive heart failure

A 
Mannitol
Furosemide
Hydrochlorothiazide
Spironolactone
Acetazolamide
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9
Q

Adjunctive treatments for congestive heart failure

A

Sodium-restricted diet
Exercise restriction
Oxygen therapy

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10
Q

Vasoconstrictor drug groups

A

a-antagonists

sympathomimetics

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11
Q

Vasodilator drug groups

A 
a-antagonists
ACE inhibitors
Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
Direct-acting vasodilators
Calcium-channel blocker
Angiotensin II antagonist
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12
Q

Antiarrhythmic drug classes

A 
Class I - Na channel blockers
Class II - B-blockers
Class III - K channel blockers
Class IV - Ca channel blockers
Anticholinergics
“Other” treatment
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13
Q

Non-selective a-antagonist vasoconstrictors

A

Epinephrine

Norepinephrine

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14
Q

Selective a1-antagonist vasoconstrictors

A

Dopamine (high dose)

Phenylephrine

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15
Q

Direct & indirect sympathomimetic vasoconstrictors

A

Vasopressin
Ephedrine
Pseudoephedrine
Phenylpropanolamine (B-hydroxy amphetamine) PPA

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16
Q

Non-selective a-antagonist vasodilator

A

Phenoxybenzamine

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17
Q

Selective a1-antagonist vasodilator

A

Prazosin

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18
Q

Other a1-antagonist vasodilator

A

Acepromazine

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19
Q

ACE inhibitor vasodilator

A

Enalapril

Benazepril

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20
Q

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor vasodilator

A

Sildenafil

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21
Q

Direct-acting vasodilators

A

Nitroprusside
Nitroglycerine
Hydralazine

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22
Q

Calcium-channel blocker vasodilator

A

Amlodipine

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23
Q

Angiotensin II antagonist vasodilator

A

Losartan

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24
Q

Class I antiarrhythmics

A

Quinidine
Procainamide
Lidocaine
Mexilitine

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25
Q

Class II antiarrhythmics

A 
Propranolol
Atenolol
Esmolol
Metoprolol
Carvedilol
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26
Q

Class III antiarrhythmics

A

Sotalol

Amiodarone

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27
Q

Class IV antiarrhythmics

A

Diltiazem

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28
Q

Anticholinergic antiarrhythmics

A

Atropine

Glycopyrrolate

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29
Q

“Other” antiarrhythmic treatment

A

Magnesium sulfate

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30
Q

Drug of choice for calcium channel blocker toxicity

A

Glucagon

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31
Q

Treatment of choice for severe hyperkalemia

A

Calcium salts (IV calcium gluconate)

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32
Q

Methylxanthines mechanism of action

A

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

Increase cAMP -> increase epinephrine release

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33
Q

Methylxanthines main use

A

Bronchodilation

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34
Q

Methylxanthines other effects

A

Induce diuresis (cardiac diuretic)

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35
Q

Methylxanthine precautions

A 
Sever cardiac disease
Hypertension
Seizure disorders
Gastric ulcers
Hyperthyroidism
Severe hypoxia
Renal or hepatic dysfunction
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36
Q

Treatment of choice for congestive heart failure

A

Pimobendan

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37
Q

Most commonly used catecholamine for severe congestive heart failure due to myocardial failure:

A

Dobutamine (B1 agonist)

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38
Q

Which drug used to treat congestive heart failure increases intracellular calcium (positive inotropic effect)?

A

Digoxin

Inhibits Na/K ATPase = more Na available to exchange with Ca

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39
Q

Primary adverse effect of digoxin

A

GI signs #1

Tachyarrhythmias

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40
Q

Which drug used to treat congestive heart failure has a positive inotropic effect without increasing intracellular Ca?

A

Pimobendan

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41
Q

Pimobendan most commonly has what adverse effect? When is this drug contraindicated?

A

GI signs

Contraindicated in cases of aortic stenosis, augmented cardiac output

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42
Q

Define arrhythmia

A

Abnormalities in heart rate and rhythm

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43
Q

Three mechanisms of arrhythmias:

A

Abnormal automaticity
Abnormal conduction
Disturbance in both automaticity and impulse conduction

44
Q

What is the drug of choice in treatment of supraventricular arrhythmias?

45
Q

What is the drug of choice in treatment of equine atrial fibrillation?

46
Q

What is the drug of choice in ventricular arrhythmias?

A

Lidocaine IV

47
Q

Class IA sodium channel blockers have what effect on myocardial contraction?

A

Prolong action potential

48
Q

Class IB sodium channel blockers have what effect on myocardial contraction?

A

Shortens action potential

49
Q

When are class II antiarrhythmics contraindicated?

A

Unstable heart failure
Class II = beta-blockers
Wean off drugs

50
Q

Sotalol is a class III antiarrhythmic. When is it contraindicated?

A

Over or low output congestive heart failure

K channel blocker

51
Q

K channel blocker mechanism of action

A

Prolong refractory period of cardiac action potentials

52
Q

Amiodarone is used to treat what type of arrhythmia?

A

Ventricular arrhythmias in dogs

53
Q

Diltiazem is a class IV antiarrhythmic contraindicated in what condition?

A

Pulmonary edema

Hypotension

54
Q

“Other” antiarrhythmic treatments include:

A

Magnesium sulfate IV
Vagal maneuvers for supraventricular tachycardia
Cardioversion for supraventricular tachycardia

55
Q

Magnesium sulfate IV can be used to treat what kind of arrhythmia?

A

Refractory ventricular arrhythmia

56
Q

Drugs used to treat sinus bradycardia:

A

Atropine

Glycopyrrolate

57
Q

Treatments used in atrioventricular block:

A

1st degree: monitor
2nd degree: atropine test, isoproterenol, theophylline, glucagon
3rd degree: pacemaker

58
Q

Emergency treatments used in atrial standstill:

A 
Often associated with severe hyperkalemia, recognize via ECG (absence of p-waves)
IV calcium gluconate
IV sodium bicarbonate
Dextrose
Regular insulin
59
Q

Vasodilator drug groups

A

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Phosphodiesterase inhibitors
Direct-acting vasodilators
Calcium channel blockers

60
Q

ACE inhibitor mechanism of action

A

Inhibits of angiotensin converting enzyme
Inhibits angiotensin II synthesis
Inhibits aldosterone
Stimulates bradykinin (vasodilator) release
Stimulates renin

61
Q

Benazepril pharmacokinetics

A

Long acting

Hepatic > renal clearance

62
Q

Therapeutic indications for ACE inhibitors:

A

Congestive heart failure
Hypertension
Protein losing renal disease

63
Q

ACE inhibitor contraindications

A

Hypotension
Risk of worsening azotemia
GI signs

64
Q

Sildenafil mechanism of action

A

Stimulates nitric oxide production

Smooth muscle of pulmonary vasculature

65
Q

Sildenafil therapeutic use

A

Treatment of pulmonary hypertension

66
Q

Sildenafil contraindications

A

Systemic hypotension
Contraindicated for use with nitrates
Hypovolemia

67
Q

Nitrates mechanism of action

A

Increased nitric oxide formation

Balanced direct arteriolar and venous vasodilation

68
Q

Hydralazine mechanism of action

A

Increases local PGI2 concentration (alters Ca metabolism in smooth muscle)

69
Q

Nitrates and Hydralazine therapeutic indications

A

Hypertensive crisis

Afterload reduction with severe congestive heart failure

70
Q

Amlodipine mechanism of action

A

Inhibits influx of Ca in myocardial and smooth muscle cells
Inhibits myocardial contraction
Dilates coronary and systemic arteries

71
Q

Amlodipine is primarily used to:

A

Decrease systemic blood pressure

72
Q

What is the drug of choice in hypertensive cats?

A

Amlodipine

73
Q

Amlodipine contraindications

A

Hypotension
Bradycardia
AV block

74
Q

Which direct-acting vasodilator is contraindicated in renal disease?

A

Hydralazine

75
Q

Hemostatic agents

A

Vitamin K1
Protamine sulfate
Aminocaproic acid
Desmopressin acetate

76
Q

Vitamin K mechanism of action

A

Necessary for synthesis of coagulation factors II, VII, IX, X

77
Q

What is the drug of choice for bleeding disorder associated with vitamin K deficiency?

A

Vitamin K. No shit.

78
Q

Which drug is a specific antidote for anticoagulant rodenticide and warfarin induced hemorrhage?

79
Q

Vitamin K precaution

A

ONLY SQ injection

Risk of anaphylaxis if given IV

80
Q

Protamine sulfate mechanism of action

A

Complexes with heparin to form inactive stable salt

81
Q

What is the drug of choice for treating heparin induced hemorrhage?

A

Protamine sulfate

82
Q

Protamine sulfate rapid IV administration may cause:

A 
Hypotension
Bradycardia
Pulmonary hypertension
Dyspnea
Hypersensitivity
83
Q

Aminocaproic acid mechanism of action

A

Antifibrinolytic

Inhibits fibrinolysis

84
Q

Desmopressin acetate mechanism of action

A

Hormonal agent

Increases coagulation factor VIII and plasminogen factor

85
Q

What is the drug of choice for bleeding due to vonWillebrand’s disease?

A

Desmopressin acetate

86
Q

What is the drug of choice for treatment of central diabetes insipidus?

A

Desmopressin acetate

87
Q

Anticoagulants

A

Heparin sodium
Dalteparin
Enoxaprin
Warfarin sodium

88
Q

Heparin sodium mechanism of action

A

Prevents conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

89
Q

Heparin sodium therapeutic indications

A

Treat some thromboembolic diseases

Prophylactic treatment to prevent thromboembolic disease development

90
Q

Heparin sodium precautions

A

Monitor
Risk of bleeding
Induced thrombocytopenia has been reported

91
Q

Dalteparin & enoxaparin mechanism of action

A

Inactivates coagulation factor Xa

Minimal impact on thrombin and clot times

92
Q

Dalteparin & enoxaparin therapeutic indications

A

Prophylactic and treatment for thromboembolic diseases

93
Q

Dalteparin & enoxaparin precautions

A

Administer SQ only

Hemorrhage possible

94
Q

Warfarin sodium mechanism of action

A

Inhibits Vitamin K epoxide reductase

Inhibits synthesis of coagulation factors II, VII, IX, X

95
Q

Warfarin sodium therapeutic indications

A

Used in dogs for thromboembolic disease, long term

96
Q

Warfarin sodium precautions

A

Hemorrhage possible
Monitor PT
Teratogenic

97
Q

Anti-thrombotics

A

Aspirin

Clopidogrel bisulfate

98
Q

Thrombolytics

A

Streptokinase
Urokinase
Tissue plasminogen activator

99
Q

Aspirin mechanism of action

A

Inhibit platelet aggregation
Inhibit thromboxane A2 (TXA2) synthesis
COX-1 inhibition

100
Q

Aspirin therapeutic indications

A

Treat thrombotic disease
Feline aortic thromboembolism
IMHA

101
Q

Aspirin is contraindicated in what conditions?

A

GI ulceration

Active GI bleeding

102
Q

Clopidogrel bisulfate mechanism of action

A

Reduce platelet aggregation

Inhibits ADP receptor on platelets

103
Q

Clopidogrel bisulfate therapeutic indications

A

Treatment of thrombotic disease
Feline aortic thromboembolism
IMHA

104
Q

Clopidogrel bisulfate contraindication

A

GI ulceration

Active GI bleed

105
Q

Thrombolytic drugs mechanism of action

A

Activate plasminogen for thrombolysis

106
Q

Thrombolytic drugs therapeutic indications

A

Treat existing thrombus or thromboembolism

Not commonly used, high morbidity

107
Q

Thrombolytic drug precautions

A

Life-threatening hemorrhage

IV administration only

RUSVM Pharmacology (6 decks)

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