Canine Flashcards
1
Q
What does the caudal superficial epigastric flap provide blood to?
A
- the 3rd, 4th, and 5th mammary glands
- can be used in an axial pattern flap
2
Q
Which is a reasonable plan for the treatment of bacterial pneumonia in a dog?
A
- Coupage, systemic antibiotics, oxygen therapy, and nebulization
- Coupage may mechanically jar secretions and stimulate cough and can be performed for 5-10 minutes several times daily.
- Nebulization is to maintain airway hydration. It is not always necessary but is appropriate.
- Cough suppressants are contraindicated as are corticosteroids since they both interfere with normal defenses
- Bronchodilators are controversial but are not a mainstay of therapy for pneumonia unless bronchoconstriction is present
3
Q
Potential Causes of Anterior Uveitis in Dogs
A
- bacterial
- viral
- fungal - Coccidioides (“Valley Fever” - grows in soil in dry areas of U.S.)
- rickettsial
- immune-mediated (lens-induced uveitis)
- neoplasia
- hypertension
- trauma
Over 50% of the time, the cause is not found, and the uveitis is termed idiopathic. KCS and cataracts don’t cause uveitis; however, chronic uveitis can lead to dry eye, cataract formation, glaucoma and other eye issues
4
Q
Canine Lymphangiectasia
A
- Lymphangiectasia in canids is a disease characterized by dilation of the lacteals within the small intestinal villi.
- Though commonly grouped together with other malabsorption diseases or protein losing enteropathies, lymphangiectasia has its own distinct properties and causes.
- Though it has been minimally reported in cats, the majority of lymphangiectasia case studies have been described in dogs suffering from weight loss (with or without anorexia), intermittent vomiting, chronic small bowel diarrhea, lymphopenia, hypocholesterolemia, and protein loss.
- The secondary effects of protein loss, such as ascites, pleural effusion, peripheral edema, and hypocalcemia are the most severe signs and commonly are those first noticed by owners and clinicians
- It can be difficult to differentiate lymphangiectasia from other diseases with which it is associated or that may occur simultaneously.
- Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is often diagnosed concurrently with lymphangiectasia but it is uncertain whether one precedes the other or if they both may stem from the same pathogenic process
5
Q
Familial Dermatomyositis
A
- Dermatomyositis is an inherited disease of the skin, muscles, and blood vessels that causes dramatic inflammation of these tissues in the body. The affected breeds are Collies, Shetland Sheepdogs, and dogs that are mixes of these breeds
- Diagnosis can be made with skin or muscle biopsies, but can be difficult as the clinical and histopathologic signs can wax and wane. Inciting causes can include vaccinations, sunlight, viral infections, or drugs.
- Some cases; however, will come and go without obvious inciting causes. Some cases can become severe enough to include muscle atrophy; megaesophagus has also been seen with this disease
- Treatments are often symptomatic and supportive and include Vitamin E supplements, Omega 3 fish oils, treatments for any secondary bacterial infections, and pentoxifylline. Prednisone can also be used to get more severe cases under control. Avoiding prolonged sun exposure can also help
- Educating the owner on the fact that signs will reoccur despite treatment can alleviate some owner frustrations.
- Often times signs will regress with or without treatments. Educate owners on neutering animals to prevent propagation of diseased animals
6
Q
Bordatella Bronchiseptica
A
- Although not common, Bordetella infections can develop into a primary pneumonia, particularly if the dog has a weakened immune system
- Bordetella bronchiseptica is a small, Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium of the genus Bordetella. It can cause infectious bronchitis in dogs
- Canine infectious tracheobronchitis (kennel cough)
7
Q
Taurine deficiency in the English Cocker Spaniel has been associated with which of the following?
A
- Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM)
- Although taurine deficiency is rare nowadays, it has been associated with DCM in cats and some dogs (English Cocker Spaniels). - often an issue with “grain-free” diets and other “BEG” diets - boutique, exotic, grain-free
- dogs with DCM may show with normal levels of taurine tho! be aware
- Commercial cat and dog foods now contain acceptable levels of taurine.
- In cats, retinal dysplasia also occurs with taurine deficiency.
8
Q
Theobromine Poisoning
A
- Unsweetened baking chocolate contains the highest concentration of theobromine! - This contains about 7 times more theobromine than milk chocolate. White chocolate has very little methylxanthines. Semi-sweet chocolate is in between
- With large amounts, theobromine can produce muscle tremors, seizures, an irregular heartbeat, internal bleeding or a heart attack. The onset of theobromine poisoning is usually marked by severe hyperactivity
- Theobromine is the predominant toxin in chocolate and is very similar to caffeine. Dogs cannot metabolize theobromine and caffeine as well as people can
9
Q
What condition is visible on this Rx?
A
- Cranial cruciate rupture
- Can be fixed with surgical correction of the abnormality
- The radiographic findings of joint effusion, mild degenerative changes to the bones, and the absence of a primary bone lesion should lead you to this diagnosis.
- This should be confirmed with physical exam findings of stifle instability, cranial drawer and/or tibial thrust with medial buttress and pain on stifle extension.
- Medical management of cruciate disease in dogs consists of strict rest for 6-8 weeks, NSAIDs, and often chondroprotective supplements such as glucosamine and chondroitin sulfate to delay progression of osteoarthritis
- Corticosteroids should not be used to treat cruciate ligament disease as they can actually lead to weakening of ligamentous structures
10
Q
What is the best canine candidate for successful urohydropropulsion removal of a cystic calculus?
A
- a thin female dog
- Urohydropropulsion is the expulsion of cystic calculi after anesthetizing an animal by application of manual pressure to the urinary bladder to expel the stone through the urethra. Urohydropropulsion should not be attempted in male dogs because they have long, narrow urethras compared to females and an os penis which increases the likelihood of the calculi becoming lodged in the urethra.
- Obesity (and large size in general) makes it more difficult to manipulate the bladder effectively.
11
Q
Staphylococcal folliculitis
(superficial bacterial folliculitis)
A
- Bacteria may be a cause of folliculitis. Diffuse papules and occassional pustules are commonly associated with Staphylococcus. Dermatophytes, and most species of Demodex, can also infect the hair follicle
- Sometimes these papules cluster together to form what looks like a rash and feels rough like sandpaper. A pustule is the medical term for the classic pimple. Pustules are like papules except they are filled with yellowish liquid pus forming a yellow or white center
- One of the most common skin conditions in dogs, folliculitis is inflammation of the hair follicles, often caused by bacteria. Folliculitis occurs when a healthy hair follicle is compromised, leading to an overgrowth of the bacteria normally present on the skin. Underlying systemic disease, local trauma, or a specific skin condition can cause folliculitis
12
Q
Different causes of folliculitis in dogs
A
Folliculitis in dogs is most commonly caused by bacteria, but other culprits include parasitism, fungal infections, systemic disease, immune system disorders, endocrine issues, and local trauma.
Your dog’s folliculitis may be caused by the following conditions:
- Canine acne
- Skin-fold pyoderma
- Interdigital pododermatitis, or cysts
- Idiopathic furunculosis (in German shepherds)
- Pyotraumatic folliculitis, or “hot spot”
- Callus dermatitis
- External parasites, such as fleas, ticks, mange mites, ear mites, and flies
- Allergies
- Fungal infections, such as ringworm and blastomycosis
- Acral-lick granuloma
- Hypothyroidism
- Cushing’s disease
- Immune system disorders
Essentially, folliculitis can flare up in your dog if the hair follicle becomes irritated, damaged, or infected for any reason.
13
Q
During which phases of the estrous cycle does the female dog attract male dogs?
A
- proestrus and estrus.
- During both of these phases, the female attracts males but she will only stand to be mated during estrus
- diestrous - (of animals that have several estrous cycles in one breeding season) in a period of sexual inactivity
- anestrus: Anestrus is a time of complete reproductive incompetence, marked by reduction in hypothalamic GnRH and secretion with a consequent sharp reduction in LH and FSH secretion from the pituitary
14
Q
What is the most common malignant tumor of the spleen in the dog?
A
- Hemangiosarcoma
- This tumor accounts for approximately 2/3 of malignant splenic masses and will have metastasized in >90% of cases by the time they are diagnosed.
- Chemotherapy would be recommended for adjunct therapy after surgical removal of the spleen.
15
Q
What Dx should be performed if septic peritonitis is suspected?
What is the common time frame for anastomosis failure, if it were to happen?
A
- Abdominal tap and labwork!
- If it was resulting from a complication of a previous Sx, then the Px will need to be stabilized and go back to Sx immediately
- While acute renal failure can be a sequelae of sepsis, the most immediate concern is to find out if the bowel has leaked
- The most common time for anastomosis failure is 3-5 days postoperative. This is due to the timing of degradation of fibrin at the site prior to deposition of sufficient collagen
16
Q
What are the 4 components of nephrotic syndrome?
A
- The four components of nephrotic syndrome are proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, hypercholesterolemia, and ascites or edema
- This syndrome occurs with protein-losing nephropathies such as glomerulonephritis or amyloidosis.
- Hypercoagulability is not a component of nephrotic syndrome, although it can occur with protein-losing nephropathies due to the loss of antithrombin III
- Hyperlipidemia is a classic feature of the nephrotic syndrome, rather than a mere complication. It is related to the hypoproteinemia and low serum oncotic pressure of nephrotic syndrome, which then leads to reactive hepatic protein synthesis, including of lipoproteins
17
Q
Which anesthetic agent is implicated in malignant hyperthermia?
A
- halothane.
- This is mainly an entity in swine but may be seen in other animals. It is a rare induction of a hyper-metabolic reaction in skeletal muscle of susceptible individuals by halothane.
- The syndrome is characterized by muscle rigidity, increased body temperature, increased oxygen consumption and production of CO2
18
Q
Frequently, owners question the value of spaying or neutering a dog. In this case, you have a hesitant owner that has come in with her new female Bichon Frise of twelve weeks of age. Which of the following statements is the most accurate statement?
A
- Spaying after the first heat cycle will result in an approximately 8% likelihood of mammary cancer
- Spaying is very important in decreasing the incidence of mammary carcinoma. Spaying prior to the first heat results in a 0.5% incidence of mammary carcinoma. A spay after the first heat results in an increased incidence of 8%. Finally, a spay after the second heat yields an approximately 24% incidence of mammary carcinoma
- Also: Pyometra is a disease which manifests itself as a result of hormonal imbalance during diestrus. A properly performed ovariectomy will eliminate the chances of this occurring.
19
Q
Which of the following tests can be used to differentiate pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism from an adrenal tumor causing hyperadrenocorticism in dogs?
A
- Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test
- Tests used to try to differentiate PDH from an adrenal tumor include LDDST, HDDST, abdominal ultrasound, and endogenous plasma ACTH assay.
- With hyperadrenocorticism patients, LDDST and HDDST results show elevated cortisol levels at the 8-hour post-dexamethasone administration sample (normal animals would show suppressed cortisol levels at the 8-hour sample).
- PDH patients will show brief cortisol suppression at the 4-hour post-dexamethasone sample on some LDDST and HDDST tests.
- Patients with adrenal tumors causing Cushing’s will not exhibit suppression of cortisol levels at the 4-hour post-sample.
- Although no patients with adrenal tumors should show suppression at the 4-hour post-sample, some PDH patients will not show cortisol suppression at the 4-hour post-sample either.
- Just as a recap, you look at the 8-hour post-dexamethasone sample to determine if the patient has Cushing’s or not (should be elevated with Cushing’s), and you look at the 4-hour post-sample to try and differentiate if the patient has PDH (will show cortisol suppression) or if you cannot determine if the patient has PDH or an adrenal tumor (no cortisol suppression)
20
Q
When is it necessary to perform the HIGH DOSE dexamethasone test?
A
- Occasionally with the pituitary form of Cushing’s disease, there is no suppression of the cortisol blood levels (because the negative feedback loop is more resistant to the effects of the synthetic cortisol). A higher dosage of dexamethasone (high dose dexamethasone suppression test) may therefore be required to overcome this resistance and demonstrate the negative feedback mechanism.
- Cushing’s disease caused by an adrenal gland tumor is resistant to the effects of both low and high doses of dexamethasone. Therefore, failure of blood cortisol levels to decrease after using both the low and high doses of dexamethasone is supportive of an adrenal origin to the Cushing’s disease.
- In summary, if we get a reduction in cortisol levels at 4 and/or 8 hours after either dose of dexamethasone, then we have diagnosed pituitary origin Cushing’s disease. If the levels don’t budge from the high values of the pre-injection sample, then the diagnosis is adrenal origin.
21
Q
Ethylene glycol toxicity?
stages? (3)
A
- Ethylene glycol, a sweet-tasting, odorless liquid, is the active ingredient in most automotive antifreeze products.
- Ethylene glycol can also be found, in lower, less harmful, concentrations, in some windshield de-icing agents, hydraulic brake fluid, motor oils, solvents, paints, film processing solutions, wood stains, inks, printer cartridges
- Ethylene glycol has a very narrow margin of safety – which means only a tiny amount can result in severe poisoning. As little as half a teaspoon per pound of a dog’s body weight can result in fatality.
Stage 1: (within 30 minutes of ingestion): The signs include lethargy, vomiting, incoordination, excessive urination, excessive thirst, hypothermia (low body temperature), seizures, and coma.
Stage 2 - 12 to 24 hours after ingestion: Some of the signs seem to dramatically improve, luring pet owners into a false sense of security. However, during this stage, dogs become dehydrated, and develop an elevated breathing and heart rate.
Stage 3 - (36-72 hours after ingestion): At this stage, signs of severe kidney dysfunction, which is characterized by swollen, painful kidneys and the production of minimal to no urine, may occur. Progressive depression, lethargy, lack of appetite, vomiting, seizures, coma, and death may be seen.
22
Q
Antidote for ethylene glycol toxicity?
A
- 4-Methylpyrazole (4-MP).
- It is used to inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase and is considered the preferred treatment for treating ethylene glycol toxicoses in dogs.
- 4-MP does not cause hyperosmolality, metabolic acidosis, and CNS depression like ethanol treatment can.
- 4-MP is given to dogs IV over a 36-hour period.
- The initial dose is 20 mg/kg (slow IV over 15-30 minutes), then 15mg/kg (slow IV) at 12 and 24 hours, and then 5mg/kg is given at 36 hours.
- 4-MP is not effective in cats
23
Q
Medical Management of Intervertebral Disc Disease (IVDD)?
A
- Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory therapy and strict rest
- 50% of dogs with clinical signs of intervertebral disc disease will improve with medical management alone.
- Medical management involves restricted activity and anti-inflammatory therapy.
- Prednisone, methyl-prednisolone sodium succinate, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are commonly used.
- Prednisone, if used, should be prescribed at an anti-inflammatory dose and not immunosuppressive
24
Q
What is the most important Diagnostic test to rule out dietary intolerances in animals with suspected IBD?
how about definitive Dx?
A
- Hypoallergenic Diet Trial
- Some patients will respond so favorably that additional testing may not be necessary.
- To definitively diagnose IBD you will need a biopsy and histopathology, and it is important to warn the clients that this is a disease to be managed, not necessarily cured
25
Q
What breed is found to evidence that there is genetic predisposition for Cranial Cruciate Ligament Disease?
A
- Newfoundland
- but other breeds are thought to be genetically predisposed as well
26
Q
Biomechanics of CCL (4)
A
- Prevent Tibial Thrust
- Prevent Cranial Drawer
- Prevent Excessive Internal Rotation
- Prevent Excessive Hyperextension
Instability can lead to inflammation, osteophytes, medial buttress (fibrous tissue coming down and trying to stabilize the leg)
partial v. complete tear may show different signs - but the common sign is pain on extension (although there is no pain on flexion)
27
Q
What are we looking for on Rx with CCLR?
(signs as you won’t be able to see rupture)
A
- stifle effusion
- Degenerative joint disease
- Rx apparent tibial thrust
Note: remember if you have an older (and often larger dog) with pain on extension, Rx may also help identify if the cause is actually an osteosarcoma
left image: normal stifle
middle: fat pad displacement, effusion
right: tibial thrust present
may see osteophyte changes near the patella (sharp juts of bone)
28
Q
Tibial plateu Leveling Osteotomy
(TPLO)
A
- Essentially changes the biomechanics - put more on the caudal cruciate ligament
- NOTE: you are NOT fixing the CCL in this so you will still have cranial drawer! but is dynamically stable (no tibial thrust) –> same with TTA
- Most Sx do consider TPLO to be the gold standard for large breed dogs, however, there is no research contraindicating the other procedures (some prefer TTA or tightrope = similar to extracapsular)
- Once the bone is cut and the tibial plateau is rotated, where the femur and the tibia communicate, no longer can the femur slide backwards.
- The knee is immediately stabilized. By doing so, this eliminates the need for the ACL ligament entirely and returns stability to the joint immediately.
- Quickly after surgery dogs who have TPLO surgery will begin to use the limb again. In fact, in most cases, the dogs are weight bearing literally the day of surgery if not the next day.
- 2-4% incidence of medial meniscus tear with TPLO - imp. to inform owners that it may happen down the line. Studies show that we want to leave it in if it is pristine to prevent some arthritis! Tear can lead to pain later down the line and require some Sx to remove. (pros + cons)
29
Q
Tibial Tuberosity Advancement
(TTA)
A
- Dogs that receive the TTA procedure get back to using their operated limb approximately 2 weeks faster than dogs that receive a TPLO.
- Long-term (at 6 months and 1 year), however, the dogs receiving the TPLO procedure did better than dogs receiving the TTA procedure
- TTA surgery aims to make the tibial plateau perpendicular to the patellar tendon and, in doing so, prevent the shin bone moving forwards. The knee then feels stable for the dog when weight-bearing, despite the fact that the ligament has been ruptured and not directly repaired
- TTA may have a higher risk of post-operative medial meniscal injury (but you might get this with any pre-op/post-op circumstance)
30
Q
Extracapsular repair
A
- Implant is going to be outside the joint
- dont put in side the joint:
- joint is too small
- not enough tools to do so
- tend to fall apart
- more research being done on it
- dont put in side the joint:
- strand of suture and hook it around fabella and then
32
Q
What breed is a hypoplastic trachea more common in?
(BOAS)
A
- ENGLISH BULLDOGS
33
Q
In North America, when do most cases of canine leptospirosis occur?
A
- most cases of canine leptospirosis occur between July and November
- Leptospires survive best in a humid environment at temperatures between 0 and 25°C (32 and 77°F), and a significant correlation between the average rainfall recorded 3 months prior to diagnosis and the number of cases could be identified
- The incubation period is approximately 1 week but can vary depending on the virulence of the strain and the immunity of the host. The most common targeted organs are kidneys and liver. The lungs can also be affected, probably due to leptospiral vasculitis and focal hemorrhages.
- Can lead to the presentation of acute renal failure in small animals
34
Q
Different pathologies for Elbow Dysplasia
(3 main components)
A
38
Q
Perioperative Management for Pleochromocytoma
A
- alpha blockers block effects of noradrenaline and therefore lower BP (decreasing vascular tone)
- Can use beta blockers for arrhythmias but always use in conjunction with an alpha blocker to avoid exacerbating hypertension (i.e. Propranolol)
- Do NOT premedicate with atropine!
- About 50% are malignant - 18 months - 2 year survival in one study
- 22% perioperative mortality rate
- BUT, if it has merged into the vena cava, it can still be operated on!
39
Q
Sebaceous Gland Tumor
A
- most common skin tumor in the dog
- sebaceous hyperplasia, sebaceous epithelioma, sebaceous adenoma, and sebaceous adenocarcinoma included
- usually found in older dogs –> cockers, beagles, poodles, and mini schnauzers
- usually look like wart- or cauliflower-like lesions <1cm and can occur anywhere but usually are seen on the limbs, trunk, and eyelids
40
Q
Sarcocystis Cruzi
A
- fungus, definitive host is dogs
- ruminant is an intermediate host
- The life cycle involves a carnivore eating an infected cow which has cysts in the muscle.
- Then the cyst eventually forms sporocysts which are shed in feces and subsequently eaten by more cows.
- The sporocysts then hatch and penetrate artery walls and hang out in the endothelium to develop into sporozoites and eventually become merozoites at which time they invade muscle and encyst as sarcocysts.
- It takes about 10 weeks for the entire maturation process to occur.
- Clinical signs are non-specific such as fever, anorexia, salivation, weakness, muscle fasciculations, and weight loss.
- Diagnosis is likely to be at necropsy; so, prevent carnivore feces from contaminating the area
- The definitive host of Sarcocystis hirsuta is the cat and for Sarcocystis hominis, it is the human.
41
Q
Transmissible Venereal Tumor (TVT)
A
- TVT is a sexually transmitted tumor found throughout the world, particularly in areas with high populations of stray dogs.
- The tumor cells are transferred from one dog to the next by physical contact, which typically consists of sniffing, licking, and copulation.
- The tumor is often curable with vincristine chemotherapy
- TVTs are malignant (cancerous) tumors
42
Q
At which age is a dog most likely to develop canine cutaneous histiocytoma?
A
- Less than 3 years of age
- The head is the most common site for these tumors. They are solitary, raised, dome-shaped nodules that often ulcerate and regress.
- Treatment is rarely needed, but if the lesion persists, surgical excision is recommended
- In cutaneous histiocytoma, the Langerhan cells excessively divide and grow resulting generally in small cutaneous tumors usually less than one inch in diameter. Most cutaneous histiocytomas grow very rapidly and appear on the skin as smooth, pink to red raised masses.
44
Q
Acanthocheilonema reconditum
A
- Acanthocheilonema reconditum is a blood parasite that looks similar to the microfilariae of Dirofilaria immitis, the agent of Heartworm disease.
- The two parasites must be differentiated because Acanthocheilonema reconditum is not pathogenic and is therefore not treated
45
Q
Zinc Responsive Dermatosis
A
- Zinc is an essential nutrient because it is an important cofactor of many metalloenzymes involved in cell functions and is closely linked with essential fatty acids. This function is particularly important in the maintenance of epidermal integrity where the cells undergo rapid proliferation to replace those that are shed through desquamation. Zinc is also associated with immunity and neurological and intestinal functions.
- Zinc-responsive dermatoses are clinical syndromes recognised in dogs, which respond to zinc supplementation. They are associated with either a metabolic abnormality (syndrome I), or a nutritional deficiency (syndrome II).
- Cutaneous signs associated with syndrome I in the early stages include erythema, which is followed by alopecia, crusting and scaling around the mouth, eyes and ears
46
Q
Lupoid Dermatosis
A
- Lupoid dermatosis (exfoliative cutaneous lupus erythematosus) is a serious degenerative disease that is only seen in German Shorthaired Pointers.
- It is usually noticed before the dog is six months of age when the skin starts getting crusty with scaling on the head, face, and torso.
- It quickly spreads to the rest of the body and the condition seems to be quite itchy. In addition, the joints are swollen and sore.
- If left untreated, stage II will incur, which attacks the lymph nodes and causes inflammation of the spleen, tonsils, and adenoids.
- In many dogs, renal failure occurs within the first year of life and many are euthanized within the first two years due to the poor quality of life from the painful infections and renal failure
51
Q
Boxer Cardiomyopathy
A
- arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC), often seen in Boxers
- causes syncope
- A Holter monitor is the test of choice
- ARVC is a disease associated with fibrofatty infiltrate into the right ventricle resulting in electrical conduction disturbances and resultant VPCs
53
Q
Potential Causes of Hepatocutaneous Syndrome
A
- Hepatocutaneous syndrome refers to a necrotizing skin disorder that is often associated with metabolic or vacuolar liver diseases.
- Diseases that potentially cause this syndrome in the dog include: glucagonoma, phenobarbital-induced hepatopathy, mycotoxin hepatopathy, copper-associated hepatitis, glucagon-secreting hepatic tumors, and hepatopathies of unknown origin.
- Hepatocutaneous syndrome is most often associated with some sort of hepatopathy in the dog. Clues could be history of phenobarbital use, elevated liver enzymes, and the skin lesions.
- Skin biopsy and histology are required for definitive diagnosis of this condition. Abnormalities include marked, diffuse parakeratotic hyperkeratosis, intercellular and intracellular edema, keratinocyte degeneration, and hyperplastic basal cells. These changes create a characteristic red, white, and blue histologic appearance
- Biopsy samples should be taken from multiple sites, with footpad samples included. Ultrasound of the liver often shows a pathognomonic honeycomb appearance
55
Q
Which endocrinopathy in dogs can be associated with facial nerve paralysis?
A
- Hypothyroidism
- Facial nerve paralysis is present in up to 70% of dogs with hypothyroidism and nerve dysfunction.
- Neurologic abnormalities may include decreased or absent palpebral reflexes, lip droop, ear droop, or decreased tear production
57
Q
What is a possible sequela of a dog ingesting mothballs?
A
- Heinz body anemia
- The toxic compound in mothballs is naphthalene which can cause acute hemolytic anemia, Heinz body anemia or methemoglobinemia, vomiting, and seizures
59
Q
Most common ocular tumor of the dog?
A
meibomian gland adenoma
- most common ocular tumor of the dog and is usually benign
- A chalazion is an obstruction of the meibomian gland and appears as a swelling within the eyelid rather than projecting from it.
60
Q
Which drug should NOT be used in sighthounds?
A
THIOPENTAL
- Thiopental is an ultra-short acting barbiturate. Recovery depends on redistribution to tissues, including fat. Because sighthounds have very little fat, they have prolonged recoveries and greater complications with these drugs.
62
Q
Cystine Stones
A
- Cystine stones occur most often in Newfoundland dogs, dachshunds, and bulldogs.
- They are radiolucent and occur due to metabolic defects.
- Remember “I can’t C U”: (“C” is for cysteine, and “U” is for urate)
- urate stones can be seen in dalmations and patients with liver abnormalities such as PSS
63
Q
Echinocytes
A
- Other possible causes of echinocytes include hemangiosarcoma and liver disease
- 25% of rattlesnake bites are dry bites but the presence of echinocytes indicates toxin within the blood so antivenom should be administered immediately.
- The main side effect of antivenom is anaphylaxis but serum sickness can occur 1-2 weeks post treatment.
- Venom can be neurotoxic, coagulopathic, or a hybrid.
- There are three different types of antivenom available.
- The product produced by Fort Dodge is FDA approved but only treats the coagulopathic venom.
- Antivipmin is USDA but not FDA approved and treats both neurotoxic and coagulopathic venom.
- Crofab is a human product that also treats both but is extremely expensive.
- Plasma will not correct the coagulopathy since the toxin directly affects clotting factors.
64
Q
Myxoedema in Hypothyroid dogs
A
- Myxoedema most commonly occurs in moderate to severe cases of hypothyroidism in dogs.
- Thickening of the skin occurs secondary to accumulation of glycosaminoglycans (mostly hyaluronic acid) in the dermis.
- Myxoedema is most common on the forehead and face, causing a puffy appearance and thickened skin folds above the eyes. The puffiness, plus slight drooping of the upper eyelid, gives some dogs a “tragic” facial expression.
- These changes also have been found in the GI tract, heart and skeletal muscles.
- Myxoedema coma, a rare syndrome, is the extreme expression of severe hypothyroidism. The course can develop rapidly; lethargy progresses to stupor and coma. The common signs of hypothyroidism (eg hair loss) are present, but other signs, such as hypoventilation, hypotension, bradycardia and profound hypothermia, are usually seen as well.
69
Q
Presenting clinical sign of chocolate toxicosis?
A
cardiac tachyarrhythmias
- The toxic principle of chocolate is methylxanthines (specifically theobromine and caffeine).
- Methylxanthines can cause CNS excitation, tachycardia, and vasoconstriction. Signs include vomiting, diarrhea, hyperactivity, polyuria, polydipsia, lethargy, tachycardia, cardiac arrhythmias, seizures, and death
- It may also cause pupil dilation (mydriasis)
70
Q
Definitive Dx of Multiple Myeloma
(4)
A
definitive diagnosis of multiple myeloma requires satisfying at least two of the following criteria:
- Monoclonal gammopathy
- Radiographic evidence of osteolytic bone lesions (satisfied in this case)
- >5% neoplastic cells or >10-20% plasma cells in the bone marrow
- Immunoglobulin light chain proteinuria (Bence-Jones proteinuria)
Best to do Bone marrow biopsy and serum electrophoresis. - serum electrophoresis to assess monoclonal gammopathy and a bone marrow biopsy to look for neoplastic infiltration of plasma cells.
