Cardio Stuff Flashcards

1
Q

When does the heart start to develop in embryos?

A

4 weeks

  • first functional organ*
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2
Q

What does a defect in Dynein (as seen in kartagener syndrome) do to the developing heart?

A

Dextrocardia (inverses the heart)

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3
Q

Patent foramen ovale

A

Caused by a failure of septum primum and septum secundum to fuse after birth
- this is usually in response to increased LA pressure and decreased RA pressure when born, forming the atrial septum

Most are asymptomatic but can lead to paradoxical venous emboli entering arterial supply.

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4
Q

What is the most common congenital cardiac anomaly?

A

Ventricular septal defects

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5
Q

What does the truncus arteriosus and bulbous cordis correlate to in the adult heart respectively?

A

Ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk = TA

Outflow tracts of left/right ventricles = BC

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6
Q

What are the three shunts important to Embryo circulation

A

1) ductus venosus
- blood entering fetal bypasses hepatic portal system and enters directly in IVC.

2) foramen ovale
- highly oxygenated blood bypasses lungs and moves straight from RA -> LA

3) ductus arteriosus
- deoxygenated blood moves from pulmonary artery -> aorta via this duct (since lungs dont work yet)
- aorta -> placenta to pick up oxygen

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7
Q

What medication is given to close a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)?

A

Indomethacin
- best NSAID at blocking synthesis of PGE series specifically

high levels of PGE is responsible for PDAs

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8
Q

What prostaglandins cause a PDA if in high doses?

A

E1/2

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9
Q

How does the fetal circulation change into adult circulation at birth?

A

Once the baby comes out and takes first breath:

  • inflates lungs
  • decreases pulmonary resistance
  • increases LA pressure and decreases RA pressure (This closes foramen ovale)*
  • increases oxygen saturation
  • decreases prostaglandins due to maternal seperation (this causes the ductus arteriosus to shrivel and turn into ligamentum arteriosum)
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10
Q

Ortner syndrome

A

A syndrome caused by enlargement of the left atrium, causing impingement onto the esophagus and left recurrent laryngeal nerve
- causes spontaneous dysphagia, hoarseness/muteness, pain in the throat

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11
Q

What are the 3 layers of pericardium? What is the pericardium innervated by?

A

1) fibrous pericardium
2) parietal serous pericardium
* between 2/3 is where pericardial effusion occurs*
3) visceral serous pericardium

All 3 are innervated via phrenic nerve

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12
Q

What are the parts of the coronary artery circuit

A

Left anterior descending artery (LAD)

  • anterior 2/3 of IV septum
  • anterior 2/3 LV
  • LV papillary muscles

Posterior Descending artery (PDA)

  • AV node
  • posterior 1/3 of IV septum
  • posterior 2/3 of RV/LV
  • RV papillary muscles

Right coronary artery (RCA)

  • SA node
  • anterior 2/3 of RV
  • right atrium

Left circumflex artery (LCX)

  • posterior 1/3 LV
  • Anterior 1/3 LV
  • left atrium

Acute marginal artery

  • anterior 1/3 of RV
  • posterior 1/3 RV

coronary blood flow is primarily done in diastole

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13
Q

Cardiac output equation

A

CO = (Stroke volume) x (Heart rate)

Stroke volume: 
Increases 
- increasing contractility 
- increases preload 
- decreases afterload 
Decreases 
- everything opposite
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14
Q

What factors cause an increase in myocardial oxygen demand?

A

Increases contractility

Increases afterload

Increases heart rate

Increases diameter of the ventricle/ wall tension

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15
Q

What do each heart sounds correlate to?

A

S1 = mitral/tricuspid valve closure
- loudest at mitral area

S2 = aortic/pulmonary valve closure
- loudest at left upper sternal border

S3 = rapid ventricular refill

  • early diastole (after S2)
  • loudest at apex in Left lateral decubitus
  • can be abnormal (Mitral regurgitation/Atrial regurgitation/ Heart failure)
  • can be normal (children and athletes)

S4 = “atrial kick” due to increased atrial pressure

  • late diastole (before S1)
  • loudest at apex in left lateral decubitus
  • always abnormal (LV hypertrophy)
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16
Q

What are specific maneuvers used when determining heart murmurs and what effects do they have

A

1) Standing valsalva = decreases preload
- less blood rushing through heart)
- increases MVP/HOCM
- decreases all other murmurs

2) Passive leg raise (increases preload) and squatting (increases afterload and preload)
- more blood rushing through the heart
- increases all other murmurs
- decreases HOCM and MVP (moves the anomaly out of the way so it sounds normal)

3) handgrip (increase afterload)
- more pressure needed to push out blood on left side of heart
- increases left-sided murmurs (AR/MR/MVP/MS) EXCEPT AS
- decreases right-sided murmurs (TR/TS/PS/PR), HOCM and AS
* AS decreases because pressure gradient across value decreases since LV pressure is close to matching systemic pressure*

4) inspiration (increases preload to right heart, decreased preload to left heart)
- increases right-sided murmurs (TS/TR/PS/PR)
- increases left-sided murmurs (MS/MVP/AS/AR/MR/HOCM)

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17
Q

What are the two congenital long QT syndromes?

A

1) Romano-ward syndrome
- autosomal dominant
- causes NO deafness
- only causes prolonged QT segment

2) jervell and Lange-neilsen syndrome
- autosomal recessive
- causes deafness and prolonged QT segment

both cause loss-o-function in K+ ion channels of cardiac tissues, which predisposes to MIs and sudden cardiac death

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18
Q

Brugada syndrome

A

Autosomal dominant disorder which causes a pseudo-RBBB w/ ST elevations
looks kind of like a heart attack

High in Asian populations

Increases risks spontaneous torsades de points and ventricular tachycardia.
- need implantable ICD

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19
Q

Wolff-Parkinson white (WPW) syndrome

A
  • most common type of ventricular pre-excitation syndrome*
  • caused by accessory conduction pathway from the atria-> ventricle (called bundle of Kent)
  • this bundle of Kent allows an impulse to bypass the rate-limiting AV node = ventricles slowly begin to depolarize quicker causing a “delta wave” w/ widened QRS.

Increases chances of supraventricular tachycardia and ventricular tachycardia

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20
Q

What is physiological splitting of the S2 sound?

A

Increases in RV ejection time due to a drop in intrathoracic pressure from inspiration
- ONLY HEARD ON INSPIRATION

Also delays closure of the pulmonic value

Completely normal and okay

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21
Q

What is wide splitting of the S2 sound a sign of?

A

Delayed RV emptying into pulmonary system

  • RBBB
  • pulmonic stenosis
  • etc.

HEARD ONLY ON INSPIRATION

Is exaggerated physiological splitting of S2

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22
Q

What is a fixed splitting of S2 a sign of?

A

Atrial septal defects (usually a left -> right shunt)
- causes increased volume through the pulmonic valve = increases pulmonic valve closure time

is heard in both inspiration and expiration at the same intensity

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23
Q

Paradoxical splitting of the S2 sound is a sign of what?

A

Delayed aortic valve closure causing the semilunar valve to close before the aortic valve

  • AS
  • LBBB

CAN ONLY HEAR SPLIT ON EXPIRATION
- is not present on inspiration

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24
Q

What is the standard conduction pathway in a normal heart?

A

SA node -> atria -> AV node -> bundle of his -> bundle branches -> purkinje fibers -> ventricles

  • LBB divides into anterior and posterior fascicles, right only has 1*
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25
Q

Where is the SA node and AV node located

A

Between the RA and IVC = SA node

Posterior-inferior intraatrial septum = AV node

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26
Q

What is the order of speed of conduction through each part of the pathway (from fastest -> slowest)

A

Bundle of his = purkinje fibers > atria > ventricles > AV node

*SA generates the signal so conduction *

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27
Q

What does the presence of a U-wave usually indicated on a ECG?

A

Hypokalemia

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28
Q

How do you treat torsades de pointes?

A

Magnesium sulfate injections (IV)

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29
Q

Why does AAAs usually occur below the renal arteries (L2 segment)?

A

This area of the AAA lacks vasa vasorum, which makes the tunica media more susceptible to ischemia and therefore weakening of the vessels

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30
Q

What is the #1 highest risk factor for AAA aneurysms and dissections?

A

CAD/atherosclerosis

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31
Q

At what diameter is an AAA likely to rupture and needs immediate attention?

A

> 5cm

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32
Q

What are the common risk factors for TAAs?

A

HTN

Bicuspid aortic valve

Marfan/ehlos Danlos syndromes (connective tissue disorders)

Tertiary syphilis
- causes vasculitis in the vasa vasorum of the TA which can cause ischemia

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33
Q

Difference between Stanford type A/B dissections

A

Stanford type A:

  • hits ascending aorta @ sinotubular junction
  • treatment = surgery always (almost always ruptures)
  • often heads into the carotid artery or coronary arteries which causes strokes and MIs respectively

Stanford type B:

  • hits the left subclavian artery and descending aorta
  • treatment = surgery or BBs/CBBs (depending on severity)
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34
Q

Where is the most common site of traumatic aortic ruptures?

A

The aortic isthmus

  • located just after the left subclavian artery attachment
  • this is because it is tethered by the ligamentous arteriosum which easily breaks due to trauma
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35
Q

What are the three most common cyanotic congenital heart defects that are caused by outflow tract abnormalities

A

Persistent truncus arteriosus

Transposition of the great vessels

Tetralogy of Fallot

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36
Q

Persistent truncus arteriosus

A

Cyanotic congenital defect that is caused by failure of neural crest cells to travel to the bulbus cordis which prevents it to spiral and form both he aorta/pulmonary artery

Results in both pulmonary artery and aorta to receive deoxygenated blood

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37
Q

Transposition of the great vessels

A

No spiraling of the aorticopulmonary system occurs (bulbus cordis and truncus arteriosus)

Causes aorta -> right ventricle and pulmonary artery -> left ventricle
- oxygenated blood stays in the lung system where as deoxygenated blood stays in the systemic system.

requires a patent ductus arteriosus to stay open in order to keep infant alive for surgery

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38
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot

A

4 main defects in 1:

1) pulmonary stenosis
2) RV hypertrophy
3) VSD
4) over ridding aorta over VSD

Symptoms appear at different parts of life based on degree of pulmonary stenosis

  • the cyanosis especially is directly proportional to degree of pulmonary stenosis
  • this is why some patients are cyanotic right out of the womb, whereas others takes months to show cyanosis

*very heavily tied to degeroge syndrome (22q11)

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39
Q

What is eisenmenger syndrome?

A

Can be seen in any congenital heart defect that is untreated, but specifically tetralogy of Fallot gets it the most.

Caused when pressure in the right side of the heart gets so high that it exceeds LV pressure so deoxygenated blood moves into LV

  • under normal conditions, LV->RV
  • also shows pulmonary HTN and RV hypertrophy

Causes late cyanosis, clubbing and Polycythemia

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40
Q

What is a “tet spell”

A

A spasm of the infundibular septum seen in tetralogy of Fallot patients.

Some actions (feeding, eating, crying etc.) cause cyanotic spells in infants with tetralogy of Fallot since the spasm increases pulmonary stenosis for a moment = cyanosis

squatting down decreases the cyanosis and helps decrease the time frame of tet spell since squatting increases afterload

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41
Q

Total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVR)

A

A cyanotic congenital condition where pulmonary veins fuse somewhere along the right side of the heart instead of the left atrium while developing.

This induces a closed oxygenated circuit with the pulmonary system = cyanosis

requires an ASD to be present in order to survive and always shows pulmonary HTN

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42
Q

Tricuspid atresia

A

Malformation got he tricuspid valve during development causing either a fused shut tricuspid valve or no valve at all to be formed.

Incompatible with life (100% kill rate) UNLESS an ASD and a VSD are present as well.
- even in the best case scenario, still shows cyanosis due to RV atrophy.

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43
Q

What kinds of heart murmurs are present in cyanotic congenital heart defects?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

  • has a VSD
  • holosystolic heart murmur at left lower sternal border

TAPVR

  • has a ASD
  • systolic ejection murmur at Left upper sternal border

Transposition of great vessels and PDA

  • both have a PDA
  • continuous machine like murmur between scapula/infraclavicular

Tricuspid atresia

  • has both a VSD and ASD
  • both holosystolic and systolic ejection click murmurs
44
Q

What is an ebstein anomaly?

A

Idiopathic displacement of the tricuspid valve leaflets into the RV

Associated with tricuspid regurgitation, accessory conduction pathways and right sided HF.
- also prenatal lithium exposure

45
Q

What is the pathophysiology behind patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Stable PGE synthesis and low oxygen tension allows the patent ductus arteriosus to stay open

Normally would close at birth due to increased oxygen tension and disabling of PGE synthesis

46
Q

Pathophysiology of coarctation of the aorta

A

Aortic narrowing near the insertion of the ductus arteriosus

  • the physiology behind closing the PDA now occurs at the aorta
  • infantile form = before the ductus arteriosus insertion
  • adult form = after the ductus arteriosus insertion

Associated with

  • bicuspid aortic valve
  • Turner syndrome
  • cyanotic congenital heart defects

Symptoms:

  • over time enlarges intercostal arteries and erodes ribs appearance is notched ribs on XRay*
  • infantile form only = differential cyanosis
  • both forms = brachial-femoral delay BP

Increases odds of:

  • cerebral hemorrhages
  • aortic ruptures
  • endocarditis
  • heart failure
47
Q

What is Libman-Sacks endocarditis?

A

Endocarditis caused by systemic lupus erythematous
- also can be via any other autoimmune disorder that forms antigen-antibody complexes

antigen-antibody complexes bind and form vegetations on heart valves.
- called verrucous vegetations or “verrucae”

48
Q

Rank the valves in order of most likely to be affected by endocarditis

A

Mitral valve

Aortic valve

Tricuspid valve

Pulmonary valve

49
Q

What are the HÁČEK group of bacteria?

A

The following species and are normal flora in the mouth and throat

  • Haemophilus
  • Aggregatibacter
  • Cardiobacterium
  • Eikenella
  • Kingella

Can be causes of native valve endocarditis

50
Q

What are the different types of ANCA proteins

A

P-ANCA = autoantibodies against neutrophil myeloperoxidase

  • microscopic polyangitis (MPA)
  • Chung-Strauss (eosinophilic granulomatosis w/ polyangitis (GPA))

C-ANCA = autoantibodies against neutrophil proteinase-3
- Wegners (Granulomatosis w/ polyangitis (GPA))

51
Q

What is granulomatosis w/ polyangitis (GPA) often confused with?

A

Goodpasture syndrome

  • difference is there are NO UPPER RESPIRATORY TRACT SYMPTOMS in good pasture
  • there is in GPA though
52
Q

How to differentiate GPA from MPA?

A

MPA presents with NO NASOPHAYNGEAL SYMPTOMS (upper respiratory tract)

53
Q

What is the pathergy test?

A

A test used for Behcets syndrome diagnosis

Insert a blunt needle into the skin and look for papule/pustule or ulceration at the site of insertion within 24-48 hrs
- (+) = has behcets

54
Q

What are the infectious vasculitis?

A

1) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
- rickettsia rickettsii
- petechiae rash on hands/soles which spreads to trunk

2) Neisseria meningitidis infections
- meningitis w/ petechiae/purpura
- possible after house-friderichsen syndrome (infarction of adrenal glands)

3) syphilis
- spirochete treponema pallidum
- petechiae/skin chancre on genitals
- aortic anyeusms/ regurgitation

55
Q

What are the most common secondary causes for all 3 catagories of cardiomyopathies?

A

Amyloidosis

Hemochromatosis

Sarcoidosis

Radiation/chemotherapy treatment

56
Q

What is loffler endocarditis?

A

Restrictive infiltrative cardiomyopathy where eosinophilia causes eosinophils to infiltrate the cardiac tissue and causes fibrosis overtime

Diagnosed via diagnosing restrictive cardiomyopathy first and adding high eosinophil count and cardiac biopsy showing eosinophils in cardiac tissue

57
Q

What are the specific heart sounds for each category of cardiomyopathy?

A

Dilated and restrictive = S3 heart sound

Hypertrophic = S4 heart sound at apex of heart

58
Q

What medications are contraindicated in HOCM?

A

Dihysropyridine CBBs

Nitroglycerin

ACE inhibitors

Digitalis (positive inotropic agents)

59
Q

Type 1 hyperlipidemia (hyperchylomicronemia)

A

Autosomal recessive genetic disorder that causes a deficiency in lipoprotein lipase (LPL) and apoplipoprotein C2

Symptoms:

  • puritic xanthomas along the back and buttocks (Eruptive)
  • acute pancreatitis
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • creamy layer present on a fasting serum sample*
  • DOES NOT PRODUCE ATHEROSCLEROSIS*
60
Q

Type 2 hyperlipidemia (Familial Hypercholesterolemia)

A

Autosomal dominant disorder that results in an elevation of only LDL (type A) or both LDL and VLDL (type B).

  • both are caused by a defect or absence of Apo-B100 protein receptors on hepatocytes
  • defect or absence of Apo-B100 receptors causes hepatocytes to produce LDL de novo, increasing hypercholesterolemia

Symptoms:

  • CAD/ MIs very early in life (starting at 20 yers old)
  • Achilles tendon xanthomas
  • corneal Arcus

INCREASES DEVELOPING ATHEROSCLEROSIS

61
Q

Type 3 hyperlipidemia (familial dysbetalipoproteinemia)

A

Autosomal recessive disorder that results in a defective/absent apolipoprotein-E (ApoE)
- prevents uptake of VLDL from chylomicrons which leads to elevated VLDL and chylomicrons

Symptoms:
- similar to type 2 except the xanthomas are seen on the palm/hand tendons and skin

INCREASES CHANCES OF ATHEROSCLEROSIS

62
Q

Type 4 hyperlipidemia (familial hypertriglyceridemia)

A

Idiopathic disorder where the liver generates VLDL levels at high rates

  • lipoprotein activity is decreased as well, so the VLDL and chylomicrons is not broken down
  • also leads to triglyceride levels

symptoms:
- similar to type 2

VERY HIGH RISK OF EARLY ATHEROSCLEROSIS AND ACUTE PANCREATITIS

63
Q

Secondary causes of hyperlipidemia

A

Diabetes

Nephrotic syndrome

Hypothyroidism

Oral contraceptives,BBs and thiazides diuretics at high doses

64
Q

Abetalipoproteinemia

A

Most common cause of hyperlipidemia

Autosomal recessive defects that leads to a deficiency in Microsomal triglyceride transfer protein (MTPs) and both ApoB-48 and ApoB-100

Leads to low levels of VLDL, LDL, chylomicrons, triglycerides, cholesterol total.

Symptoms:

  • malabsorption of fat (steatorrhea, failure to thrive)
  • fat soluble vitamin deficiency symptoms
  • intestinal biopsy shows excess fats in cells

Treatment:
- decrease fat diet and vitamin E/A/D/K supplements

65
Q

What is the cut off for hypertension?

A

130/80 that is persistent over a period of time

66
Q

What is the cut off for both hypertensive emergency and urgency?

A

180/120

Urgency = no end organ failure/damage symptoms

Emergency = presence of end organ failure/damage symptoms

67
Q

What is the most common cause of constrictive pericarditis?

A

Idiopathic reasons of coxsackie B virus infections = low income

TB = high income

68
Q

What is kussmaul sign?

A

During inspiration jugular venous pressure rises instead of falls

Seen in constrictive pericarditis,

69
Q

What is the becks triad

A

Three clinical signs associated with pericardial tamponade

1) JVD
2) Hypotension
3) distant hear sounds on auscultation

70
Q

How to separate cardiac tamponade from tension pneumothorax?

A

Cardiac tamponade

  • silent heart sounds
  • symmetric chest wall expansion

Tension PNX:

  • normal heart sounds
  • asymmetric chest wall expansion
71
Q

What are the three parts of virchows triad?

A

Stasis blood flow

Hyper-coagulability state

Endothelial injury

  • three states that increase chances of DVTs/ clots to form*
72
Q

What is May-Thurner syndrome

A

A syndrome which results in the left iliac vein being compressed between right Iliac artery and the lumbar vertebrae
- very high chance to develop DVTs

Symptoms:
- similar to DVTs/PEs

Treatment: requires stent placement, normal anticoagulation therapy isn’t enough.

73
Q

Coronary steal syndrome

A

1 used vasodilator is dipyridamole

Mass coronary vessel dilation via administration of vasodilators.
- this is the syndrome that occurs during a pharmacological stress test for angina

Shows mass st depressions on ECGs

74
Q

What is acute coronary syndrome

A

Syndromes that are caused by disturbance to atherosclerotic plaques in the coronary arteries

Includes:

1) unstable angina
2) NSTEMI
3) STEMI

75
Q

What are the 3 populations of people who can present without angina during acute coronary syndrome?

A

Females
elderly >65yrs
Diabetic patients

instead they show with dyspnea, fatigue, dizziness

76
Q

What are the three key cardiac bio markers of cardiac cell death?

A

Troponin I and T

  • elevated 2-4 hrs after infarction
  • peaks 48 hrs
  • stays elevated for 7-10 days
  • most useful for diagnosing acute infarction
    • specific to heart

CK-MB

  • elevated 2-4 hrs after infarction
  • peaks 24 hrs
  • stays elevated for 48 hrs
  • most useful for diagnosing reinfarction
  • *not specific to heart
77
Q

Which leads show ST elevations in an anteroseptal MI?

A

V1/V2

The Left anterior descending artery (LAD) is the site of occlusion

78
Q

Which leads show ST elevations in an anteroapical MI?

A

V3/V4

the left anterior descending artery (LAD) is occluded

79
Q

Which leads show ST elevations in an anterolateral MI?

A

V5/V6

the left anterior descending artery (LAD) and/or the left circumflex artery (LCX) are occluded

80
Q

Which leads show ST elevations in an lateral MI?

A

1 and AVL

The left circumflex artery (LCX) is occluded

81
Q

Which leads show ST elevations in an inferior MI?

A

2/3/AVF

The right coronary artery (RCA) is occluded

** also often presents with epigastric abdominal pain instead of chest pain **

82
Q

Which leads show ST depressions in an posterior MI?

A

V1/V2/V3

  • the posterior descending artery (PDA) is occluded*

** also will show peaked r-waves **

83
Q

What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death?

A

> 35 yrs old = ventricular arrhythmias (V. FIB)

<35 yrs old = HOCM

84
Q

What is the time cutoff for reversible reperfusion therapy to work on an infarction?

A

30 minutes

85
Q

Reperfusion injury

A

Is not fully known but is believed to be caused by a to quick influx of calcium in damaged cardiac myocytes, causing them to strongly contract and rupture/ cant relax and under go necrosis
- also oxygen returning might expose damaged cardiac myocytes to ROS species further enhancing damage

Must not rush the reperfusion in order to slow this down as best as possible.

86
Q

How many readings on how many visits are required to diagnose someone with HTN?

A

2 separate readings on separate visits at minimum

  • HTN diagnosis requires persistent HTN to be present
  • also eliminates “white coat HTN” as a possibility
87
Q

What is conn syndrome?

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism and is a cause of 2nd HTN

Caused by hyperplasia or tumors in the adrenal glands that release too much aldosterone and results in low renin levels.

Signs:

  • aldosterone: renin ratio is high ( >35)
  • hypokalemia
  • metabolic acidosis

Symptoms:

  • muscle spasms/weaknesses
  • low back/flank pain
  • paresthesia/tingling
  • excessive urination
  • stroke/MIs
88
Q

What is Cushing syndrome?

A

A 2nd cause of HTN

Due to a tumor in the adrenal glands or pituitary gland or over medicated on corticosteroids (prednisone, etc.)

Causes increased cortisol levels in blood and increased ACTH levels

Signs:

  • hyperglycemia
  • high BP
  • high ACTH
  • high cortisol

Symptoms:

  • hyperplasia of supraclavicular fat pads (“buffalo hump”)
  • “moon facies”
  • truckload obesity
  • abdominal striae present
  • increased hair in women
  • headaches/malaise
89
Q

What is the most common cause of isolated systolic HTN?

A

Aging of the aorta

90
Q

What is Cushing triad?

A

A cause of 2nd HTN

Caused by increased ICP which triggers the CNS to increase arterial pressure to overcome the increased ICP.
- is often the 1st sign of acute increased ICP

Symptoms: Classic triad

  • bradycardia
  • HTN with a very wide pulse pressure
  • chyne-stokes breathing pattern
91
Q

How can you tell HTN retinopathy on a fundus exam?

A

Dot/flame-shaped hemorrhages throughout retina

Arteriovenous nicking throughout retina

Silver/copper wiring appearance of arteries (light up due to being occluded) throughout retina

92
Q

What HTN drugs should be used in patients with HTN and heart failure?

A

ACEIs

ARBs

Aldosterone antagonists

BBs (NOT in decompensated HF)

93
Q

What what HTN drugs to use with patients with HTN and diabetes?

A

ACEIs (especially)

ARBs (especially)

Thaiazide diuretics

Dihydropyridine

BBs (watch for hypoglycemia)

94
Q

What HTN drugs to use with patients with HTN and asthma?

A

ARBs

Thazide diuretics

Dihydropyridine

Cardioselective BB (can only target B2)

no ACE since it almost always causes coughing

95
Q

What HTN drugs should be used in patients with HTN and pregnancy

A

Hydralazine

Methyldopa

Labetalol

Nifedipine

”Hypertensive Moms Love Nifedipine”

96
Q

Describe the embryology physiology behind atria Seperation in neonates

A

1) septum primum begins to form as a long out pouch of membranous tissue from the top of the single atria
2) septum primum moves down towards endocardial cushion until a could centimeters from closure (the hole left is called Ostium primum)
3) septum primum then fuses with endocardial cushion and closes the ostium primum. At the same time, a hole appears spontaneously in the septum primum called the osteum Secundum.
4) a second out pouch of membranous tissue just lateral to the septum primum forms called the septum secundum and grows to cover the osteum Secundum, but not enough to form a seal, so blood can shunt from the right -> left normally in neonate form
5) at birth, during the first neonate breath, the septum Secundum slams shut on the osteum secondum and fuses with the septum primum to form the atrial septum.
4) septum Secundum grows to c

97
Q

What is a cryptogenic stroke?

A

A stroke caused by paradoxical emobil in a patient with a ASD/patient foramen ovale.

Emboli starts in venous system, and crosses into arterial system instead of pulmonary system via the ASD/ PFO.

98
Q

In what congenital heart defects can differential cyanosis be seen?

A

Infantile form of Coarctation of the aorta

Patent ductus arteriosus

99
Q

What is the ankle brachial index test (ABI)?

A

A diagnostic test used to determine PAD diagnosis

Take ankle systolic BP measurement and brachial systolic BP measurement

normal ankle BP/brachial BP ratio = 1.0

Positive PAD ankle BP/brachial BP ratio = <0.9

100
Q

What is cilostazol?

A

A phosphodiesterase inhibitor that is used as 1st line therapy for PAD.

Dilated arteries and acts as an anti-platelet. Usually taken with asprin co-comittently

101
Q

What are non-atherosclerotic causes of Peripheral artery disease (PAD)?

A

Thromboangitis Obliterans (Burgers syndrome)

Popliteal artery aneurysms

Atrial fibrillation

102
Q

What are differential diagnosis of Peripheral artery disease?

A

1) DVT
- shows leg swelling. Erythema and pain which is not usually seen in PAD

2) lumbar spinal stenosis
- shows NORMAL peripheral pulses and ankle-brachial index tests, not seen in PAD
- also shows back pain is relieved with flexion of the back and worsens with extension of the back (neither is seen in PAD)

103
Q

What is the general pathology behind an AV heart block?

A

The delayed signal between the AV note and bundle of His that allows for the ventricle to fill before contraction is delayed too much

104
Q

What type of MI is most heavily associated with type 3 heart block formation?

A

Inferior MI
- occluded the Right coronary artery (RCA)

RCA has a small branch that supplies the AV node

105
Q

Myxoma

A

Most common primary cardiac tumor in adults
- is made up of connective tissues and gelatinous material made up of glycosaminoglycans

90% are found in the atria with 70% of the 90% being in the left atrium

Are “ball valve” tumors in that they obstruct the mitral valve
- associated with multiple episodes of syncope

Can show “tumor plop” murmur as an early diastolic murmur sometimes

Fever and weight loss are also symptoms since the tumor promotes IL-6 production

Diagnosis = TEE imaging

106
Q

Cardiac rhabdomyoma

A

Most common primary cardiac tumor in children
- benign hyperplastic growth of cardiac muscle

  • Very heavily associated with tuberous sclerosis*
  • will show adenoma sebaceous lesions throughout the skin
107
Q

Are most cardiac tumors primary or secondary?

A

Secondary via metastasis