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cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

give some examples of direct oral anticoagulants

A

apixiban
dabigatran
rivaroxaban
inhibit thrombin and Xa

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2
Q

what are DOACs used for?

A

direct oral anticoagulants used for extended thromboprophylaxis and treating AF and DVT, contraindicated in pregnancy.

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3
Q

what can cause right to left shunt?

A

truncus arteriosus
transposition of great vessels
tricsupid atresia
tetralogy of Fallot

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4
Q

what is Mobitz type 1?

A

2nd degree heart block where progressive lenthening of PR interval until a beat is dropped. Due to inferior MI, AVN damage

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5
Q

what is Mobitz type 2?

A

second degree heart block where pr interval is constant and it’s the QRS complex that’s dropped, failure of conduction through His Purkinje, due to anterior MI.

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6
Q

what is the difference between AF and atrial flutter

A

AF is disorganised firing irregularly irregular, with flutter there’s a re-entrant loop in the right atrium, it’s irregular

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7
Q

list the risk factors of IHD

A 
hypertension
lack of physical exercise
low fruit and veg intake
abdominal obesity
smoking
male
stress
alcohol consumption
ApoB/ApoI index
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8
Q

what are the 3 main symptoms of heart failure?

A

breathlessness
fluid retention-oedema
fatigue

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9
Q

what would you give to a black man or over 55 year old with hypertension?

A

calcium channel blocker, otherwise ACEi

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10
Q

give some signs of peripheral vascular disease

A

absent pulses
atrophic skin
punched out ulcers
prolonged capillary refill

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11
Q

give some causes of hypertension

A

renal artery stenosis
Cushing’s
Conn’s
phaechromocytoma, of the adrenal medulla

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12
Q

give some ECG features of pericarditis

A

widespread saddle shaped ST elevation

PR depression

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13
Q

what are the ECG features of LV hypertrophy

A

increased R waves in the left side leads I V4-6, aVL

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14
Q

what bacteria commonly cause IE?

A

Strep viridans

Strep pneumoniae

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15
Q

give some causes of bradycardia

A 
raised ICP
drugs Beta blockers, digoxin
cholestatic jaundice
hypothyroidism
acute ischaemia of SAN
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16
Q

what causes first degree heart block?

A

myocarditis

hypokalaemia

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17
Q

what are the features of WPW?

A

shortened PR interval
delta wave
narrow QRS

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18
Q

give some causes of AF

A

hypertension
hyperthyroidism
coronary artery disease

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19
Q

what drug is given to manage AVNRT or AVRT?

A

iv adenosine

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20
Q

what is the difference between first and second degree heart block?

A

in first degree, every p wave is also with a QRS complex, but in second degree, some QRS are lost

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21
Q

what is Wolff Parkinson White syndrome?

A

congenital AVNRT

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22
Q

how does hypertension lead to heart failure?

A

increased venous return leads to increased diastolic volume leads to increased preload

23
Q

what might a patient be offered if they have a high pre-test probability?

A

invasive angiography

24
Q

give some examples of GPII/IIIa inhibitors

A

tirofiban, abciximab, eptifibatide

25
Q

what are the 5 ps?

A 
the symptoms of acute limb ischaemia
pain
pallor
parasthesia
paralysis
perishingly cold
26
Q

what is the Fontaine classification

A 
severity of peripheral arterial disease
I asymptomatic
II intermittent claudication
III nocturnal or rest pain
IV necrosis/gangrene
27
Q

what is ABPI

A

ankle brachial pressure index

28
Q

define shock

A

when the cardiovascular system cannot supply adequate substrate for aerobic respiration to occur

29
Q

what is tetralogy of Fallot?

A

VSD
pulmonary stenosis
right ventricular hypertrophy
overriding aorta

30
Q

what kind of atrial septal defect is associated with AV valve defects?

A

ostium priumum

31
Q

give an example of a condition that causes right axis deviation

A

atrial septal defect

32
Q

which structural heart defect may follow an MI?

A

ventricular septal

33
Q

what is the treatment for tetralogy of Fallot?

A

If having a hypoxic spell then knee chest position, O2, morphine then long term beta blockers

34
Q

what is ventricular aneurysm?

A

where the wall of the ventricle bulges due to cell death from myocardial infarction

35
Q

what does heparin do?

A

activates antithrombin so less thrombin and factor Xa

36
Q

where is most sodium reabsorbed

A

proximal convoluted tubule

37
Q

where to thiazides work?

A

distal convoluted tubule bendroflumethiazide

38
Q

examples of loop diuretics

A

furosemide

bumetanide

39
Q

example of thiazide

A

bendroflumethiazide

40
Q

side effect of loop diuretic

A

AKI, gout, hypokalaemia

41
Q

side effect thiazide

A

hypokalaemia, alkalosis

42
Q

spironolactone side effect

A

hyperkalaemia, loss of libido

43
Q

how is preload reduced

A

vasodilation

44
Q

how is after load reduced

A

arteriodilation

45
Q

calcium channel blocker used for antihypertension

A

amlodipine

46
Q

inferior ECG leads

A

II
III
aVF

47
Q

anterior ECG leads

A

V2-V4

48
Q

what is the name of the PTH similar hormone?

A

parathyroid related protein

49
Q

what can be offered for angina in someone who cannot tolerate calcium channel blockers?

A

nicorandil (a potassium channel activator)

50
Q

what can be offered for angina in someone who cannot tolerate beta blockers?

A

ivabradine

51
Q

what drugs should be offered following an MI

A 
ACEi
anticoagulants (aspirin/NOAC)
antiplatelets (clopi/tica/praus)
beta blocker
statin
CCB
52
Q

in physiology where is hydrostatic pressure>(colloid osmotic and interstitial pressure)

A

across the arteries

53
Q

causes of non pitting oedema

A 
thyroid disease (if widespread hypo)
radiation
surgery
tumour
filaria

Pathology (21 decks)

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