Cardiology Flashcards
Tx for stable bradycardia
observe and monitor
tx for unstable bradycardia
atropine
only 2 shockable rhythms
v. fib
pulseless V. tach
tx for wide QRS tachycardia
amiodarone
lidocaine
procainamide (WPW)
tx for narrow complex QRS tachycardia
adensosine
CCB/BB
tx for symptomatic motiz I
atropine
tx for mobitz 2
atropine
temporary pacing
tx for 3rd dregree heart block
permanent pacemaker
tx for atrial flutter
vagal
BB
CCB
definitive = ablation
rate control meds for a fib
BB
CCB
digoxin
rhythm control for atrial fib
defib
ablation
Meds = amiodarone
tx for paroxysmal supravent tachy (narrow vs wide)
Narrow = vagals, adenosine Wide = amio, procainamide (WPW)
WAP definition
HR <100
>3 P wave morphologies
MAT definition
HR >100
>3 P wave morphologies
WPW has a ___ wave which is an accessory pathway call the ______
delta
bundle of kent
Lown-ganong-levine syndrome is a (short/long) PR interval with ___ QRS complex
short
normal
AV junctional dysrhythmias have P waves that are __ or ___
inverted or not seen
brugada syndrome has sT elevations in V1-V3 that have a (downslope/upslope) pattern
downsloping
IV nitro and morphine are contraindicated in what 2 MIs
Inferior and Right sided
systolic HF has a __ gallop, diastolic has a ___ gallop
S3
S4
MC cause of acute pericarditis
TX?
viral (enteroviruses –> coxsackie, echovirus)
NSAIDs
a pericardial knock should make you think of what?
contrictive pericarditis (sudden cessation of ventircular filling)
MC cause of myocarditis (what medication?)
viral (enterovirus –> coxsackie, echovirus)
also: clozapine
how do you dx myocariditis?
Tx?
bx
supportive (systolic HF meds), maybe IVIG
MC cause of restrictive cadriomyopathy
amyloidosis
___ causes rheumatic fever
GABHS
what is the major criteria for rheumatic fever
J - joint (migratory polyarthritis) O - Oh my heart (carditis) N - Nodules E - erythema marginatum S - sydenhams criteria
tx for rheumatic HF
aspirin (maybe corticosteroids)
Pen G
Erythromycin is PCN allergic
increased venous return (increases/decreases) all murmurs
Decreased venous return (increases/decreases) all murmurs
increase
decrease
maneuvers to increase venous retun
squat, leg raise, lay down
maneuvers to decrease venous retun
valsalva, stand
inspiration increases (Left/right) murmurs
right
expiration decreases (left/right murmurs)
left
what murmurs increase with handgrip?
decrease?
increase = AR, MR decrease = AS, MVP, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
what anti-HTN meds are best with gout pts
CCB losartan (doesnt cause hyperuricemia)
1st line meds for HTN emergency if the EOD is primarily neuro
nicardipine
labetalol
1st line meds for HTN emergency if the EOD is primarily cardio
BB
Nitro
what valve and organism is MC involved in infective endocarditis
mitral
strep viridan
what valve and organism is MC involves in IVD users
trisupid
stap aureus
acute bacterial endocarditis is typically caused by ___ organism
Tx?
Staph aureus
naficillin + gentamicin
subacute bacterial endocarditis is MC caused by what organism?
Tx?
strep viridans
PCN/ampicillin + gentamicin
prosthetic valves with endocarditis are caused by what organism?
Tx?
staph aureus
Vancomycin + Gent + rifampin
what meds are used for endocarditis prophylaxis?
PEN allerigic?
amoxicillin
clindamycin
what is cilostazol used for?
intermittent caudication in peripheral arterial dz
best initial test for AAA is ___. If it is a thoracic aneurysm use ___. ___ is gold standard
U/S
CT
angiography
suspect ___ if pt is a smoker and has superficial migratory thrombophlebitis + distal extremity ischemia + raynauds phenomenon
Tx?
thromboangiitis obliterans
stop smoking
CCB for raynauds
how long to tc a pt with DVT if..
- 1st event and cause is reversible or time-limited
- 1st idiopathic event
- pregnancy or malignancy related
- at least 3 mo
- minimum 3 months
- lifelong
MOA = potentiates antithrombin III
heparin
heparin antidote
protamine sulfate
meds for postural hypotension
fludrocortisone
midodrine