Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Boards > Cardio Anderson > Flashcards

Cardio Anderson Flashcards

1
Q

What does the IVS come from

A

endocardial cushions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

25% of all ventricular septal defects occur in the

A

membranous portion due to the complexity of fusing three separate components together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

tetralogy of fallot

A

VSD, dextroposed aorta overriding the VSD, pulmonic stenosis, RV hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

IVS defect

A

most common congenital defect, may have asymptomatic holosystolic murmur or CHF, increased risk of endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

bicuspid aortic valve

A

formed in two cusps as opposed to three, may lead to aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where is the SA node

A

wall of Rt Atrium at SVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

where is the AV node

A

Septal wall of Rt. Atrium near coronary sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what valves close to form S1

A

mitral and tricuspid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what valves close to form S2

A

aortic and pulmonic valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is between S1 and S2

A

systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is between S2 and S1

A

diastole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where is a regurgitant sound during systole

A

tricuspid or bicuspid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

where is a stenotic sound during systole

A

aortic or pulmonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where is a regurgitant sound during diastole

A

aortic or pulmonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where is a stenotic sound during diastole

A

tricuspid or bicuspid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

right and left coronary arteries fill during

A

diastole…right carries more blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what does the right coronary artery supply

A

right ventricle and posterior left ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what does the left coronary artery supply

A

divides into two main branches and feeds the anterior and lateral portions of the left ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ischemic heart Dz

A

reduced coronary flow due to athersclerotic narrowing of coronary vessels and/or thrombosis, also may be due to coronary artery spasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

acute bacterial endocarditis

A

destructive, severe infection in normal heart valves, virulent organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

subactue bacterial endocarditis

A

insidious course, previously abnormal heart, often microbes of low virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

rheumatic heart Dz (everything plus what histologically)

A

secondary myocarditis, children following group A beta hemolytic strep infection, autoimmune… Aschoff Bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

mitral valve prolaspe

A

most common valve disease, valve leaflets prolapse into atria during systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

calcific aortic stenosis

A

aortic semilunar valve becomes calcified, creating decreased aortic flow and increased left ventricular pressure, MC due to calcification of a congenitally bicuspid aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
bacterial myocarditis
staph, strep, corynebacterium diptheria...flabby ventricular myocardium, four chamber dilation, endocardium and valves unaffacted, may be symptomatic or get CHF
26
viral myocarditis
most common myocardial disease, cardiac involvement occurs a few weeks after primary vire infection at another site...Coxsacki B, flu, CMV, ECHO
27
parasitic myocarditis
toxoplasmosis, Trypansosoma cruzi, Trichinosis
28
Immune Origin Myocarditis
SLE, Scleroderma
29
Dilated Cardiomyopathy
most common, young adults, very enlarged heart with R & L heart failure
30
Restrictive Cardiomyopathy
decreased distensibility, decreased output...primary is rare with young onset but secondary could be from Pompe's, Hurlers, Sarcoidosis and Hemochromotosis
31
Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
idiopathic hypertrophic subacute stenosis, outflow is restricted from left ventricle and wall of left ventricle hypertrophies
32
hemopericardium
blood in pericardial sac, causes tamponade and death may occur
33
pericarditis
can lead to pericardial fibrosis, leads to cardiac hypertrophy & dilation...constrictive pericarditis = no hypertrophy dt constriction --> cardiac failure
34
effusion
any fluid beyond the normal 30-50 ml found in pericardial space
35
metastatic disease of heart is mostly from
lung tumors
36
what does the right vagus nerve do to the heart
slows frequency (sinus node)
37
what does the left vagus nerve do to the heart
slows conduction (AV node) and decreases force of contraction (atria not ventricles)
38
what does sympathetic innervation do to the heart
increases frequency, conduction, and force of contraction (atria and ventricles)
39
polyarteritis nodosa
necrotizing inflammation of small/medium arteries
40
temportal arteritis
vasculitis, small and medium cranial vessels especially temporal
41
thromboangitis obliterans/Buerger's
men, heavy smokers, gangrene, inflammation of arteries of extremities
42
Raynaud's dz
vasospasm
43
Raynaud's Phenomenon
arterial narrowing secondary to SLE, scleroderma, atherosclerosis, or Buergers
44
Aneurysms
localized dilation of vessel lumen, true means that the walls are intact
45
Aortic Dissection
lumen of aorta dissects due to pressure and loss of patency
46
Kaposi Sarcoma
associated with HIV, purple/black papules that may scale, probably from HHV 8, metastatic and dangerous
47
hemangioma
capillary and cavernous types. capillary type is benign...cavernous type found on head and neck and are larger,could be associated with Lindau von Hipple
48
difference between heme and non-heme (free) iron
heme has unregulated uptake and is from animal sources. non-heme is essentially rust and has to use transferrin for uptake
49
free iron uptake is blocked by
high plasma Fe, phytates, tannins, oxylates, phosphates
50
Ferrous
Fe 2+
51
Ferric
Fe 3+
52
Lactoferrin
sequestering agent in blood, used when infection active to keep Fe from bacteria
53
how is hemoglobin broken down
to biliverdin, then to unconjugated bilirubin, then that is acted on by UDP glucoronide which turns it into conjugated bilirubin or into sterco/uro bilin
54
what are the two original substances that eventually make hemoglobin
succinyl coA and glycine which are put together using ALA synthetase
55
R form of heme
relaxed, Hb has 4 open O2 sites
56
T form of heme
Taut, Hb has no oxygen...taken after O2 dumping at peripheral sites, 2-3-BPG stabilizes
57
what binds oyxgen tighter, myoglobin or hemoglobin
myoglobin, only releases O2 under low O2 situations. in muscle
58
what stimulates the dumping of oxygen
increased acidity/CO2, increased temperature, 2,3-BPG (needed to move O2 off Hb)
59
what is the major form of CO2 for transport
HCO3-
60
what is the Bohr effect and what enzyme is used on both ends
changes CO2 to various forms to balance acidity, carbonic anhydrase is used
61
what two things always work together during methylation
folate and B12
62
most common reason for hemolytic anemia and what histological sign is associated
G-6-PD deficiency, Heinz bodies
63
iron deficiency anemia
most common, hypochromic/microcytic, could see upper esophageal webs (Pummer Vinson)
64
pernicious anemia
megaloblastic/macrocytic, could be from loss of parietal cells and IF or from B12 deficiency
65
alpha thalassemia
4 genes for alpha chains...more is worse.
66
beta thalassemia
2 genes for beta chain, homozygotes are worse
67
both thalassemias show what histologically
teardrop cells, basophilic stippling, target cells...hypochromic/microcytic
68
polycythemia vera
myeloproliferative dz, high Hgb, viscous blood treated with phlebotomy
69
multiple myeloma
lytic lesions, plasma cells, hypercalcemia..bence jones proteins in urine
70
Acute Lyphoblastic Leukemia
most common leukemia and cancer in children
71
Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia
most common leukemia in adults 15-39, auer rods
72
Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
25-60, philadelphia chromosome, may include any cells line
73
Chromic Lymphocytic Leukemia
most common overall leukemia and most common after 60, well differentiated B-cell, more in males
74
Hairy Cell Leukemia
B cells with hair like projections, middle aged men
75
what stimulates the intrinsic pathway of clotting
blood trauma or collagen and blood contact
76
what stimulate the extrinsic clotting pathway
damage outside of blood vessels
77
what measures the intrinsic pathway
PTT
78
what measures the extrinsic pathway
Pt/INR
79
heparin acts on which clotting pathway
intrinsic
80
warfarin, ASA, vit E, and EFAs work on what pathway
extrinsic
81
Poiseuille's Equation
about resistance in the blood vessels, thicker the blood the greater the resistance
82
Hemophilia A
factor VIII def., sex-linked recessive, males show it and females carry it, spontaneous bleeding into joints
83
Hemophilia B/Christmas Dz
Factor IX, male only with female carrier
84
Von Villebrand's
autosomal dominant, VWF needed for platelet clumping, needed for factor VIII activity, prolonged bleeding time and PTT in these people but normal platelet numbers
85
Vit K dependent factors
II, VII, IX, X, protein C
86
thrombocytopenia
too few platelets, below 70k
87
if arterial pressure decreases due to hemorrhage, what does the baroreceptor reflex do
causes increases sympathetic outflow...renin system and hydrostatic systems will also work to increase arterial pressure
88
if a hemorrhage causes greater than 20% blood volume lost it can cause
hemorrhagic (hypovolemic) shock
89
transudate edema
protein poor, found in edema secondary to alterations in starlings forces
90
exudate edema
protein rich, found in acute inflammatory states
91
interstitial edema
pitting edema
92
anasarca
generalized edema
93
infarction
localized area of necrosis resulting from circulatory insufficiency within an organ or tissue...nearly all due to thrombi or emboli
94
characteristic morphology of all infarcts except those in the brain is
coagulation necrosis
95
CNS becomes irreversibly damaged after how much hypoxia
3-4 minutes
96
Burkitts lympoma
B lymphocyte tumor, maxilla or mandible, EBV/malaria associated
97
Hodgkins lymphoma
young adults or 60+, curable, familial, intermittent spiking fever, single/asymptomatic node and then it spreads...see Reed-Sternberg cells
98
Non-Hodgkins lymphoma
most common lymphoma, more deadly, associated with Burkitt's and Immunoblastic lymphomas
99
what is stroke-work
principle that as ventricular pressure increases the stroke work output increases (up to physiological limits)
100
right sided heart failure caused by
emphysema, mitral stenosis, left ventricular failure...youll see enlarged spleen and liver and dependent edema/ascites
101
left sided heart failure caused by
aortic or mitral valve disease, ischemic heart dz, systemic HTN...youll see PND, tachycardia, cardiac asthma, crackles, cough, cyanosis

Boards (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions