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Semester 2 > Cardiovascular > Flashcards

Cardiovascular Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two main components of blood?

A

Plasma and formed elements

Formed elements include erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets.

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2
Q

What is the normal pH range of blood?

A

7.35 – 7.45

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3
Q

What is the average blood volume for males?

A

5-6 L

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4
Q

What is the average blood volume for females?

A

4-5 L

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5
Q

List the three main functions of blood.

A
  • Transport
  • Regulation
  • Protection
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6
Q

What substances does blood distribute?

A
  • O2
  • CO2
  • Nutrients
  • Wastes
  • Hormones
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7
Q

What are the components of plasma?

A
  • Water
  • Proteins
  • Waste products
  • Nutrients
  • Electrolytes
  • Respiratory gases
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8
Q

What is the structure of erythrocytes?

A

Biconcave, anucleate, filled with hemoglobin

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9
Q

What is the function of hemoglobin?

A

Transports O2 and CO2

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10
Q

What is the normal erythrocyte count for males?

A

4.5 – 6.3 million cells/mm3

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11
Q

What is the normal erythrocyte count for females?

A

4.2 – 5.5 million cells/mm3

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12
Q

Describe the life cycle of a red blood cell.

A
  • Hemocytoblast → Proerythroblast → Erythroblast → Normoblast → Reticulocyte → Erythrocyte
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13
Q

What hormone stimulates RBC production?

A

Erythropoietin (EPO)

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14
Q

What are the three main causes of anemia?

A
  • Insufficient number of erythrocytes
  • Decreased hemoglobin content
  • Abnormal hemoglobin
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15
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

Abnormally high RBC count that makes blood too viscous

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16
Q

What are the two main categories of leukocytes?

A
  • Granulocytes
  • Agranulocytes
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17
Q

What is the function of neutrophils?

A

Phagocytes that are the most numerous WBCs

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18
Q

What do eosinophils target?

A

Larger microbes and immune complexes

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19
Q

What is the function of basophils?

A

Release histamine and heparin

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20
Q

Which leukocytes provide specific immunity?

A

Lymphocytes

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21
Q

What is leukopoiesis?

A

Production of leukocytes

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22
Q

What is leukemia?

A

Uncontrolled growth of non-functional WBCs

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23
Q

What are platelets formed from?

A

Megakaryocytes

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24
Q

What is the primary function of platelets?

A

Help stop bleeding

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25
Q

List the three primary hemostatic mechanisms.

A
  • Vasoconstriction
  • Platelet plug formation
  • Blood clot formation
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26
Q

What is the intrinsic pathway in blood clot formation?

A

Involves more steps, requires Ca++, does not require chemical signaling

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27
Q

What is the extrinsic pathway in blood clot formation?

A

Involves fewer steps, requires Ca++, and tissue factor

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28
Q

What is the primary cause of thrombus?

A

Blood clot develops in an unbroken vessel

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29
Q

What determines ABO blood types?

A

Presence or absence of Antigen A and Antigen B

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30
Q

What is the Rh factor?

A

Presence or absence of antigen D on erythrocytes

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31
Q

What are the four chambers of the heart?

A
  • Right atrium
  • Left atrium
  • Right ventricle
  • Left ventricle
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32
Q

What is the pericardium?

A

Double-layered serous membrane surrounding the heart

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33
Q

What are the three layers of the heart wall?

A
  • Epicardium
  • Myocardium
  • Endocardium
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34
Q

What is the function of the atrioventricular valves?

A

Ensure one-way blood flow between atria and ventricles

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35
Q

What is the function of heart valves?

A

Heart valves make blood flow in one direction.

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36
Q

What are the two types of atrioventricular valves?

A
  • Right AV valve = tricuspid valve
  • Left AV valve = bicuspid valve (mitral valve)
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37
Q

What is the structure of the atrioventricular valves?

A

The AV valves are composed of a fibrous sheet of connective tissue anchored into the opening connecting an atrium and a ventricle.

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38
Q

What prevents back flow of blood from the ventricles into the atria?

A

Chordae tendineae attached to papillary muscles.

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39
Q

How do the atrioventricular valves function?

A

They open and close in response to pressure changes.

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40
Q

What is the function of semilunar valves?

A

They regulate flow in one direction from the ventricles into blood vessels.

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41
Q

What are the two types of semilunar valves?

A
  • Right semilunar valve = pulmonary valve
  • Left semilunar valve = aortic valve
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42
Q

What are heart sounds caused by?

A

The sound of the heartbeat, described as ‘lub – dub’, is the sound of the valves closing.

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43
Q

What is the journey of deoxygenated blood through the heart?

A
  • Enters right atrium
  • Flows through tricuspid valve
  • Enters right ventricle
  • Exits through pulmonary semilunar valve to pulmonary arteries
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44
Q

What is the journey of oxygenated blood through the heart?

A
  • Returns to left atrium via pulmonary veins
  • Flows through bicuspid valve
  • Enters left ventricle
  • Exits through aortic semilunar valve into aorta
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45
Q

What is coronary circulation?

A

Oxygenated blood from the aorta is diverted into the coronary arteries, supplying the heart with blood.

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46
Q

What are intercalated discs?

A

Structures that connect cardiac muscle fibers, allowing them to function as a syncytium.

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47
Q

What types of cardiac muscle cells exist?

A
  • Contractile cells (99%)
  • Pacemaker cells (1%)
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48
Q

What is the resting membrane potential (RMP) of contractile cells?

A

-90mv

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49
Q

What is the role of pacemaker cells?

A

They generate action potentials and cannot maintain a resting membrane potential over time.

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50
Q

What is the sequence of excitation in the intrinsic conduction system?

A
  • Sinoatrial (SA) node
  • Atrial syncytium
  • Atrioventricular (AV) node
  • AV bundle
  • Purkinje fibers
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51
Q

What does an ECG measure?

A

It is a graphic recording of electrical changes occurring in the heart.

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52
Q

What do the P wave, QRS complex, and T wave represent in an ECG?

A
  • P wave = atrial depolarization
  • QRS complex = ventricular depolarization
  • T wave = ventricular repolarization
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53
Q

What influences the intrinsic rate of the heartbeat?

A

Nervous innervation of the heart.

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54
Q

What is cardiac output (CO)?

A

CO = Stroke Volume (SV) x Heart Rate (beats per minute)

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55
Q

What are the three main layers of a blood vessel wall?

A
  • Tunica interna (endothelium)
  • Tunica media (smooth muscle)
  • Tunica externa (connective tissue)
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56
Q

What are the two types of arteries?

A
  • Elastic arteries
  • Muscular arteries
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57
Q

What is the primary function of capillaries?

A

They provide a thin layer for the exchange of gases, nutrients, and wastes.

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58
Q

What are the three types of capillaries?

A
  • Continuous
  • Fenestrated
  • Sinusoids
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59
Q

What is the main function of veins?

A

They carry low pressure blood back to the heart.

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60
Q

What are the main factors that determine blood pressure?

A
  • Cardiac output
  • Blood volume
  • Resistance to blood flow
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61
Q

What causes resistance to blood flow?

A
  • Blood viscosity
  • Blood vessel length
  • Blood vessel radius
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62
Q

What is the definition of blood pressure?

A

The pressure exerted on the wall of a blood vessel by the blood contained within it.

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63
Q

What happens to blood pressure as blood flows from arteries to capillaries and into veins?

A

Blood pressure decreases.

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64
Q

How is blood pressure regulated?

A
  • Autoregulation
  • Short-term controls
  • Long-term controls
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65
Q

What is the role of the umbilical vein in fetal circulation?

A

Carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus.

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66
Q

What is the ductus venosus?

A

A shunt that conveys blood away from the liver into the inferior vena cava.

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67
Q

What are the possible paths blood can take in the right atrium of a fetus?

A
  • Through the tricuspid valve to the right ventricle
  • Shunted from the pulmonary trunk into the aorta by the ductus arteriosus
  • Directly from the right atrium to the left atrium through the foramen ovale
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68
Q

What happens to blood pressure as blood flows from arteries through capillaries and into veins?

A

Blood pressure decreases

This is a fundamental concept in understanding hemodynamics.

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69
Q

What are the three ways blood pressure is regulated?

A
  • Autoregulation
  • Neural control
  • Hormonal control

Each method has its own mechanisms for maintaining blood pressure.

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70
Q

What is autoregulation in the context of blood pressure?

A

A form of local control that causes vasodilation in response to hypoxia or increased waste products

This increases blood flow and decreases blood pressure.

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71
Q

What role does the vasomotor center play in neural control of blood pressure?

A

Stimulates low level contraction of smooth muscle in blood vessel walls, known as vasomotor tone

This is similar to skeletal muscle tone.

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72
Q

What is the baroreflex?

A

A primary mechanism to regulate blood pressure through baroreceptors sensing stretch in carotid sinuses

It helps maintain blood pressure homeostasis.

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73
Q

How does increased blood pressure affect the baroreflex?

A

Increased stretch in arteries inhibits the vasomotor center, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure

This is part of the feedback loop for blood pressure regulation.

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74
Q

What stimulates the vasomotor center in response to decreased blood pressure?

A

Decreased stretch in arteries

This results in vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure.

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75
Q

What are the primary changes detected by chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies?

A
  • Decrease in O2
  • Increase in CO2
  • Decrease in pH

These changes primarily stimulate respiration but also affect blood pressure.

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76
Q

Which hormones are involved in increasing blood pressure?

A
  • Angiotensin II
  • Aldosterone
  • ADH

These hormones have various physiological effects that raise blood pressure.

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77
Q

What is the effect of Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) on blood pressure?

A

It decreases blood pressure by promoting sodium excretion in the kidneys

This hormone is secreted in response to increased blood pressure.

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78
Q

How is blood pressure measured?

A

Using a pressure cuff, sphygmomanometer, and stethoscope

Blood flow sounds indicate systolic and diastolic pressures.

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79
Q

What does a sphygmomanometer measure?

A

Blood pressure

It provides readings in the form of systolic/diastolic pressure.

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80
Q

What is interstitial fluid (ISF) and how is it formed?

A

Fluid formed when small proteins slip out of capillaries and create an osmotic gradient

This process allows water to move out of the blood.

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81
Q

What happens to interstitial fluid (ISF) as its volume increases?

A

Increased ISF pressure drives fluid into lymphatic capillaries, forming lymph

This transition is crucial for the lymphatic system.

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82
Q

Where are lymph nodes located in the body?

A
  • Cervical
  • Axillary
  • Thoracic
  • Abdominal
  • Inguinal

These regions are where lymph nodes are clustered.

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83
Q

What is the function of lymph nodes?

A

They filter and clean lymphatic fluid as it moves through

Lymph nodes house many lymphocytes for immune response.

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84
Q

What connects lymphatic vessels to the cardiovascular system?

A

Collecting ducts

They merge superior to the heart and connect to subclavian veins.

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85
Q

What is the thoracic duct’s role in the lymphatic system?

A

It empties lymph into the left subclavian vein

This is a primary collecting duct for lymph.

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86
Q

What causes lymphedema?

A

Obstruction of lymph movement leading to accumulation of lymph

This condition results in swelling downstream from the blockage.

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87
Q

All white blood cells are phagocytic cells.

A

False

Not all white blood cells perform phagocytosis; some have other functions.

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88
Q

What is the most common plasma protein?

A

Albumin

Albumin plays a crucial role in maintaining osmotic pressure.

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89
Q

Which of the following factors will NOT increase the RBC count?

A

Sleep

Factors like exercise and higher altitude typically increase RBC count.

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90
Q

What is anemia?

A

Decreased RBC count

Anemia can also be characterized by abnormal hemoglobin or decreased oxygen-carrying capacity.

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91
Q

Which type of leukocyte is most numerous?

A

Neutrophil

Neutrophils are the primary type of white blood cell in the bloodstream.

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92
Q

Which of the following cell types is an agranulocyte?

A

Lymphocyte

Agranulocytes lack granules in their cytoplasm.

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93
Q

Which of the following leukocytes provide specific immunity?

A

Lymphocyte

Lymphocytes are crucial for adaptive immune responses.

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94
Q

Which of the following leukocytes secretes heparin?

A

Basophil

Heparin is an anticoagulant that helps prevent blood clotting.

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95
Q

Which of the following conditions could result from an infection?

A

Leukocytosis

Leukocytosis is an increase in white blood cells often due to infection.

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96
Q

Identify the first step in a hemostatic mechanism.

A

Vascular spasm

This is the immediate response to blood vessel injury.

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97
Q

What cell type is the last to become involved during blood clot formation?

A

Fibrin

Fibrin is essential for the stabilization of the clot.

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98
Q

Which mechanism for blood clot formation is the fastest?

A

Extrinsic pathway

The extrinsic pathway is activated by tissue factor and is quicker than the intrinsic pathway.

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99
Q

What type of blood can a person with O+ receive during a transfusion?

A

O

O+ can receive O blood types and has Rh factor compatibility.

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100
Q

If the father of a child is Rh+ and the mother is Rh-, the child will be:

A

Can’t be determined with this data

The child’s Rh status depends on the specific alleles inherited.

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101
Q

What is the most common component of blood?

A

plasma

Plasma makes up about 55% of total blood volume.

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102
Q

What is a protective mechanism of blood? Select all correct answers.

A

• blood clotting
• distribution of antibodies

Blood also plays roles in oxygen transport and waste removal.

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103
Q

What is the purpose of albumin?

A

• maintenance of osmotic pressure

Albumin also serves as a carrier for hormones and nutrients.

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104
Q

What are the advantages of the biconcave shape of a RBC? Select all correct answers.

A

• provides flexibility
• all Hb is close to the surface

Biconcave shape enhances gas exchange efficiency.

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105
Q

Where does oxygen bind within a RBC?

A

on the iron atom

Oxygen binds to the heme group, specifically at the iron site.

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106
Q

How many molecules of oxygen can one Hb molecule transport?

A

4

Each hemoglobin molecule can carry four oxygen molecules.

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107
Q

What is the stimulus of EPO secretion?

A

low oxygen carrying capacity of the blood

EPO (erythropoietin) is produced primarily in response to hypoxia.

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108
Q

Following erythropoiesis, what type of cell enters the circulation?

A

reticulocyte

Reticulocytes mature into erythrocytes after entering the bloodstream.

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109
Q

When dead/damaged RBCs are removed from circulation, which part of the heme group is metabolized into a bile pigment?

A

porphyrin ring

The breakdown of heme results in bilirubin, a bile pigment.

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110
Q

Which of these conditions is known as polycythemia vera?

A

increased blood viscosity

Polycythemia vera is a blood disorder characterized by an overproduction of red blood cells.

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111
Q

Which of these factors is not a cause of anemia?

A

vitamin C deficiency

Anemia is typically caused by factors affecting RBC count or hemoglobin.

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112
Q

Identify the granulocyte:

A

neutrophil

Neutrophils are the most abundant type of granulocyte.

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113
Q

Identify the agranulocyte:

A

monocyte

Monocytes differentiate into macrophages and dendritic cells.

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114
Q

What type of WBC can produce antibodies?

A

lymphocyte

Specifically, B lymphocytes are responsible for antibody production.

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115
Q

What is the most common type of phagocytic cell?

A

neutrophil

Neutrophils are the first responders to sites of infection.

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116
Q

What type of WBC can differentiate into a macrophage?

A

monocyte

Monocytes mature into macrophages upon entering tissues.

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117
Q

What type of WBC secretes histamine?

A

basophil

Basophils play a role in allergic responses and inflammation.

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118
Q

Identify the WBC that can secrete metabolic acids onto a parasitic worm:

A

eosinophil

Eosinophils are involved in combating parasitic infections.

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119
Q

From a developmental standpoint, what type of WBC is most different from the others?

A

lymphocyte

Lymphocytes arise from different progenitor cells compared to granulocytes.

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120
Q

Leukocytosis can result from:

A

• infection
• high temperature

Other causes include stress or inflammation.

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121
Q

How does a platelet initiate the formation of a blood clot?

A

by forming a platelet plug

Platelets aggregate at the site of injury to initiate clotting.

122
Q

How does a platelet initiate the formation of a blood clot?

A

by secreting tissue thromboplastin
by secreting serotonin
by forming a platelet plug
by causing vasoconstriction

123
Q

What is the difference between a platelet plug and a blood clot? Select all correct answers.

A

presence of platelets
presence of fibrin
presence of fibrinogen
presence of tissue thromboplastin
presence of erythrocytes

124
Q

How does a drop of blood on the floor coagulate?

A

it just dries up
it can’t coagulate
tissue thromboplastin precipitates out of solution
by the intrinsic pathway

125
Q

What cell type disintegrates to give rise to platelets?

A

hemocytoblast
erythroblast
reticulocyte
megakaryocyte

126
Q

What converts fibrinogen into fibrin?

A

prothrombin
thrombin
calcium
tissue thromboplastin

127
Q

A person with type A blood: Select all correct answers.

A

has antigen A on the surface of RBCs
has antigen B on the surface of RBCs
has antigen A on the surface of all blood cells
has anti-A antibodies in the plasma
has anti-B antibodies in the plasma

128
Q

What is the approximate size of the heart?

A

Approximately the size of your fist

129
Q

Where is the heart located?

A

Mediastinum

130
Q

What are the two main orientations of the heart?

131
Q

What is the pericardium?

A

A double-walled sac around the heart

132
Q

What are the layers of the pericardium?

A
  • Superficial fibrous pericardium
  • Deep two-layer serous membrane
133
Q

What lines the internal surface of the fibrous pericardium?

A

Parietal pericardium

134
Q

What covers the surface of the heart?

A

Visceral pericardium or epicardium

135
Q

What separates the parietal and visceral pericardium?

A

Fluid-filled pericardial cavity

136
Q

What is the epicardium?

A

Visceral layer of the serous pericardium

137
Q

What is the myocardium?

A

Cardiac muscle layer forming the bulk of the heart

138
Q

What is the endocardium?

A

Endothelial layer lining the chambers of the heart

139
Q

What are the receiving chambers of the heart?

140
Q

What marks the walls of the atria?

A

Pectinate muscles

141
Q

What are the discharging chambers of the heart?

A

Ventricles

142
Q

What do the right and left ventricles pump blood into?

A
  • Right ventricle: pulmonary circuit
  • Left ventricle: systemic circuit
143
Q

What is the pathway of blood through the heart starting from the right atrium?

A

Right atrium 🡪 tricuspid valve 🡪 right ventricle 🡪 pulmonary semilunar valve 🡪 pulmonary trunk 🡪 right and left pulmonary arteries 🡪 lungs

144
Q

What is the function of the pulmonary circuit?

A

Gas exchange in capillary beds of lungs

145
Q

What is the function of the systemic circuit?

A

Gas exchange in capillary beds of all body tissues

146
Q

What are coronary arteries responsible for?

A

Functional blood supply to the heart muscle itself

147
Q

What ensures blood delivery to the heart even if major vessels are occluded?

A

Collateral routes

148
Q

What are the atrioventricular (AV) valves?

A

Valves that lie between the atria and the ventricles

149
Q

What prevents backflow into the atria during ventricular contraction?

150
Q

What anchors AV valves to the papillary muscles?

A

Chordae tendineae

151
Q

What are the two types of semilunar valves?

A
  • Aortic semilunar valve
  • Pulmonary semilunar valve
152
Q

What is the microscopic structure of cardiac muscle?

A

Striated, short, fat, branched, and interconnected

153
Q

What allows free passage of ions between cardiac cells?

A

Intercalated discs

154
Q

What is the function of autorhythmic cells?

A

Automatically generate action potentials

155
Q

What generates impulses in the heart?

A

Sinoatrial (SA) node

156
Q

How many depolarizations per minute does the SA node generate?

A

80-100 depolarizations/minute

157
Q

What is the role of the atrioventricular (AV) node?

A

Delays the impulse approximately 0.1 second

158
Q

What carries impulses from the AV node to the ventricles?

A

Atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His)

159
Q

What are Purkinje fibers responsible for?

A

Carrying impulses to the heart apex and ventricular walls

160
Q

What is the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle?

A

Time during which no action potential can be generated

161
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ valve lies between the left ventricle and the aorta.

A

Aortic semilunar

162
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ valve lies between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk.

A

Pulmonary semilunar

163
Q

True or False: The semilunar valves prevent backflow of blood into the atria.

164
Q

What splits into two pathways in the interventricular septum?

A

AV bundle

The AV bundle is also known as the bundle of His.

165
Q

What carries the impulse toward the apex of the heart?

A

Bundle branches

166
Q

What carries the impulse to the heart apex and ventricular walls?

A

Purkinje fibers

167
Q

What is the role of the sinoatrial (SA) node?

A

Generates impulses

168
Q

How long do impulses pause at the atrioventricular (AV) node?

A

0.1 seconds

169
Q

What does the AV bundle connect?

A

The atria to the ventricles

170
Q

What do the bundle branches conduct impulses through?

A

Interventricular septum

171
Q

What do Purkinje fibers depolarize?

A

Contractile cells of both ventricles

172
Q

What does the P wave in an ECG correspond to?

A

Depolarization of SA node

173
Q

What does the QRS complex in an ECG correspond to?

A

Ventricular depolarization

174
Q

What does the T wave in an ECG correspond to?

A

Ventricular repolarization

175
Q

True or False: Atrial repolarization is recorded in the ECG.

176
Q

What is the effect of the cardio acceleratory center?

A

Increases heart rate

177
Q

What nerve decreases heart rate?

A

Vagus nerve

178
Q

What is the first heart sound associated with?

A

Closing of AV valves

179
Q

What is the second heart sound associated with?

A

Closing of semilunar valves

180
Q

Define systole.

A

Contraction of heart muscle

181
Q

Define diastole.

A

Relaxation of heart muscle

182
Q

What is the end diastolic volume (EDV)?

A

Volume of blood trapped in a ventricle at the end of diastole

183
Q

What occurs during isovolumetric contraction phase?

A

Ventricular pressure > blood vessel pressure, semilunar valves open

184
Q

What is the dicrotic notch?

A

Brief rise in aortic pressure caused by backflow of blood

185
Q

What does the Frank-Starling Law of the Heart state?

A

Preload of cardiac muscle cells controls stroke volume

186
Q

What is cardiac output (CO)?

A

Amount of blood pumped by each ventricle in one minute

187
Q

What is the formula for calculating cardiac output?

A

CO = heart rate (HR) × stroke volume (SV)

188
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ is the amount of blood pumped out by a ventricle with each beat.

A

Stroke volume (SV)

189
Q

What happens when venous return to the heart increases?

A

Increased stroke volume (SV)

190
Q

What happens when venous return to the heart decreases?

A

Decreased stroke volume (SV)

191
Q

What are the main components of blood?

A

Liquid plasma and formed elements:
* Erythrocytes (RBCs)
* Leukocytes (WBCs)
* Platelets

192
Q

What does hematocrit measure?

A

The percentage of RBCs out of the total blood volume

193
Q

What is the pH range of blood?

A

7.35–7.45

194
Q

What is the average blood volume for males?

195
Q

What is the average blood volume for females?

196
Q

List the three main functions of blood.

A
  • Substance distribution
  • Regulation of blood levels of substances
  • Body protection
197
Q

What substances does blood transport?

A
  • Oxygen from the lungs
  • Nutrients from the digestive tract
  • Metabolic wastes
  • Hormones from endocrine glands
198
Q

How does blood regulate body temperature?

A

By absorbing and distributing heat

199
Q

What is the primary function of erythrocytes?

A

Respiratory gas transport

200
Q

What is the percentage of hemoglobin in erythrocytes?

A

More than 97%

201
Q

What is the normal range of erythrocytes for males?

A

4.5-6.3 million/mm3

202
Q

What hormone stimulates erythropoiesis?

A

Erythropoietin (EPO)

203
Q

What triggers the release of erythropoietin?

A
  • Hypoxia due to decreased RBCs
  • Decreased oxygen availability
  • Increased tissue demand for oxygen
204
Q

What are the dietary requirements for erythropoiesis?

A
  • Proteins
  • Lipids
  • Carbohydrates
  • Iron
  • Vitamin B12
  • Folic acid
205
Q

What is the lifespan of an erythrocyte?

A

100–120 days

206
Q

What happens to old erythrocytes?

A

They become rigid and fragile, are engulfed by macrophages, and their components are recycled

207
Q

What is anemia?

A

Blood has abnormally low oxygen carrying capacity

208
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of anemia?

A
  • Fatigue
  • Paleness
  • Shortness of breath
  • Chills
209
Q

What is hemorrhagic anemia?

A

Result of acute or chronic loss of blood

210
Q

What causes iron-deficiency anemia?

A
  • Secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia
  • Inadequate intake of iron-containing foods
  • Impaired iron absorption
211
Q

What is sickle-cell anemia caused by?

A

A defective gene coding for an abnormal hemoglobin called hemoglobin S (HbS)

212
Q

What happens to hemoglobin in sickle-cell anemia?

A

RBCs become sickle-shaped in low oxygen situations

213
Q

Fill in the blank: Blood accounts for approximately ______ of body weight.

214
Q

True or False: Only WBCs are complete cells in the formed elements of blood.

215
Q

What is the primary component of blood plasma?

216
Q

What are the formed elements of blood?

A
  • Erythrocytes (RBCs)
  • Leukocytes (WBCs)
  • Platelets
217
Q

What is the role of hemoglobin in erythrocytes?

A

Functions in gas transport by binding to oxygen

218
Q

What is hematopoiesis?

A

Blood cell formation

219
Q

Where does hematopoiesis occur?

A

In the red bone marrow of the axial skeleton, girdles, and epiphyses of long bones

220
Q

What is the role of hemocytoblasts?

A

They give rise to all formed elements

221
Q

What is the first phase of erythropoiesis?

A

Ribosome synthesis in early erythroblasts

222
Q

What is the significance of ATP generation in erythrocytes?

A

It is generated anaerobically, so erythrocytes do not consume the oxygen they transport

223
Q

What is bilirubin?

A

A yellow pigment formed from the degradation of heme

224
Q

How is bilirubin excreted from the body?

A

As a bile pigment into the intestines and then in feces

225
Q

What is the role of globin after erythrocyte destruction?

A

Metabolized into amino acids and released into circulation

226
Q

What is HbS?

A

A hemoglobin variant with a single amino acid substitution in the beta chain

This defect causes RBCs to become sickle-shaped in low oxygen situations.

227
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

Excess RBCs that increase blood viscosity

Three main types include polycythemia vera, secondary polycythemia, and blood doping.

228
Q

What percentage of total blood volume do leukocytes make up?

A

1%

Leukocytes are the only blood components that are complete cells.

229
Q

What is the normal range for leukocyte count?

A

4,800 – 10,800 cells/mm3

230
Q

What is leukocytosis?

A

WBC count over 11,000 / mm3

It’s a normal response to bacterial or viral invasion.

231
Q

What is leukopenia?

A

WBC count below 5,000/mm3

It can result from bone marrow failure or as a side effect of drugs.

232
Q

List the types of granulocytes.

A
  • Neutrophils
  • Eosinophils
  • Basophils
233
Q

What is the function of neutrophils?

A

Phagocytize foreign particles and are highly mobile

234
Q

What percentage of WBCs do eosinophils account for?

235
Q

What is the primary role of eosinophils?

A

Counterattack against parasitic worms and lessen allergy severity

236
Q

What do basophils contain?

A

Large, purplish-black granules that contain histamine

Histamine acts as a vasodilator and attracts other WBCs.

237
Q

What defines agranulocytes?

A

Lack visible cytoplasmic granules

238
Q

What types of cells are lymphocytes?

A
  • T cells
  • B cells
239
Q

What is the function of T cells?

A

Function in the immune response

240
Q

What do B cells give rise to?

A

Plasma cells, which produce antibodies

241
Q

What do monocytes differentiate into?

A

Macrophages after leaving circulation and entering tissue

242
Q

What stimulates leukopoiesis?

A

Interleukins and colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)

243
Q

From what do all leukocytes originate?

A

Hemocytoblasts

244
Q

What is leukemia?

A

Cancerous conditions involving WBCs

245
Q

What are the two types of leukemia based on the abnormal WBCs involved?

A
  • Myelogenous leukemia
  • Lymphocytic leukemia
246
Q

What characterizes acute leukemia?

A

Involves blast-type cells and primarily affects children

247
Q

What are platelets?

A

Fragments of megakaryocytes that function in clotting

248
Q

What is hemostasis?

A

A series of reactions for stoppage of bleeding

249
Q

List the three phases of hemostasis.

A
  • Vascular spasms
  • Platelet plug formation
  • Coagulation
250
Q

What occurs during platelet plug formation?

A

Platelets stick to exposed collagen fibers and release serotonin

251
Q

What are the two pathways that lead to coagulation?

A
  • Intrinsic pathway
  • Extrinsic pathway
252
Q

What is the intrinsic pathway of coagulation?

A

Blood clots without any additional substance being added

253
Q

What accelerates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation?

A

Damaged tissue adds a chemical (tissue factor)

254
Q

What are the three layers of blood vessel walls?

A
  • Tunica Interna/Intima
  • Tunica Media
  • Tunica Externa
255
Q

What is the inner layer of blood vessels called?

A

Tunica Interna/Intima

256
Q

What is the function of the Tunica Media?

A

Contains smooth muscle and elastin for vasoconstriction and vasodilation

257
Q

What type of blood do arteries carry?

A

High pressure blood away from the heart (oxygenated and deoxygenated)

258
Q

Name the two types of arteries.

A
  • Elastic arteries
  • Muscular arteries
259
Q

What are elastic arteries primarily responsible for?

A

Conducting blood, with high elasticity and elastin content

260
Q

What is the role of arterioles?

A

Connect arteries to capillaries and control blood flow into capillaries

261
Q

What are the three types of capillaries?

A
  • Continuous
  • Fenestrated
  • Sinusoids
262
Q

What is the defining feature of continuous capillaries?

A

Incomplete tight junctions and intercellular clefts

263
Q

Where are fenestrated capillaries commonly found?

A

In special locations such as the kidneys and small intestine

264
Q

What is the most permeable type of capillary?

A

Sinusoidal capillaries

265
Q

What structure connects capillaries to veins?

266
Q

What defines veins in terms of blood pressure?

A

Carry low pressure blood back to the heart

267
Q

What feature do veins contain to prevent backflow?

268
Q

List the circulation routes in the body.

A
  • Cardiac
  • Pulmonary
  • Systemic
  • Portal
  • Fetal
269
Q

What is the function of the pulmonary circuit?

A

Capillary beds of lungs where gas exchange occurs

270
Q

What are the fetal modifications in circulation?

A
  • One umbilical vein
  • Two umbilical arteries
  • Three vascular shunts (Ductus venosus, Foramen ovale, Ductus arteriosus)
271
Q

What is blood pressure measured in?

272
Q

What factors affect blood pressure?

A
  • Resistance
  • Velocity of blood flow
  • Elasticity of arteries
273
Q

What are baroreceptors?

A

Receptors that respond to short-term changes in blood pressure

274
Q

Where are baroreceptors located?

A

In aortic and carotid sinuses

275
Q

What is the function of chemoreceptors?

A

Located in carotid and aortic bodies, they respond to changes in O2, pH, or CO2

276
Q

What is the renin-angiotensin mechanism?

A

A long-term mechanism for regulating blood pressure

277
Q

What is lymph?

A

Interstitial fluid that enters lymphatic capillaries

278
Q

What drives ISF into lymphatic capillaries?

A

Increased ISF pressure

279
Q

What are the structural features of lymphatic capillaries?

A

Blind-ended tubes with overlapping endothelial cells forming flaplike minivalves

280
Q

What is the function of lymph nodes?

A

Filtering lymph and housing immune cells

281
Q

What type of blood vessel has the lowest pressure?

282
Q

Identify the most common type of capillary.

A

Continuous

283
Q

Identify the shunt between the right and left atria.

A

Foramen ovale

284
Q

Which vessel carries oxygenated blood to the fetus?

A

Umbilical vein

285
Q

Where would blood pressure be the highest?

286
Q

Which of the following factors do not increase resistance to blood flow?

A

Blood vessel diameter

287
Q

In which of the following vessels would the velocity of blood flow least?

288
Q

Where is ISF derived from?

289
Q

Where is lymph derived from?

A

Interstitial fluid

290
Q

What is the driving force for lymph production?

A

Blood pressure

291
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?

A

Circulate ISF

292
Q

List the regional lymph node locations.

A
  • Cervical
  • Axillary
  • Thoracic
  • Abdominal
  • Inguinal
293
Q

What is the biggest lymphatic duct?

A

Thoracic duct

294
Q

Into which vein does the thoracic duct empty?

A

Left Subclavian vein

295
Q

Into which vein does the right lymphatic duct empty?

A

Right Subclavian vein

296
Q

What structures are associated with the medulla of a lymph node?

A
  • Medullary cord
  • Medullary sinus
297
Q

What is the role of skeletal muscle movement in lymph flow?

A

It aids in lymph movement

298
Q

What condition is caused by obstruction of lymph flow?

A

Lymphedema

299
Q

What structures are found in the cortex of a lymph node?

A
  • Lymphoid follicle
  • Germinal center
  • Subcapsular sinus
300
Q

What are the components of the lymphatic system?

A
  • Lymphatic trunks
  • Collecting ducts
301
Q

What is the function of the reticular fibers in lymph nodes?

A

Support lymphocytes and macrophages

302
Q

What is the term for the entrance of the thoracic duct into the vein?

A

Cisterna chyli

Semester 2 (7 decks)

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