Cardiology COPY Flashcards

1
Q

Types of MI

A

Type 1 - plaque rupture with intraluminal thrombus
Type 2 - demand ischaemia
Type 3 - MI resulting in death without biomarkers
Type 4 - PCI related
4a related to PCI
4b related to in-stent thrombosis
Type 5 - CABG related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cannon “a wave”

A

Simultaneous contraction of atria and ventricle against a closed tricuspid valves
Seen in;
- complete heart block
- ventricular tachycardia
- Ventricular ectopics
- single chamber ventricular pacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

C wave

A

Closure of tricuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Normal A wave

A

Contraction of atria

Absent in AF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

V wave

A

Passive filling of atria against a closed tricuspid valve

Large V waves in tricuspid regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

X descent

A

fall in atrial pressure during ventricular systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Y descent

A

opening of tricuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Findings of Mitral Stenosis

A

Often caused by RHD
Early diastolic murmur loudest expiration
Reduced pulse volume
Prominent A and V waves due to subsequent R) heart failure
Mitral facies
Loud P2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Indications mitral valve repair in MS

A

MCV < 1.5cm
No thrombus
No calcifications

If symptomatic - NYHF 4

If asymptomatic - Pulm arterial pressure > 50mmHg or new AF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Contraindications to mitral valvuloplasty in MS

A

Valve > 1.5cm

Thrombus or calcification

NYHF < 3 without AF or pulmonary pressures > 50

Mod - Severe MR

Absence of commissural fusion

Other severe valve pathology

Coronary artery disease requiring CABG (Opt for repair instead)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Indications for MV repair

A

MCV < 1.5cm and symptomatic - NYHF 4 with contraindications for balloon valvuloplasty;
- Clot, calcification
- Mod/severe MR
- CABG or other vascular disease requiring surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CHADSVASC

A

CCF
HTN
AGE > 75 (2), Age > 65 (1)
Diabetes
Stroke or TIA in past (2)
Vascular disease
Sex category Female

Age > 75 is biggest risk factor

0 < 2% risk
1 < 3%
2 < 4%
3 < 6%
4 < 9%
5 < 13%
6 < 19%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bernoulli equation

A

Used to estimate pulmonary artery pressure by measuring the velocity of the TR jet

p = 4V^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Indications HCM interventions

A

Rx if syncope, NYHF symptoms 3-4 or LVOT gradient > 50mmHg

ICD indications
- FHx SCD
- LV or septal thickness > 30mm
- Cardiac arrest or VT
- NSVT > 3 beats
- Unexplained syncope, not post-exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Severe Mitral Stenosis

A

MVA < 1.5cm2
PAP > 50mmHg
Gradient > 10mmHg across valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mitral Stenosis balloon Valvuloplasty indications

A

Indicated for;
- Severe MS < 1.5cm
- Symptomatic NYHF 3-4
- Pliable valve, no clot, minimal MR

  • consider if asymptomatic but RVSP > 50 or new AF (class 2 indications)

Balloon Valvuloplasty contraindicated if;
- Non-pliable valve
- moderate MR
- Clot
- Combined aortic or tricuspid disease
- Requiring Bypass surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Indications MV surgery in MS

A
  • MV < 1.5cm
  • Symptomatic NYHF 3-4
  • Non-pliable valve, clot or MR which contraindicates balloon valvuloplasty
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Austin Flint murmur

A

Low pitched mid to late diastolic rumble AR jet impinges on the Anterior Mitral Valve leaflet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Severe AR

A

Valve > 0.6cm
Holodiastolic murmur indicative of flow reversal
Regurgitation volume > 60ml
Regurgitation fraction > 50%

Requires valve replacement If above, with symptoms, LVEF < 55% or indication for other valvular surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Features of Complete Heart Block

A

Cannon A waves
HR 30 - 50bpm
Syncope
Variable intensity of S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Murmurs

A

Systolic
- Aortic stenosis - ejection - mid systolic
- Mitral regurgitation, tricuspid - pansystolic
- Mitral prolapse - late systolic

Diastolic
Aortic regurgitation - early diastolic + Austin flint murmur
Pulmonary regurgitation - early diastolic
Mitral stenosis, tricuspid stenosis- holodiastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Murmurs

A

Aortic stenosis - mid ejection systolic crescendo, decrescendo
Mitral regurgitation - early or pansystolic
Tricuspid regurgitation -early or pansystolic
VSD - Pansystolic
Mitral valve prolapse - late systolic
Tricuspid valve prolapse - late systolic

Aortic regurgitation - Early diastolic
Pulmonary regurgitation - Early diastolic
Mitral stenosis - Holodiastolic
Tricuspid stenosis - Holodiastolic
Atrial Myxoma - Late diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

NYHA classification

A

Class 1; no limitation of physical activity
Class 2; Slight limitation of physical activity
Class 3 - Marked limitation of physical activity
Class 4 - Unable to carry out any physical activity, breathlessness at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Graham Steell Murmur

A
  • Murmur of pulmonary regurgitation
  • Early diastolic murmur
  • due to a high velocity flow back across the pulmonary valve a consequence of pulmonary hypertension secondary to mitral valve stenosis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Management HCM

A
  • Beta blockade
  • Non-dihydropuridine CCB
  • Avoid Nitrates and EtOH
  • Septal reduction therapy
  • Disopyramide - Na channel blocker (Class 1a)
  • Septal ablation
  • Myectomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Kussmaul’s sign VS. Pulsus paradoxus

A

Kussmauls - Elevation of JVP on inspiration due to poor RV filling.
eg. constrictive pericarditis, cardiac tamponade

Pulsus paradoxes; BP decreases > 10mmHg with inspiration eg. Cardiac tamponade, constrictive pericarditis, severe COPD, asthma, tension PTX, PE, large bilateral pleural effusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Brugada criteria for VT

A
  • Concordance in precordial leads
  • Absence of RS complex in all precordial leads
  • R to S interval > 100s in any precordial lead
  • AV disassociation
  • Morphology of VT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Most common acquired valve disease?

A

Aortic stenosis

29
Q

Long QT Syndrome

A

Sex - Exercise - Type 1 - increased amplitude (KCNQ1); Beta blockers most protective

Orgasm - Excitement, alarmed - Type 2 - low amplitude (KCNQ2/HERG)

Sleep - Resting, shortens with exercise - Type 3 - normal T wave but long isoelectric ST segment (gain of function SCN5a (Brugada is loss of function))

30
Q

SCN5A

A

Gain of function gene in Type 3 Long QT syndrome
Loss of function gene in Brugada

31
Q

Diagnosis HCM

A
  • LV > 15mm
  • Septum 1.3 x thickness posterior free wall
32
Q

Origin of arrhythmias

A

Atrial Flutter - Tricuspid annulus
Idiopathic VT - RVOT
Atrial fibrillation - Pulmonary veins
AVNRT - Kochs triangle
WPW - Bundle of Kent

33
Q

Indications for MV repair in MR

A

PRIMARY

MV > 0.7
Symptomatic
LVEF < 60%

SECONDARY
Severe symptoms despite GDMT

34
Q

Severity AS

A

Severe

< 1cm (< 0.6cm if corrected fro BSA)
Mean gradient > 40
Aortic Velocity > 4

If symptomatic and severe - for AVR/TAVI

Mod
1.0 - 1.5cm
Mean gradient 20 - 40
Velocity 3-4

Mild
> 1.5
Mean gradient < 20
Velocity 2.6 - 2.9

Aortic sclerosis - velocity < 2.5

35
Q

Pseudo severe AS

A

Low-flow low gradient (AS severity is overestimated due to incomplete opening of the valve secondary to loss of LV systolic function)
Valve < 1.0 cm
Gradient < 40
LVEF < 40

Paradoxical low flow low gradient
Valve < 1.0
Gradient < 40
LVEF > 50 but with reduced stroke volume < 35ml/min

Pseudo severe AS
Valve >1.0
Gradient < 40

Can be tested with Dobutamine Stress Test which will increase valve opening

36
Q

Indications for AVR in AR

A

Severe AR with valve > 0.6cm and holodiastolic flow reversal > 60ml
Surgery if;
If symptomatic
If asymptomatic - LVEF < 55%

37
Q

PCSK9 inhibitors

A

PCSK9 is a protein that targets LDL receptors for degradation and its inhibition thereby means there are more LDL receptors on the livers surface to bind LDL and remove it from our system. liver’s ability to remove LDL-C

Evolocumab
Alirocumab

  • Reduces LDL by 50-60% even if already on statin therapy
  • Reduce reoccurrence of MI
38
Q

Ezetimibe

A

Inhibits cholesterol absorption from gut by blocking via NPC1L1

39
Q

Inclisiran

A

Inhibits hepatic synthesis of PCSK9 to reduce cholesterol (rather than blocking action in PCSK9 inhibitors)

40
Q

FFR

A

FFR < 0.8 indicates haemodynamic significant obstruction

41
Q

TIMI flow grade

A

0 - no perfusion
1 - penetration without perfusion
2 - partial reperfusion
3 - normal flow

42
Q

Ticagrelor side-effects

A

B’s!

Breathlessness
Bleeding
Block (can precipitate ventricular pauses so do not use in first or second degree heart block)
Bradycardia
BD dosing

43
Q

Indications ICD or CRT-D

A

ICD
- Sustained VT with or without arrest
- EF < 35% on GDMT
- Must be > 40 days after MI

CRT-D
- NYHF III
- EF < 35% on GDMT
- LBBB
- QRS > 100
- Must be in sinus rhythm

44
Q

Beta blockers in stable angina

A

Decreased myocardial demand (rather than increased coronary flow)

45
Q

Beta Blockers

A

Beta 1 selective - Metoprolol, Atenolol, Nebivolol (has nitric oxide vasodilatory effects)
Beta 1 + Alpha 1- Carvedilol (evidence of improvement in HF)
Non-selective - Propanolol, Sotalol

46
Q

Treatment RHD

A

Treatment must be started within 9 days of strep throat

Stat IM benpen

Oral BD dosing Penicillin V for strep pharyngitis

Treatment should be started within 9 days of symptom onset for patients with Strep pharyngitis to avoid rheumatic heart disease
Aspirin for arthritis

47
Q

Jones criteria

A

Major
Polymigratory arthritis
Carditis
Nodules (subcutaneous)
Erythema marginatum
Syndenham criteria

Minor
- Arthralgia
- prolonged PR interval
- Fever
- Elevated CRP/ESR

48
Q

RHD investigations

A

Anti-streptolysin antibody (sensitivity improved when combined with Anti-DNAse B)
Anti-DNAse - B
Poor diagnostic yield from throat swabs
NO screening for asymptomatic family members

Chorea is self limiting

49
Q

Indications for CABG

A

LM disease
3-vessel disease
2-vessel disease with LAD involvement or LVEF < 50%

50
Q

Indications for PCI in stable angina

A
  • Proximal LAD/LM disease
  • FFR < 80
  • Stenosis > 90%
  • EF < 35% secondary to IHD
  • > 10% ischaemia LV
51
Q

Biomarkers Timeline

A
52
Q

Sgarbossa Criteria

A
  • ST elevation 1mm in 2 x concordant leads with positive QRS
  • ST depression 1mm in leads V1-3
  • ST elevation > 25% S wave in leads with negative QRS complex
53
Q

Contraindications to Thrombolysis

A
  • BP > 180/100
  • Anticoagulation use
  • GI/GU bleeding in 4 weeks
  • Stroke or TIA within 12 months
  • AV malformation
  • Recent surgery
  • Bleeding diathesis
  • Head trauma in 3 months
54
Q

High Lateral STEMI

A

Occlusion first diagonal branch LAD
South African Flag sign;
- STE I, AvF, V2
- STD III
Relies on preload and require fluid resuscitation and avoidance of nitrates!

55
Q

TIMI score - risk stratification NSTEMI

A

PCI within 24hrs if high risk
PCI within 72 hrs if medium risk

AMERICA

Age > 65
Markers elevated
ECG changes
Risk factors (HTN, FHx, High cholesterol, DM, Smoking)
Ischaemia (2 or more episodes of angina in 24hrs)
CAD with known lesions > 50%
Aspirin within 7 days

56
Q

Disease association with SCAD

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

57
Q

Becks Triad

A

Cardiac Tamponade

  • Distended Neck Veins
  • Muffled Heart Sounds
  • Hypotension

Electrical Alternans; 2: 1 ratio of alternating QRS
Pulses Paradoxus; drop in BP > 10mmHg with inspiration

58
Q

S4

A

Atrial Gallop caused by left atria contracting against a stiff LV which forces blood through the mitral valve - S4 is produced by the blood striking the non-compliant left ventricle.

59
Q

Indications MVR in MR

A

For primary MR

Valve > 0.7cm
Symptomatic
LVEF < 60%

For secondary MR (i.e. RHD)

Must try GDMT -> then can consider MVR

60
Q

Sokolow Criteria

A

For LVH
S wave in V1 or V2 > 35mm PLUS R wave in V5 or 6 > 35mm (7 large boxes)

61
Q

Types of cardiac amyloidosis

A

Acquired monoclonal immunoglobulin light chain - AL - associated with MM and peri orbital purpura. Rapidly progressive.

Heriditary Transthyretin-related form, mutant type - ATTRm - mutation of transthyretin protein synthesised in liver. Rx Liver transplant. Common in African americas

Non-mutant, wild-type transthyretin-related (senile amyloid)- ATTRwt - wild-type mutation in elderly males with cardiac deposition. Associated with carpal tunnel syndrome.

62
Q

Types of AF

A

Paroxysmal AF - 48 hours to 7 days
Persistent - > 7 days, or requires cardio version to terminate
Permanent - when no further attempts made to achieve sinus rhythm

63
Q

Dabigatran (Pradaxa)

A
  • Absorbed as a pro-drug
  • Direct Thrombin inhibitor
  • Reversed by Idarucizumab (Praxbind)
  • Absorbed and re-absorbed in gut by p-glycoprotein -> drugs that inhibit P-glycoprotein will increase plasma concentrations
  • 85% renally excreted (contraindicated in renal impairment)
  • High rate dyspepsia

Inhibitors of the P-glycoprotein transporter can increase plasma concentrations
“Azoles”
Protease inhibitors
Macrolides
Calcineurin inhibitiors
Amiodarone
Verapamil

Potentiators of P-glycoprotein will decrease plasma concentrations
Rifampicin
Carbemazepine
Phenytoin

64
Q

Class 1 indication PPM

A
  • Type 3 AV Block
  • Mobitz 1 or 2 with symptoms
  • Mobitz type 2 with wide QRS
  • Exercise induced second or third degree AV block
65
Q

Arythmogenic RV dysplasia

A

Two Major or One Major and two minor

Major criteria
- RV dysfunction
- Fibrofatty infiltrate of tissue
- Epsilon waves

Minor criteria
- Mild RV dysfunction
- TWI V2-3 without RBBB
- Frequent PVCs
- VT with LBBB

66
Q

Anti-arrythmics

A

Class 1, work at phase 0
1a - Na+ and K+ channel inhibitors - prolongs action potential and refractory periodn- Moderate Na blocker
1b - Inactive Na+ channel inhibitors - shortens action potential and refractory period - weak Na blocker (lidocaine for VT)
1c - Active Na+ channel inhibitors - No effect on length of action potential - strong Na blocker

Class 2
Beta blockers - work at phase 4 action potential

Class 3
K+ blockers - prolong action potential and refractory period, work at phase 3

Class 4
Non-dihydropyridine - Verapamil and Diltizem, negative inotropic effect, work at stage 2

67
Q

Treatment of high cholesterol

A

Statins - inhibit HMG-CoA to reducer endogenous production of cholesterol

Ezetimibe - inhibit NPC1L1 to decrease intestinal reabsorption of cholesterol

Fenofibrates - Activates PPAR-alpha - to increase synthesis of HDL and induce lipolysis of TAGS

Evolocumab/Alirocumab - PCSK9 inhibitors - inhibit resorption of LDL receptor on liver surface to increase LDL uptake

68
Q

Non-cyanotic Congenital heart disease

A
  • ASD with epsteins anomaly - large RA with displaced tricuspid valve and small RV leading to arrhythmias and commonly WPW. Most common ASD is Secondum - can be treated percutaneous. Others require surgery (Ovale, Venosus, Coronary sinus)
  • VSD
  • Patent Ductus arteriosus - leads to LVH and infantile heart failure
  • Pulmonary stenosis - Williams syndrome - growth retardation, star pattern in eyes, widely spaced teeth.
    Noonans syndrome - short stature, distinctive facial features, postpartum oedematous limbs, Rash, developmemental delay
  • Aortic stenosis/coarctation aorta - requires Ross procedure
69
Q

Cyanotic Heart disease

A
  • Tetrology of Fallot; RV hypertrophy, VSD, Overarching Aorta, Pulmonary stenosis
  • Translocation of Great Arteries; TGA-D, Aorta from RV - not compatible with life unless coexisting PDA or PFO, TGA-L - complete translocation of ventricles with VSD - requires Fontan procedure - bypass right side of heart and SVC drains into pulmonary artery