Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

T year LOBs medicine > Cardiovascular > Flashcards

Cardiovascular Flashcards

1
Q

what are clinical signs of unstable angina?

A

Chest pain with increasing frequency
Can occur at rest
Can have a fourth heart sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are differentials of pleuritic chest pain?

A
  • pleurisy
  • pneumothorax
  • pneumonia
  • pericarditis
  • PE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are risk factors of coronary artery disease?

A
  • male over 60
  • smoking
  • hypertension
  • high LDL/ low HDL
  • diabetes
  • inactivity
  • obesity
  • family history
  • drug use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are symptoms of an acute MI?

A
  • chest pain that can radiate to the left arm or jaw
  • dyspnoea
  • pallor
  • hypotension
  • tachycardia
  • dizzy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how can a MI be diagnosed?

A
  • risk factors
  • ECG
  • troponin
  • angiogram
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the immediate management for MI?

A
  • pain relief (morphine and an anti emetic)
  • oxygen
  • aspirin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the further management of a stemi?

A
  • PCI if they present within 12 hours of onset and can get PCI within 120 minutes
  • if PCI can’t be given within 120 minutes then fibrinolytic treatment/thrombolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

in MI when PCI can’t be offered what is often used for thrombolysis?

A

alteplase

reteplase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what ECG leads are for the anterior section of the heart?

A

V1-V4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what coronary artery supplies the anterior section of the heart?

A

left anterior descending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what coronary artery supplies the inferior section of the heart?

A

right coronary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what leads correspond to the inferior section of the heart?

A
  • II,III, AVF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what leads correspond to the lateral aspect of the heart?

A
  • V5-V6
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what artery supplies the lateral aspect of the heart?

A
  • left circumflex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what leads correspond to the posterior heart?

A

V8,9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What supplies the posterior heart?

A

right circumflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what long term primary care drug therapy can be given after MI?

A

ACE inhibitor
dual antiplatelet therapy: ticagrlor with aspirin
beta blocker
statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the P wave of an ECG?

A
  • atrial depolarisation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is QRS of an ECG?

A
  • depolarisation of the ventricles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is ST of an ECG?

A
  • the plateu of an action potential
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the T wave of an ECG?

A

repolarisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the cause of a bifid P wave in lead II?

A

P.mitrale caused by mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the ECG change in first degree heart block?

A
  • a fixed PR interval over 0.2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the ECG change in mobitz I?

A

a gradual increase in the PR interval then it drops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the ECG change in mobitz II?

A

PR interval is constant then drops at random

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what change shows an ECG ‘saw tooth’ pattern?

A

Atrial flutter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are delta waves a sign off?

A

wolff Parkinson white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what chest pain can be reported by someone with arrhythmias?

A
  • palpitations
  • chest pain
  • syncope
  • hypotension
  • pulmonary oedema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is AVNRT?

A
  • a supraventricular tachycardia

There is a re-entrant loop in the node itself that can send impulses up into the atria or down into the ventricles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what can terminate AVNRT?

A

vagal discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is AVRT?

A
  • a supraventricular tachycardia
  • an accessory pathway so two circuits are running.
    Normal pathway via AVN and the accessory pathway.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are clinical features of the supra-ventricular tachycardias? (AVNRT and AVRT)

A 
rapid palpitations
anxiety
dizzy
central chest pain
weakness
polyuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are causes of atrial fibrillation?

A
  • alcohol
  • pneumonia
  • hyperthyroidism
  • PE
  • mitral valve pathology
  • pulmonary hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are extrinsic causes of sinus bradycardias?

A
  • hypothermia
  • hypothyroidism
  • cholestatic jaundice
  • raised intracranial pressure
  • beta blockers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are intrinsic causes of sinus bradycardias?

A
  • acute ischaemia

- chronic degenerative changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are causes of complete heart block?

A
  • autoimmune; SLE
  • structural heart disease ; transposition of the great vessels
  • levs disease
  • lenegres disease
  • acute MI
  • ischaemic cardiomyopathy
  • calcific aortic stenosis
  • digoxin, beta blockers, calcium channel blockers
    endocarditis, lyme disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are causes of general bradycardias?

A

D- drugs (aantiarrythmics, beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin
I- ischaemic/ infection
V- vagal hypertonia (athletes, vasovagal syncope, carotid sinus syndrome
I- infection: viral myocarditis, rheumatic fever, infective endocarditis
S- sick sinus syndrome
I- infiltration/ restrictive. autoimmune, sarcoid, haemochromatosis, amyloid, muscular dystrophy
O- hypothyroidism, Hypokalaemia, hypothermia
N- neuro; raised ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the pattern in an ECG of ventricular tachycardia?

A

Broad complex tachycardia (tomb stone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the management of heart block?

A

asymptomatic and over 40bpm- no need for treatment

symptoms and below 40bpm- atropine

no response with atropine; pacing wire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the management of AVNRT?

A
  • adenosine
  • vagal discharge
    symptom relief: beta blockers, calcium channel blockers.

last line: ablation

41
Q

what is the treatment of AVRT?

A
  • Adenosine
  • atrial pacing
  • catheter ablation
42
Q

what is the management for wolf Parkinson white?

A
  • procainamide

- if hypotension cardiovert

43
Q

what is the management of AF?

A
  • coagulation
  • rate control
  • rhythm control
  • cardioversion if unstable
44
Q

what can be used in rhythm control in AF?

A
  • amiodarone
  • flecainide
  • cardioversion
  • ablation
45
Q

what can be used for rate control in af?

A
  • beta blocker

- calcium channel blocker

46
Q

what is given for ventricular tachycardia?

A
  • NOT verapamil

- amiodarone or lidocaeine

47
Q

what is given for atrial flutter?

A
  • vaso-vagal activity

- adenosine

48
Q

what bradycardias are recommended elective permanent pacing?

A
  • mobitz II
    third degree heart block
    AF
    sick sinus syndrome
49
Q

what is the CHADSVASC score?

A 
Congestive heart failure
Hypertension
Age over 75
Diabetes.M
Stroke/ TIA/ thromboembolism
Vascular disease
Age 65-74
Female
50
Q

what is the CHADVASC score used for?

A

assessing need for anti coagulation

51
Q

what are signs of left sided heart failure?

A
  • shortness of breathe
  • orthopnea
  • pulmonary oedema
  • displaced apex beat
  • fine end inspiratory crackles
  • dull lung bases
52
Q

what are causes of left sided heart failure?

A
  • coronary artery disease
  • hypertension
  • idiopathic
  • valve disease
53
Q

what valves can cause left sided heart disease?

A

mitral and aortic

54
Q

what are signs of right ventricular failure?

A
  • increased JVP
  • oedema
  • ascites
55
Q

what are causes of right sided heart failure?

A
  • left sided heart failure
  • pulmonary hypertension
  • right ventricular cardiac myopathy
  • tricuspid valve disease
  • cor pulmonale
  • pulmonary valve disease
56
Q

what valves are linked to right sided heart failure?

A
  • mitral

- pulmonary

57
Q

what are the major criteria in the Framingham criteria?

A
  • paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea
  • neck vein distension
  • cracles
  • cardiomegaly
  • acute pulmonary oedema
  • S3 gallop
  • increased CVP
  • hepatojugular reflex
  • weight loss
58
Q

what are the minor criteria in the Framingham criteria?

A
  • bilateral ankle oedema
  • nocturnal cough
  • dyspnoea on normal exertion
  • hepatomegaly
  • pleural effusion
  • decrease in vital capacity by 1/3
  • ## tachycardia
59
Q

what is the Framingham criteria for?

A

the diagnosis of congestive heart failure. Need 2 major criteria of 1 major and 2 minors

60
Q

what is the class of one of new York heart association classification of heart failure?

A
  • Class one: no limitations. normal physical exercise doesn’t cause fatigue, dyspnoea or palpitations
61
Q

what is the class two of new York heart association?

A

Mild limitation. comfortable at rest but normal physical activity causes fatigue, dyspnoea or palpitation

62
Q

what is the class three of the new York classification of heart failure?

A

Marked limitation. comfortable at rest but gentle physical activity produces marked symptoms of heart failure

63
Q

what is the class four of the new York classification of heart failure?

A

symptoms of heart failure occur at rest and made work by physical activity

64
Q

what drugs improve symptoms in heart failure?

A

Antiemetic

loop diuretics

65
Q

what drugs improve survival in heart failure?

A

ACE inhibitor
BETA blockers
spironolactone
vasodilators: hydralazine isosorbide dinitrate

66
Q

what is the emergency management of a patient with heart failure?

A
  • IV access
  • sit up
  • oxygen
  • diuretics
  • morphine to reduce preload
  • anti emetics
  • nitrates
  • ionotropes
67
Q

what are the xray signs of congestive heart failure?

A
  • alveolour shadowing
  • kerley b lines
  • cardiomegaly
  • upper lobe diversion
  • effusion
  • fluid in the fissures
68
Q

what are indications for ACE inhibitors?

A
  • first/ second line treatment for hypertension

- first line for heart failure

69
Q

how do ACE inhibitors work?

A
  • prevent formation of angiotensin II (a vasoconstrictor)
  • no AG II means no aldosterone
  • sodium and water excretion
70
Q

what are side effects of ACE inhibitors?

A

hypotension
persistant dry cough
hyperkalaemia

71
Q

what are indications for beta blockers?

A
  • first line in ischaemic heart disease
  • first line in chronic heart failure
  • first line if AF
  • first line in supraventricular tachycardia
72
Q

where are beta 1 receptors found?

A

the heart

73
Q

what patients shouldn’t be given beta blockers?

A

ASHTMA

74
Q

what are the lub dub heart sounds?

A

S1- closure of mitral and tricuspid

S2- closure of aortic and pulmonary valves

75
Q

what are the systolic murmurs?

A 
Aortic stenosis (late in systole)
Mitral regurgitations
76
Q

what are the diastolic murmurs?

A

aortic regurgitation

mitral stenosis

77
Q

what are signs of aortic stenosis?

A
  • ejection systolic murmur
  • crescendo decrescendo murmur
  • narrow pulse pressure
  • S4
  • systolic thrill
78
Q

what are signs of an aortic sclerosis?

A
  • valve thickening
  • doesn’t radiate to the carotids
  • ejection systolic murmur
  • slow rising pulse
  • no thrill heard
79
Q

what are signs of mitral regurgitation?

A
  • pan systolic murmur
  • ## pulmonary oedema
80
Q

what are signs of tricuspid regurgitation?

A
  • same symptoms as right sided heart failure
  • palpable liver
  • blowing pansystolic murmur
81
Q

what is S3?

A

normal under 30 years

also in left ventricular failure, constrictive pericarditis, mitral regurgitation.

82
Q

what is S4?

A

atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle. heard in aortic stenosis

83
Q

what is the pathology in anaphylaxis?

A

An IgE mediated activation of mast cells leading to release of multiple factors.

84
Q

what are the main mediators in anaphylaxis?

A
  • histamine

- prostaglandin D2

85
Q

what causes the later reaction in anaphylaxis?

A

IL5

86
Q

what is the most common cause of obstructive shock?

A

PE leading to RV failure.

87
Q

what are features of hypovolaemic shock?

A
  • decreased skin turgor
  • dry skin
  • dry tongue
  • oral mucosa
  • postural hypotension
  • decreased JVP
  • increased vascular resistance
  • cold peripheries
  • slow cap refill
88
Q

what are features of septic shock?

A
  • hypotension even after fluid resuscitation

- decreased vascular resistance

89
Q

what are features of anaphylactic shock?

A
  • facial, tongue or throat swelling
  • stridor
  • wheeze
  • syncope
  • high mast cell tryptase
  • decreased vascular resistance
90
Q

what types of shock have decreased vascular resistance?

A
  • septic shock

- anaphylaxis shock

91
Q

what types of shock have high CVP?

A
  • cardiogenic shock
92
Q

what types of shock cause low central venous pressure?

A
  • hypovoelamic shock
  • anaphylactic shock
  • septic shock
93
Q

what are complications of a massive blood transfusion?

A
  • temperature change causing hypothermia, vasoconstriction and arrhythmia
  • coagulopathy as it has no platelets or clotting factors
  • hypocalcaemia as the citrate binds calcium
  • increased oxygen affinity due to reduced 2,3DBG content
  • hyperkalaemia
  • microemboli
94
Q

large blood transfusions can cause coagulopathy what can be given?

A

fresh frozen plasma

platelet concentrates

95
Q

what is given in fluid resuscitation?

A

0.9% sodium chloride 500ml over 15 minutes

96
Q

what are properties of crystalloids?

A
  • made up of smaller molecules
  • good for volume expansion
  • leave the vascular space
97
Q

what does ventricular fibrillation look like on an ECG?

A
  • no p wave
  • highly irregular
  • no qrs clear complexes
98
Q

what are two shockable rhythms?

A
  • VT

- VF

T year LOBs medicine (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions