cardiovascular 11-15 (s + p + t) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the sternal angle (angle of Louis) and at which level is it found?

A
  • an important landmark

- at the level of the aortic arch and the bifurcation of trachea

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2
Q

What are the two other anatomical surface marking lines of the thorax?

(Hint - both ‘mid’ lines)

A
  • mid-clavicular line

- mid-axillary line

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3
Q

What are the three joints of the sternum?

Hint - manubrium, sternum, costal, clavicle - 2x sterno and 1x manubrio

A
  • manubriosternal
  • sternoclavicular
  • sternocostal
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4
Q

With which bones does the sternum articulate with and via what?

(Hint - collarbone + ribs via that elasticy part)

A
  • only with clavicle and ribs 1-7 (true ribs)

- via costal cartilage

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5
Q

Which ribs are the true or false ribs and how are they determined?

A
  • by attachment/no attachment of rib to sternum
  • ribs 1-7 = true because they attach directly to sternum via their own costal cartilage
  • ribs 8-12 = false because they attach to sternum via costal cartilage of rib superior or don’t attach at all
  • ribs 11+12 = ‘floating ribs’ subcategory as they only attach to their corresponding vertebral bodies and not the sternum
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6
Q

Which ribs are typical and atypical and how are they determined?

A
  • determined by surface markings
  • typical → T3-9
    • include a neck, tubercle with curved and twisted shaft
    • head with two facets which articulate with corresponding + superior vertebrae
  • atypical → T1+2, T10-12
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7
Q

What are the defining features of thoracic vertebrae?

Hint - thin spine, demi-fs, heart

A
  • single spinous process
  • articular demi-facets on body
  • medium-sized, ‘heart-shaped’ body
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8
Q

What are the origins, insertions and associated nerve/s of the:

a) pectoralis minor?
b) pectoralis major?

A

a) pectoralis minor:
• origin → ribs 3-5
• insertion → coracoid process of scapula
• associated nerve → medial pectoral nerve
b) pectoralis major:
• origin → clavicular and sternocostal heads
• insertion → intertubercular groove
• associated nerve → medial + lateral pectoral nerves

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9
Q

What is a good way to remember the direction of all of the intercostals?

A
  1. external- superficial
    - ‘hands in front pockets’ - anteroinferior
    - inspiration
  2. internal- middle
    - ‘hands in back pockets’ - posterosuperior
    - expiration
  3. innermost- deep
    - ‘hands in back pockets’ - posterosuperior → expiration
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10
Q

In which IC muscle is the neurovascular bundle found and what else is found here?

(Hint - TS nerves)

A
  • internal (middle) intercoastal muscle

- neurovascular bundle- intercostal nerves = ventral rami of thoracic spinal nerves

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11
Q

Describe the vasculature of the thorax.

A

arteries:
- aorta → gives off subclavian artery → internal thoracic artery
• thoracic aorta + internal thoracic → IC branches (run in the neurovascular bundle)
- intercostals
• drain anteriorly into internal thoracic vein
• posteriorly into either azygos (R)/hemi-azygos(L)
• hemi-azygos drains azygos → drains into SVC
- all ribs have (sub)costal groove which contain neurovascular bundle (V.A.N) on inferior surface

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12
Q

What is the visceral pleura, parietal pleura, pleural cavity and serous pleural fluid?

(Hint - ‘viscera’ means organ)

A
  • visceral pleura: adheres to organ (lungs)
  • parietal pleura: adheres to ribcage (superficial to visceral pleura)
  • pleural cavity: potential space between both pleura
  • serous pleural fluid → pleural fluid secreted within cavity which prevents friction during respiration + creates surface tension so pleura to adhere to one other
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13
Q

Where are the visceral and parietal pleura continuous and which fluid is serous pleural fluid different to?

(Hint - different to the fluid of newborn lungs)

A
  • visceral and parietal pleura are continuous at the lung root
  • different to surfactant secreted by type 2 pneumocytes (in alveoli)
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14
Q

What type of pleural effusion causes a pneumothorax (air in lungs) in each case:

a) pus (Hint - p or empy)
b) blood (Hint - haemoglobin)
c) lymph (Hint - chyli)
d) serous (Hint - water/wind power)

A

a) pus- empyema/ pyothorax
b) blood- haemothorax
c) lymph- chylothorax
d) serous- hydrothorax

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15
Q

What are the 2 main nerves and what must you know about them?

(Hint - ‘frenic in front’ and ‘vagus’ literally means ‘wandering’)

A
  1. phrenic (C3,4+5- keep the diaphragm alive!)
    - in the front of the lung root
    - motor = diaphragm
    - sensory = mediastinal + diaphragmatic pleura, fibrous and serous parietal pericardium
  2. Vagus (CN X)
    - known as the wandering nerve which lies behind the lung root
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16
Q

What does the vagus nerve give off and what is its function?

Hint - gives off LLN which supplies voicebox, other motor supply of nodes, 80% to where

A
  • recurrent laryngeal branch, the L of which loops around ligamentum arteriosum → supplies parts of larynx
  • other motor supply = SAN (R vagus), AVN (L vagus)
  • about 80% = sensory to most of thorax and abdomen
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17
Q

What is the mediastinum and what does it accommodate and contain?

A
  • central part of thoracic cavity
  • highly mobile - accommodates movement, volume and pressure changes in the thoracic cavity
  • contains all thoracic viscera except lungs
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18
Q

What is the pericardium and its three functions?

A
  • pericardium → surrounds heart + roots of great vessels
    • prevents friction
    • acts as shock absorber
    • stabilises heart position
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19
Q

Which area of the heart do the SVC, IVC and coronary sinus all drain into?

A

the RA

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20
Q

Starting from the RA, in which order does blood travel before it reaches the lungs?

(Hint - RA → t → r → p → p → lungs)

A

RA → Tricuspid valve → RV → pulmonary valve → pulmonary artery (pulmonary trunk) → lungs

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21
Q

What does the pulmonary artery divides into and where?

Hint - has two sides

A
  • into L + R pulmonary arteries

- under aortic arch

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22
Q

What shape is the right atrium and what does this mean for the structure next to it?

(Hint - what Brits call cushions)

A
  • ‘pillow’ shape of RA

- extends and looks like a dog ear hence called ‘right auricle’

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23
Q

What do the four pulmonary veins (2x L + 2x R) drain into?

Hint - a heart chamber high up

A

LA

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24
Q

Where does blood travel to from the left atrium?

Hint - LA → b → L → a → a

A

LA → bicuspid valve → LV → aortic valve → ascending aorta

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25
Q

What does the coronary sinus drain blood from and where does this blood return to?

(Hint - coronary, return to normal circ.)

A
  • coronary veins

- to systemic circulation via RA (coronary sinus drains into here)

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26
Q

Describe the main bits of the coronary circulation.

Hint - branches of LCA, RPM, as in “rotations per minute,” what veins drain into, the four cardiac veins

A
  • LCA (Left coronary artery) is the abbreviation and the branching pattern(Left → Circumflex +Anterior interventricular)
  • Right = RPM, as in “rotations per minute” (Right → Posterior interventricular + Marginal).
  • all veins drain into coronary sinus (posterior between LA + LV) > RA
  • cardiac veins = great, middle, small and anterior
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27
Q

What is the thoracic duct (L lymphatic duct), its function and what does it travel to and from?

(Hint - what does it drain, from CC to the junction of BC trunk, enters thorax at a. hiatus + azygous veins)

A
  • drains all body except R arm + chest (head + neck)
  • extends from cisterna chyli + drains back into systemic circulation at junction of brachiocephalic trunk (between left SVN + CC veins)
  • enters thorax at aortic hiatus + ascends next to azygos veins anterior to spine

(see notes for diagram)

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28
Q

What level to is the diaphragm pierced to enter/leave the thorax by the:

a) vena cava
b) oesophagus
c) aortic hiatus/thoracic duct

(Hint - count the letters)

A

a) enters thorax at T8
b) T10
c) T12

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29
Q

What are each of the following abbreviations:

a) CXR
b) PA/AP
c) SOB
d) NG tube
e) RTA

A

a) chest x-ray
b) posterior-anterior, anterior-posterior
c) shortness of breath
d) nasogastric tube
e) RTA- road traffic accident

30
Q

What is the science behind X-rays and how would something show up if it was bone, tissues or air?

A
  • shoot ‘x-rays’ through someone onto detector (digital recording plate)
  • converts the x-rays into image
  • dense material absorbs x-rays and so looks white i.e. bone
  • soft materials absorb fewer x-rays and look darker i.e. soft tissues
  • air looks black as there is no density i.e. pneumothorax
31
Q

By which six stages should an X-ray investigation be conducted in a patient?

(Hint - identity, form of CXR, how your laid, resolution, KourtK phrase, summary quiz)

A
  1. Is it the right patient? - check details i.e. name, DOB, etc
  2. PA/AP?
  3. position (supine/erect)
  4. Quality
    - rotation
    - inspiration (6-8 anterior ribs)
    - penetration (are lower vertebral bodies visible through cardiac shadow?)
  5. ABCDE
  6. Review
32
Q

What does the ABCDE of an X-ray involve?

A

ABCDE:
- Apices (top of pleura); check for minor pneumothorax
- Breathing; check hilum and lungs for tumours and consolidation; look at trachea’s position and main bronchi; check for position of fissures
- Cardiac; enlarged heart =>50% of thorax, RA + LV visible? vascular structures - aorta, pulmonary vessels
- Diaphragm; position of diaphragm, costophrenic angles, air/fluid under the diaphragm
- Extra pulmonary;
• bones
• breast shadows- mastectomy (possible lung metastases)
• pacemakers
• lines- help indicate what may be wrong:
o ECG
o NG tube
o chest tube
o central line

33
Q

What is dextrocardia?

A

a rare heart condition in which your heart points toward the right side of your chest instead of the left

34
Q

Which way is a transverse thorax cross-section usually taken and what should you try to identify?

A
  • from a person’s feet while they are lying back down (supine)
  • try to identify the vertebral level at which the person lies
35
Q
Case: 
Jonny is a 10-year-old boy who was playing out on the road and got hit by a car. He has come into your A+E with: 
- severe SOB
- decreased breath sounds on right side
- increased respiratory rate
- 36.5 temp 
- pain on palpating right chest wall
- you conduct an X-ray
- What does he have?
A

broken rib which caused pneumothorax

36
Q

Case:
Bill is a 65-year-old retired coal miner from Wakefield who loves nothing more than enjoying a cigarette or 40 a day and has done since the age of 15. You’re his GP and he comes to you with:
- recent unexplained weight loss (3 stone)
- coughing up blood
• after examining Bill’s chest x-ray you find a mass in the right upper lobe
- What does he have and how do you treat it?

A
  • suspected lung cancer

- after Bill’s pneumonectomy, you request another x-ray and this is what you find (see document)

37
Q

Case:

  • Ellie (aged 3) is brought into A+E by her very distressed mother who explains she left her in the living room whilst she made a cup of tea and came back to find her struggling to breathe.
  • on examination, you find Ellie has a stridor and is becoming increasingly distressed (as is her mother)
  • you conduct an X-ray (see document)
  • What does she have and how do you treat it?
A
  • she has swallowed a coin

- which needs to be extracted

38
Q

Case:
- Ethel is an 81-year-old lady who has been on the elderly ward for the past day awaiting a hip replacement. When she arrived you noticed she had a productive cough.
- You examine her and find she has:
• temp 38.8
• increased respiratory rate
• crepitations (crakcing/rattling sound) at the left base
• dull note to percussion at the left base
• you conduct an X-ray (see document)
- What does she have and how do you treat it?

A
  • Ethel had community-acquired pneumonia which was caused by:
    • strep pneumoniae
    • you treat with antibiotics
    (amoxicillin and clarithromycin
39
Q

Case:
- Harry has just returned from Africa where he spent his gap year travelling. He has been admitted to hospital after coughing up blood. You examine him and find:
• he has unintentionally lost over 2 stone over the past few months
• is coughing up blood
• has lost his appetite
• night sweats and 39 temp
• after further questioning about his trip you find he has dabbled in IV drug use whilst on his trip
• You run a blood test to find Harry has contracted HIV
• you then request his CXR (see document)
- What does he have and how can it be treated?

A
  • Harry has lung cancer

- treat by pneumonectomy, chemotherapy, radiation therapy, targeted therapy, or a combination of these

40
Q

What is COPD and its:

  • causes? (Hint - SAG one of which is sootay in the air)
  • signs and symptoms? (Hint - CPS, one of which is the reason these people can’t exercise too heavily)
  • treatment? (Hint - OM - the usual)

(Hint - o for obstructive and chronic and little passage for air)

A
  • a type ofobstructive lung diseasecharacterized by long-term breathing problems and poor airflow
    • causes: smoking, air pollution, genetics
    • signs and symptoms:SOB, coughwithsputumproduction, physical activity limitation → worsen over time
    • treatment: oxygen therapy, medications (i.e. bronchodilators, steroids, combination inhalers, phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitors, theophylline)
41
Q

What is pink puffer and its:

  • causes? (Hint - HP)
  • signs and symptoms? (Hint - SPIB - one to do with that golden caramel QS chocolate and one to do with increased breathing)
  • treatment? (Hint - OMS)

(Hint - e for ‘emphysema’ and then the physical characteristics)

A
  • an old, term for severeemphysema (alveoli destruction) when a person who is thin, breathing fast and has pink (skin)
    • causes: hypoxemia (low oxygen of blood) and peripheral oedema from genetics/smoking
    • signs + symptoms: SOB, pursed-lipbreathing, increased RR, barrel chests (in inhale position when air trapped)
    • treatment: oxygen therapy, medications (i.e. inhalers) and possibly surgery
42
Q

What is blue bloaters and its:

  • causes? (Hint - S, B/V microbiology-related)
  • signs and symptoms? (Hint - CSCLO - the typical tow-tow)
  • treatment? (Hint - sO)

(Hint - another politically incorrect term for chronic condition starting with ‘b’ with the physical characteristics)

A
  • old, term for severechronic bronchitis (inflammation of the bronchial tube lining) for person who is overweight, breathing fast and blue-skinned
    • causes: smoking or a viral/bacterial infection
    • signs and symptoms: chronic cough, SOB, cyanosis (‘blue’), low oxygenlevels, overweight with swollen feet, ankles, legs, large neck veins
    • treatment: supplemental oxygen
43
Q

What is asthma and its:

  • causes? (Hint - IRPC - all of the things Asian parents warn you against)
  • signs and symptoms? (Hint - SCW - one of which is the classic)
  • treatment? (Hint - LT/ST)

(Hint - chronic and to do with the airways of the lungs)

A

– common, long-term inflammatory disease of the airways of the lungs
• causes: irritants (i.e. pollen), respiratory infections, physical activity, cold air
• signs and symptoms: SOB, chest tightness/pain, wheezing during exhalation
• treatment: long-term medication (i.e. corticosteroids), short-term more fast-acting medications (i.e. albuterol)

44
Q

What is auscultation and how does it work?

(Hint - T2+3 are aortic and pulmonic, LHS R3-6 two at a time are tricuspid, LHS R6-7 are mitral, after exercise return to tricuspid and see for + sounds → for valves at T2+3 think RALPh)

A
  1. subject lies down with slightly-elevated head
  2. heart sounds listened from:
    - RHS of chest (T2-T3 - aortic region of heart)
    - LHS of chest (T2-T3 - pulmonic region of heart)
  3. move stethoscope in turn to regions between left R3-4, R4-5 then finally R5-6 (tricuspid region)
  4. then listen to heart sounds between R6-7 (mitral region)
  5. now exercise vigorously for a few minutes → listen with stethoscope positioned between R3-4, R4-5 then finally R5-6 (tricuspid region) - can you hear an additional heart sound?
45
Q

What does hypertension increase and what can it lead to?

Hint - short-term and then long-term

A
  • pressure exerted on walls of blood vessels + cardiac workload
  • can increase chances of a number of life-threatening conditions (i.e. arteriosclerosis, aneurysms, heart attacks and strokes)
46
Q

How is BP measured?

(Hint - subject flexing, brac artery, rad pulse + stethoscope, inflated cuff, systolic BP, diastolic BP, enter results for rest, enter results for after exercise)

A
  1. seat subject with arm slightly-flexed
  2. place bladder of cuff 2cm above antecubital fold over brachial artery
  3. palpate radial pulse + inflate cuff until pulse disappears → place stethoscope over brachial artery
  4. inflate cuff 20 to 30 mmHg above estimated systolic pressure (160 mmHg)
  5. release pressure slowly, until you start to hear Korotkoff sounds (press mark button on sphygmomanometer) → systolic BP
  6. continue to lower pressure in cuff until Korotcoff sounds disappear → diastolic BP
  7. enter results in BP table for “at rest”
  8. repeat 1–7 after a few minutes exercise entering results into BP table
47
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of angina, MIs and IHDs.

A

• angina
- 2 million in UK have experienced at some point
• MI (myocardial infarction/heart attack)
- 268,000/year in UK (BHF)
- incidence of those aged 30-69 is 600/100,000 (men) and 200/100,000 (women)
• IHD (ischaemic heart disease)
- 110,000+ die each year
- 2 million people in UK have experienced at some point
- 275,000 people/year suffer heart attacks
- major burden of morbidity, mortality and resources

48
Q

What is the basic physiology of coronary artery disease (CAD)?

(Hint - APs in different parts of the heart, what this accounts for electrically, time that atrial depolarization reaches AVN, the role of A + M swapping)

A
  • action potentials in different locations within the heart have localised differences in shape
  • this accounts for the difference in electrophysiological properties of various heart tissues
  • atrial depolarization reaches AVN early in P-wave and passes very slowly through it
  • actin and myosin swapping also has a role in the physiology of heart (via Ca2+ ions)
49
Q

What is the pathology of CAD, in terms of Glagov’s remodeling hypothesis for atherosclerotic progression?

(Hint - early plaque sticking, EEM enlarges, plaque develops, lesion just under 50% so lumen now affected)

A

(early atherosclerosis stages) plaque accumulation in vessel wall → enlargement of external elastic membrane (EEM) but no change in lumen size → extra-luminal plaque development → lesion occupies ≥40% so lumen begins to shrink

50
Q

What are the six general stages of vascular disease progression?

(Hint - A → Thromb → U/MI → IS → C leg I → CV D)

A
  • atherosclerosis - stable angina + intermittent claudication (muscle pain on mild exertion) →
  • thrombosis →
  • unstable angina, MI (both acute coronary syndrome)
  • ischaemic stroke/TIA
  • critical leg ischaemia
  • cardiovascular death
51
Q

What is acute coronary syndrome (ACS)?

A

an example of progression of vascular disease to ischaemic event

52
Q

How do patients present with ACS and what is its pathophysiology?

(Hint - either ID with ST-wave flying OR just MI + NSTEMI, to distinguish bloods, most NSTEMI = no Q-wave so called NQMI)

A

• ischaemic discomfort with/without ST-segment elevation (ECG)
• no ST elevation → unstable angina OR non-ST-segment-elevation MI (NSTEMI)
- distinction based on presence of a cardiac biomarker (Dx) in blood
- most NSTEMI patients → do not evolve Q-wave (ECG), so referred as having sustained NQMI
- spectrum of clinical conditions from unstable angina to non-Q wave MI constitutes ACS cases

53
Q

Which common underlying thrombotic disease processes can lead to MIs, strokes and cardiovascular deaths?

(Hint - platelets → A explosion → platelets 3As → p-rich T formation)

A
  • platelets in central role in thrombi development and subsequent ischaemic events
  • atherosclerotic plaque rupture/erosion →
  • platelet adhesion, activation + aggregation →
  • platelet-rich thrombus formation →

(patients who have vascular disease in one vascular bed have increased lifetime risk of experiencing a thrombotic event)

54
Q

How can the drug clopidogrel be used to decrease the risk of a thrombotic disease?

(Hint - inhibits what? how long and reversible? how specific?)

A
  • non-competitive inhibitor → inhibits ADP-binding to platelet membrane receptors (platelet aggregation)
  • binding irreversible + lasts for duration of platelet life (about 7 days)
  • specific inhibition (won’t affect cyclooxygenase or arachidonic acid metabolism)
55
Q

State the other differential diagnoses for CAD when the cause is:

a) cardiac (Hint - MAPA)
b) respiratory (Hint - PPP)
c) gastro (Hint - GOPP)
d) musculoskeletal (Hint - R)
e) epidermal (Hint - Z)

A

a) MI, angina, pericarditis, Aortic Dissection (AD)
b) PE, pneumonia, pneumothorax
c) GO reflux/spasm, oesophageal rupture, peptic, pancreatitis/GB
d) rib fracture
e) zoster

56
Q

State how the nature of chest pain can be described when taking a history.

(Hint - CPS)

A

• Nature

  • constricting (angina, GOS, anxiety)
  • prolonged (> ½ hr) dull central pressure may = MI
  • sharp (pleural, pericardial)
57
Q

How can the radiation of chest pain be described when taking a medical history?

(Hint - s a or n(i), i t i, epig pain)

A
  • shoulder, arms or neck/jaw (ischaemia)
  • instantaneous tearing intrascapular (aortic dissection)
  • epigastric pain may be cardiac
58
Q

How can the precipitants of chest pain can be described when taking a history?

(Hint - c/exerc./palp./emots, food/drink/lying/, a decub., pp angina)

A
  • cold, exercise, palpitations, emotion - cardiac/anxiety
  • food, lying flat, hot drinks or alcohol - gos/gord (gastroesophageal reflux/gastroesophageal disease)
    but
  • angina decubitus (nightly variation of angina pectoris)
  • post-prandial angina (a variation of angina which is a likely marker of severe CAD)
59
Q

What is the cause of chest pain with each relieving factors when taking a medical history:

a) rest/GTN w/in minutes (Hint - a)
b) GTN (glyceryl nitrite medication) slowly (Hint - g)
c) Ant-acids (Hint - g)
d) leaning forwards (Hint - p)

A
  • angina
  • GOS
  • GORD
  • pericarditis
60
Q

How can the associations of chest pains be defined as when taking a history, if they are:

a) dyspnoea (SOB) (Hint - cppa)
b) nausea, vomiting, sweating (Hint - heart attack)
c) tenderness (symptomatic pain reproduced by local pressure) (Hint - ccitis)

A
  • cardiac, PE, pleurisy (inflamed pleura), anxiety
  • MI
  • costochondritis
61
Q

What are the properties of cardiac chest pain?

Hint - CHNSDR

A
  • central
  • heavy squeezing or constricting
  • nausea or vomiting
  • sweating
  • dyspnoea
  • radiation - arm/neck/jaw
62
Q

Describe a STEMI (ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction) and how it should be treated.

(Hint - r, t, p)

A

• serious MI where one of heart’s major arteries blocked so ST-segment elevation on 12-lead-ECG

  • timely re-perfusion
  • thrombolysis (enzymatic dissolution of a blood clot)
  • timely PPCI (Primary Percutaneous Coronary Intervention) better than thrombolysis due to time constraints
63
Q

What are the stages of a PCI (percutaneous coronary intervention)?

(Hint - get needle in and wire to site of action, suck up thrombus, open balloon, open metal bin)

A
  • guide catheter to coronary artery → wire across lesion (affected vessel)
  • thrombus aspiration (suction of blood clot)
  • balloon dilatation (balloon opened up)
  • stent deployment (metal tube opened up)
64
Q

What is the after-care and complications for treating a cardiac problem?

A
  • after care - complications, drugs, lifestyle, rehabilitation (can be exercise-based)
  • complications - death, arrhythmias, HF, pericarditis, angina
65
Q

What are the three main arrhythmias (abnormal heart rhythms) and what does each one mean?

A
  • AV block = when electrical signals from atria to ventricles is impaired
  • first-degree AV block
  • second-degree AV block - due toa blockin/below the bundle of His
  • third-degree AV block- completeheart block

(see notes for diagrams)

66
Q

What are the symptoms of HF?

Hint - SSCDSCIC

A
  • SOB
  • swelling of feet/legs
  • chronic lack of energy
  • difficulty breathing while sleeping
  • swollen/tender abdomen with loss of appetite
  • cough with frothy sputum
  • increased urination at night
  • confusion and/or impaired memory
67
Q

In which five different ways can drug therapy be used to treat cardiac conditions?

(Hint - complications, long-term, quality, initial ac. long-term)

A
  • to reduce risk of early complications
  • to reduce long term mortality and morbidity
  • to improve quality of life
  • initial acute therapy
  • long-term therapy
68
Q

How can ACS initially be treated?

Hint - two antis → p and t, fibrino if no PPCI

A
• anti-platelets
- aspirin
- clopidogrel/prasugrel/ticagrelor (other anti-platelet drugs)
• anti-thrombotics
- heparins
- bivalarudin
• fibrinolytic if not having PPCI
69
Q

State some early and longer-term drugs for treating ACS.

Hint - drug monograph, RAAS system, + cholesterol-lowering drug widely-prescribed

A

• β-blockers
- reduce arrhythmias and acute MIs
- reduce ventricular rupture
• ACE Inhibitors
- attenuate adverse ventricular remodelling
- prevent HF
• statins - lower cholesterol, slow plaque growth and reduce recurrent events

70
Q

How well do ACE inhibitors work in in higher risk MI patients with maintained therapy >6 months?

A

survival advantage occurs early (increased with long-term therapy)

71
Q

On which two different kidney receptors does angiotensin II act on?

(Hint - [1] VCNS [2] VA)

A
  1. AT1
    - vasoconstriction
    - cell growth
    - Na⁺/H₂O retention
    - sympathetic activation
  2. AT2
    - vasodilation
    - anti-proliferation (kinins)
72
Q

Which general advice is given to patients who have just been treated for a cardiac problem?

(Hint - think of tayaa)

A
  • eat more fish and less fat
  • forget supplements (except omega-3 fatty acids)
  • drink a little of what you like
  • walk a lot
  • don’t smoke
  • lose weight (if you are obese/overweight)
  • keep taking the provided tablets