Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

Kussmaul’s sign

A

JVD rise on inspiration. indicative of right ventricular filling - right sided heart failure. it is a requent finding in patients with constrictive PERICARDITIS on right ventricular infarction

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2
Q

Coarctation of the aorta

A

affects outflow from the heart d/t stenosis in which results in delayed and decrease on femoral pulses.

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3
Q

The condition is characterized by chest pain, fever, pericarditis with a pericardial friction rub, pericardial effusion, pleurisy, pleural effusions, and multiple joint pain. The cause is thought to be an autoimmune response to the damaged myocardial tissue and pericardium. there is minimal or no increase in cardiac enzymes.

A

Dressler’s syndrome Treatment includes the use of aspirin, NSAIDs, and, in some cases, corticosteroids.

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4
Q

Pericarditis

A
  • Inflammation of Pericardium
  • Fibrous (Dry) or Effusive (purulent, serous, or hemorrhagic)
  • Triad of signs: chest pain, pericardial friction rub, and serial ECG changes.
  • S/sx: chest pain, fever, myalgia, tripod position, peripheral edema, increase in JVP, (signs of right sided heart failure)
  • diagnostics: ecg shows Global ST elevation, PR depression, echocardiogram, serum troponin, ESR, c-reactive protein, FBC, Serum urea
  • Management: Periocardiocentesis for tamponade, symptomatic pericardial effusion
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5
Q

Treatment for Recurrent Pericarditis

A

NSAID + PPI, +/- Cholchicine, +/- Corticorsteriod (severe)

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6
Q

chest discomfort described as dull, aching, or pressure

A

MI, anginal chest pain

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7
Q

A 64 year-old male, with a long history of COPD, presents with increasing fatigue over the last three months. The patient has stopped playing golf and also complains of decreased appetite, chronic cough and a bloated feeling. Physical examination reveals distant heart sounds, questionable gallop, lungs with decreased breath sounds at lung bases and the abdomen reveals RUQ tenderness with the liver two finger-breadths below the costal margin, the extremities show 2+/4+ pitting edema. Labs reveal the serum creatinine level 1.6 mg/dl, BUN 42 mg/dl, liver function test’s mildly elevated and the CBC to be normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Signs of right ventricular failure are fluid retention i.e. edema, hepatic congestion and possibly ascites.

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8
Q

Results of a beta-natriuretic peptide (BNP)

A

An elevated BNP is seen in a situation where there is increased pressure in the ventricle during diastole. This is representative of the left ventricle being stretched excessively when a patient has CHF. Sending a patient home would be inappropriate in this case.

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9
Q

In congestive heart failure the mechanism responsible for the production of an S3 gallop is
A contraction of atria in late diastole against a stiffened ventricle.
B rapid ventricular filling during early diastole.
C vibration of a partially closed mitral valve during mid to late diastole.
D secondary to closure of the mitral valve leaflets during systole.

A

Rapid ventricular filling during early diastole is the mechanism responsible for the S3.

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10
Q

CHF

A

Congestive heart failure.
Treatment - ACE inhibitor, give lasix for acute phase.
S/Sx cardiomyopathy develops fatigue, increasing dyspnea, lower extremity edema. denies fever

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11
Q

Which of the following is a cause of high output heart failure?

A

thyrotoxicosis

High output heart failure occurs in patients with reduced systemic vascular resistance. Examples include: thyrotoxicosis, anemia, pregnancy, beriberi and Paget’s disease. Patients with high output heart failure usually have normal pump function, but it is not adequate to meet the high metabolic demands.

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12
Q

Class Functional Capacity
I Patients without limitation of physical activity
II Patients with slight limitation of physical activity, in which ordinary physical activity leads to fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea, or anginal pain; they are comfortable at rest
III Patients with marked limitation of physical activity, in which less than ordinary activity results in fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea, or anginal pain; they are comfortable at rest
IV Patients who are not only unable to carry on any physical activity without discomfort but who also have symptoms of heart failure or the anginal syndrome even at rest; the patient’s discomfort increases if any physical activity is undertaken

A

Functional Classification of Heart Failure

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13
Q
Which of the following should be avoided in patients with heart failure?
A	Diuretics
B	Digoxin
C	Anticoagulants
D     Calcium channel block
A

The ACC/AHA guidelines advise that nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), calcium channel blockers, and most antiarrhythmic agents may exacerbate heart failure and should be avoided in most patients. NSAIDs can cause sodium retention and peripheral vasoconstriction and can attenuate the efficacy and enhance the toxicity of diuretics and ACE inhibitors.

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14
Q

In which of the following categories of patients do AHA/ACC guidelines indicate ICDs?
Patients with symptomatic documented hemodynamically unstable ventricular tachycardia with an LVEF < 40%
B Patients who have no history of prior rhythm problems with an LVEF of 40%
C Patients who are asymptomatic (NYHA class I) with an LVEF of 35%
D Patients who are newly diagnosed with an LVEF of 35% 10 days post-MI

A

The AHA/ACC recommend ICD placement for the following categories of heart failure patients:
Patients with LV dysfunction (LVEF ≤ 35%) from a previous MI who are at least 40 days post-Ml
Patients with nonischemic cardiomyopathy; with an LVEF ≤ 35%; in NYHA class II or III; receiving optimal medical therapy; and expected to survive longer than 1 year with good functional status
Patients with ischemic cardiomyopathy who are at least 40 days post-MI; have an LVEF of ≤ 30%; are in NYHA functional class I; are on chronic optimal medical therapy; and are expected to survive longer than 1 year with good functional status
Patients who have had ventricular fibrillation
Patients with documented hemodynamically unstable ventricular tachycardia (VT) and/or VT with syncope; with an LVEF < 40%; on optimal medical therapy; and expected to survive longer than 1 year with good functional status

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15
Q

↑ BP + target organ damage DBP > 130

A

Hypertensive Emergency - BP must be reduced in 1 hour to avoid morbidity or death. Reduce pressure by no more than 25% within 1-2 hours and then towards 160/100 within 2-6 hours

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16
Q

Malignant Hypertension

A

DBP ≥ 130
SBP ≥ 200
Characterized by encephalopathy or nephropathy with papilledema

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17
Q

Ace inhibitors s/e

A

Associated with cough, angioedema and can cause hyperkalemia

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18
Q

Spironolactone s/e

A

hyperkalemia

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19
Q

β-blockers s/e and contraindication

A

Contraindicated in Asthma and may cause impotence

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20
Q

calcium channel blocker s/e

A

cause leg edema

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21
Q

Verapamil and Diltiazem action

A

rate control CCBs

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22
Q

α-blockers used for

A

This class of medicine can be used to treat hypertension and BPH

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23
Q

Hydralazine use and s/e

A

Lupus like syndrome and can cause pericarditis

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24
Q

Patient will present as → a 22-year-old male is brought to the emergency room after sustaining a stab wound in the chest. He reports shortness of breath. On physical examination, his vital signs are a temperature of 37 C, heart rate 121 bpm, blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 20 rpm, and oxygen saturation 99% on room air. Physical examination is significant for muffled heart sounds and a drop of BP > 10 mm Hg systolic with inspiration. You note his neck veins are distended. He does not respond to aggressive fluid resuscitation. You order a chest x-ray and the EKG reveals low voltage QRS complexes and electrical alternans.

A

….

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25
Q

The 3 D’s: Distant heart sounds, Distended jugular veins, and Decreased arterial pressure

Beck’s triad:

Hypotension
Muffled heart sounds
Elevated neck veins (JVD)

A

Cardiac tamponade

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26
Q

What is cardiac tamponade

A

Bleeding into the pericardial sac, resulting in constriction of heart, decreasing inflow and resulting in decreased cardiac output (the pericardium does not stretch!)

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27
Q

What is one of the most consistent clinical findings with pericardial tamponade?

A

Pulsus paradoxus, which is not specific to tamponade

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28
Q

What is a pulsus paradoxus?

A

A drop of ≥12 mm Hg in the systolic BP during inspiration

29
Q

How is a pulsus paradoxus exam performed?

A

The BP cuff is inflated and lowered to the first Korotkoff sound. The cuff is then slowly deflated until the first Korotkoff sound is heard with every beat.

30
Q

What else is found on physical examination of pericardial tamponade?

A

Decreased systolic BP, narrow pulse pressure, distended neck veins (with rapid x descent and attenuated y descent), tachycardia, and “distant” heart sounds

31
Q

*Electrical alternan

A

Electrical alternans, low-voltage QRS complexes, ST elevation, and PR depression, as seen with pericarditis
Electrical alternans, low-voltage QRS complexes, ST elevation, and PR depression, as seen with pericarditis

32
Q

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

A

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome hallmarks on EKG include a shorten PR interval, widened QRS, and delta waves. Sinus tachycardia has a normal PR interval and no delta waves. PSVT usually has a retrograde P wave or it may be buried in the QRS complex.

33
Q

multifocal atrial tachycardia

A

Multifocal atrial tachycardia is seen most commonly in patients with COPD. Electrocardiogram findings include an irregularly, irregular rhythm with a varying PR interval and various P wave morphologies (Three or more foci)

34
Q

A 72-year-old female is being discharged from the hospital following an acute anterolateral wall myocardial infarction. While in the hospital the patient has not had any dysrhythmias or hemodynamic compromise. Which of the following medications should be a part of her discharge medications?

A

ACE inhibitors have been shown to decrease left ventricular hypertrophy and remodeling to allow for a greater ejection fraction.

35
Q

Following an acute anterolateral myocardial wall infarction two days ago, a patient suddenly develops hemodynamic deterioration without EKG changes occurring. What complication can explain this scenario?

A

Free wall rupture is a complication that occurs within 72 hours of infarction. It is seen mainly in Q wave transmural and lateral wall infarctions.

36
Q

sick sinus syndrome

A

EKG evidence of decreased rate and loss of P waves

37
Q

BNP elevated means

A

there is increased pressure in the ventricle during diastole. this is a representative of the left ventrile being stretched excessively when a patient has CHF.

38
Q

This patient is diagnosed with an ST-segment elevation MI based upon his history and EKG findings. Cardiac enzymes are normal because of the early presentation of this patient. Next step?

A

Coronary artery revascularization

39
Q

An unresponsive patient is brought to the ED by ambulance. He is in ventricular tachycardia with a heart rate of 210 beats/min and a blood pressure of 70/40 mmHg. The first step in treatment is to

A

The first step in treatment of unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse is to cardiovert using a 100 J countershock. DC cardiovert

40
Q

Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs can be associated with hyper- or hypothyroidism following long-term use?

A

Amiodarone is structurally related to thyroxine and contains iodine, which can induce a hyper- or hypothyroid state.

41
Q

Which of the following hypertensive emergency drugs has the potential for developing cyanide toxicity?

A

Sodium nitroprusside metabolization results in cyanide ion production. It can be treated with sodium thiosulfite, which combines with the cyanide ion to form thiocyanate, which is nontoxic.

42
Q

Contraindications to beta blockade following an acute myocardial infarction include which of the following?

A

Beta blockade is contraindicated in second and third heart block

43
Q

A 74 year-old male is diagnosed with pneumonia. The physician assistant should ensure the patient is not on which of the following before starting therapy with clarithromycin (Biaxin)?

A

Statins are known to interact with the macrolides as they may cause prolonged QT interval, myopathy and rhabdomyolysis.

44
Q

Which of the following beta-adrenergic blocking agents has cardioselectivity for primarily blocking beta-1 receptors?

A

Metoprolol (Lopressor)

45
Q

What is the most likely mechanism responsible for retinal hemorrhages and neurologic complications in a patient with infective endocarditis?

A

Systemic arterial Embolization of vegetations
The vegetations that occur during infective endocarditis can become emboli and can be dispersed throughout the arterial system.

46
Q

During an inferior wall myocardial infarction the signs and symptoms of nausea and vomiting, weakness and sinus bradycardia are a result of what mechanism?

A

Increased vagal tone.

Increased vagal tone is common in inferior wall MI; if the SA node is involved, bradycardia may develop.

47
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?

A

Renal Parenchymal disease

48
Q

treatment of choice in a patient with variant or Prinzmetal’s angina?

A

Calcium channel blockers are effective prophylactically to treat coronary vasospasm associated with variant or Prinzmetal’s angina

49
Q

hypertension and diabetes which cardiac drug would you give?

A

Ace - Lisinopril

50
Q

What is the EKG manifestation of cardiac end-organ damage due to hypertension?

A

Left ventricular hypertrophy. Long-standing hypertension can lead to left ventricular hypertrophy with characteristic changes noted on EKG.

51
Q

physical finding of atrial septal defect?

A

fixed split S2

52
Q

A 29-year-old male presents with a complaint of substernal chest pain for 12 hours. The patient states that the pain radiates to his shoulders and is relieved with sitting forward. The patient admits to recent upper respiratory symptoms. On examination vital signs are BP 126/68, HR 86, RR 20, temp 100.3 degrees F. There is no JVD noted. Heart exam reveals a regular rate and rhythm with no S3 or S4. There is a friction rub noted. Lungs are clear to auscultation. EKG shows diffuse ST-segment elevation. What is the treatment of choice in this patient?

A

Indomethacin, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication, is the treatment of choice in a patient with acute pericarditis.

53
Q

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by a medium- pitched, mid-systolic murmur that decreases with squatting and increases with straining.

54
Q

Acute rebound hypertensive episodes have been reported to occur with the sudden withdrawal of

A

Clonidine (Catapres) is a central alpha agonist and abrupt withdrawal may produce a rebound hypertensive crisis.

55
Q

A 25 year-old male with history of syncope presents for evaluation. The patient admits to intermittent episodes of rapid heart beating that resolve spontaneously. 12 Lead EKG shows delta waves and a short PR interval. Which of the following is the treatment of choice in this patient?

A

Radiofrequency catheter ablation is the treatment of choice on patients with accessory pathways, such as Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome.

**Calcium channel blockers such as verapamil and digoxin decrease refractoriness of the accessory pathway or increase that of the AV node leading to faster ventricular rates, therefore calcium channel blockers should be avoided in patients with WPW.

56
Q

A patient presents for a follow-up visit for chronic hypertension. Which of the following findings may be noted on the fundoscopic examination of this patient?

A

arteriovenous nicking

57
Q

Which of the following is first-line treatment for symptomatic bradyarrhythmias due to sick sinus syndrome (SSS)?

A

Permanent pacemakers are the therapy of choice in patients with symptomatic bradyarrhythmias in sick sinus syndrome.

58
Q

An 8 year-old boy is brought to a health care provider complaining of dyspnea and fatigue. On physical examination, a continuous machinery murmur is heard best in the second left intercostal space and is widely transmitted over the precordium. The most likely diagnosis is

A

Patent ductus arteriosus is classically described in children as a continuous machinery-type murmur that is widely transmitted across the precordium.

59
Q

Nuclear stress test used for

A

In patients with classic symptoms of angina, nuclear stress testing is the most widely used test for diagnosis of ischemic heart disease.

60
Q

A 52-year-old male with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents with an acute myocardial infarction. Urgent cardiac catheterization is performed and shows a 90% occlusion of the left anterior descending artery. The other arteries have minimal disease. Ejection fraction is 45%. Which of the following is the treatment of choice in this patient?

A

Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Immediate coronary angiography and primary percutaneous coronary intervention have been shown to be superior to thrombolysis.

61
Q

A patient presents with an acutely painful and cold left leg. Distal pulses are absent. Leg is cyanotic. There are no signs of gangrene or other open lesions. Symptoms occurred one hour ago. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?

A

Embolectomy within 4 to 6 hours is the treatment of choice.

62
Q

Adenosine is use and action

A

Treatment for SVT. Adenosine is an endogenous nucleoside that results in profound (although transient) slowing of the AV conduction and sinus node discharge rate. This agent has a very short half-life of 6 seconds.

63
Q

An elderly female presents for evaluation of exertional syncope, dyspnea, and angina. She admits that previous to these symptoms she had insidious progression of fatigue that caused her to curtail her activities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A

The major symptoms of aortic stenosis are exertional syncope, dyspnea, and angina. Symptoms do not become apparent for a number of years and usually are not present until the valve is narrowed to less than 0.5 cm to 2 cm of valve surface area.

64
Q

what would you hear for mitral valve stenosis?

A

opening snap

65
Q

most common cause of arterial embolization?

A

Atrial fibrillation is present in 60-70% of patients with arterial emboli and is associated with left atrial appendage thrombus.

66
Q

The most common arrhythmia encountered in patients with mitral stenosis is

A

a fib

67
Q

Long term use of which of the following drugs may cause a drug-induced lupus-type eruption?

A

Procainamide and hydralazine are the most common drugs that may cause a lupus-like eruption.

68
Q

Which of the following is a cause of high output heart failure?

A

Thyrotoxicosis (excess amounts of thyroid hormones) High output heart failure occurs in patients with reduced systemic vascular resistance. Examples include: thyrotoxicosis, anemia, pregnancy, beriberi and Paget’s disease. Patients with high output heart failure usually have normal pump function, but it is not adequate to meet the high metabolic demands.