Cancer Treatment Flashcards

1
Q

what are some drugs of alkylating agents and nitrosureas?

A

ifosfamide, cyclophosphamide, melphalan, chlorambucil, cisplatin, carmustine

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2
Q

what is the MOA of alkylating agents and nitrosureas?

A

addition of an alkyl group to nucleic acids/proteins/DNA
= inhibition of DNA replication = increase mutations (=secondary cancer) or cell death
any time of cell cycle

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3
Q

what are the main side effects of alkylating agents and nitrosureas?

A

teratogenic and carcinogenic

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4
Q

name sub classes of alkylating agents

A

a) Nitrogen mustards
b) Alkyl sulfonates (e.g. busulfan)
c) Triazines (e.g. dacarbazine, temozolomide)
d) Nitrosoureas (e.g. carmustine, lomustine)
e) Metal salts

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5
Q

what is mechlorethamine?

A

also known as Mustine

rarely used
short half life
very corrosive = toxic
tissue damage
nausea and vomiting side effects

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6
Q

what is melphalan?

A

oral given for myeloma - cancer of plasma cells
IV conditioning pre-transplant

increased risk of myelodysplasia with prolonged use

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7
Q

what is Cyclophosphamide?

A

A type of chemotherapy
activated in the liver, and broken down into into acrolein and etc.

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8
Q

what is acrolein?

A

bladder irritant
risk of haemarradic cystitis

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9
Q

what is the antidote for acrolein? and how?

A

MESNA
mops up the acrolein

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10
Q

what is bendamustine?

A

licenced for CLL and NHL

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11
Q

what are metal salts?

A

cisplatin, carboplatin and oxaliplatin

inhibit DNA synthesis via inter/intra- strand cross links mainly binding to GUANINE

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12
Q

whats cisplatin’s half life?

A

long half life
60 hours

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13
Q

what are side effects of metal salts?

A

nephrotoxic
neurotoxic - nause/vomiting

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14
Q

what are antimetabolites?

A

exert cytotoxic effects to natural metabolites involved in nucleic acid synthesis

The cell mistakes them for a normal metabolites, resulting in:
- inhibition of critical enzymes involved in nucleic acid
synthesis
- incorporation into the nucleic acid, leading to incorrect codes

LARGELY S-PHASE SPECIFIC

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15
Q

examples of anti-metabolites?

A

folate antagonists
pyrimidine analogues
purine analogues
ribonucleotide reductase inhibitors

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16
Q

MOA of 5-FU drugs

A

is a pyrimidine analogue that can be misincorporated into RNA and DNA in place of uracil or thymine

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17
Q

what is DHFR?

A

reduction enzyme

dihydrofolate reductase responsible for folates to be reduced to tetrahydrofolate -responsible for thymidine and purine synthesis

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18
Q

what is folate antagonists?

A

competitively inhibit DHFR= inhibit thymidine and purine synthesis

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19
Q

name some examples of folate antagonsists?

A

MTX
pemetrexed
raltitrexed

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20
Q

what is MTX?

A

inhibit dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR), leading to inhibition of DNA and RNA synthesis.

renally cleared- largely unchanged
half life- 8-10hrs may accumulate to 24-36hrs

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21
Q

when is folic acid prescribed w MTX?

A

alternate days to MTX dose
one per day or once a week

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22
Q

why can folic acid not be co-prescibed with MTX?

A

MTX 100,000x affinity for enzyme than folic acid

Folic acid may interfere with the gastrointestinal absorption of methotrexate.

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23
Q

what can large amounts of DHFR cause?

A

mtx resistance

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24
Q

how can mtx resistance be overcome

A

increase mtx dose

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25
why is folic acid prescribed w mtx?
for treatment/rescue to healthy cells = reduce toxicity to healthy cells = decrease side effects
26
mtx side effects
myelosuppresion mucositis renal toxicity alkalisation of urine and vigorous hydration alongside mtx administration
27
why do we monitor urine pH w MTX?
acidity of urine due to MTX crystallisation which can cause kidney damage to alkalise using sodium bicarb
28
mtx drug interactions
aspirin/ciprofloxacin/NSAIDs = reduce tubular secretion of MTX due to renal tubular competition = increase toxicity
29
what is leucovorin/folinic acid?
form of THF maintain normal cell functions - reverses MTX toxicity
30
when will leucovorin/folinic acid be given?
mucositis and myelsuppression
31
what is mucositis?
when your mouth or gut is sore and inflamed
31
what is pyrimidine analogues?
fraudulent nucleotides - cytosine, thymine and uracil
32
examples of pyrimidine analogues?
5-fluorouracil (5-FU), gemcitabine, capecitabine - erratic oral absorption
33
what is 5-FU?
a pyrimidine analogue activated to 5-F-dUMP= inhibits thymidylate synthase = inhibits RNA SYNTHESIS 15mins half life - therefore prolonged infusions/bolus needed eratic oral absorption colorectal/breast/stomach/oesophagus/head/neck carcinomas
34
how can we stabilise 5-F-dUMP?
co-administer folinic acid = enhances activity
35
what is capecitabine?
oral 5-FU drug prodrug conversions to 5-FU within the liver and tumour cells breast/gastric/pancreatic cancer
36
is capecitabine or 5-FU better?
capecitabine better tolerated more but experience more hand and foot syndrome
37
what is Gemcitabine?
Converted to gemcitabine triphosphate which is incorporated into DNA in place of deoxycytidine triphosphate. * Given weekly. * Licensed for pancreatic cancer, non-small cell lung cancer, bladder cancer and breast cancer.
38
what is Cytarabine?
Converted to active form, ara-CTP which inhibits DNA polymerase. * May also be directly incorporated into DNA chain, preventing replication and making it more susceptible to degradation. * Most useful in tumours with high growth fraction, and mainly used for AML, ALL and certain lymphomas.
39
what is purine analogues?
Can be incorporated into the growing DNA chain in place of the natural nucleotides adenine & guanine * Can also inhibit the enzymes involved * May kill cells, including cancer cells
40
give examples of purine analogues?
6-mercaptopurine, 6-thioguanine, fludarabine
41
what is 6-mercaptopurine?
prodrug - oral inhibits various metabolic reactions including purine biosynthesis azathioprine
42
what is fludarabine?
The active triphosphate, 2F-ara-ATP inhibits a variety of enzymes involved in DNA synthesis ORAL
43
what is an example of rinbonucleotide reductase inhibitor?
hydroxycarbamide
44
what is the MOA of hydroxycarbamide?
Inhibitor of ribonucleotide reductase, an enzyme essential for the generation of deoxyribonucleotides * Prevents purines and pyrimidines synthesis= decrease DNA conc. * May also damage DNA = inhibit DNA repair. * Used in haematological malignancies – CML, polycythaemia, thrombocythaemia * Given orally as 500mg capsules – dose tailored to response
45
what are the antimetabolites MOA?
1. folate antagonists - inhibit the action of folates which are co-factors essential for nucleotide synthesis 2. pyrimidine analogues - mimic/inhibit synthesis of cytosine, thymine & uracil thereby interfering with DNA synthesis 3. purine analogues - mimic/inhibit synthesis of adenine & guanine interfering with DNA synthesis 4. ribonucleotide reductase inhibitors
46
what are the classes of mitotic inhibitors?
vinca alkaloids -vincristine taxanes
47
moa of mitotic inhibitors
act on microtubules in the nucleus = arresting metaphase = inhibit mitosis
48
what are examples of vinca alkaloids?
vincristine, vinblastine, vindesine, vinorelbine
49
what is the MOA of vinca alkaloids?
bind to tubulin = prevent microtubule assembly
50
what is vincristine?
used in haematology, indication - sarcoma and neuroblastoma can cause neurotoxicity n mild myelosuppression metabolised in the liver and excreted in faeces via cyto P450
51
what are examples of taxanes?
paclitaxel docetaxel abraxane cabazitaxel
52
explain taxanes/ paclitaxel
indication - ovarian /breast cancer stabilisers of microtubule poor water solubility risk of hypersensitivity reactions, neutropenia , neurotoxicity, alopecia, cardiotoxicity
53
what are Topoisomerase inhibitors?
nuclear enzymes that cause DNA strand breaks and therefore allow it to unwind during cell division. Inhibitors stabilise the enzyme-DNA complex and prevent re-ligation, resulting in irreversible DNA strand breaks. S/G2 phase of the cell cycle - Topoisomerase I - causes single nick in DNA - Topoisomerase II - cleaves both strands
54
what are the types of Topoisomerase inhibitors?
- Topoisomerase I - causes single nick in DNA - Topoisomerase II - cleaves both strands
55
what can inhibit topoisomerase II?
etoposide
56
indications of etoposide?
oral/iv small cell lung cancer/ testicular cancer /lymphoma
57
what are some example of topoisomerase I ?
topotecan irinotecan
58
what are some antitumour antibiotics?
1. anthracyclines - inhibition of topoisomerase II - DNA intercalation - free radical formation - alkylation * Examples include: - doxorubicin, daunorubicin - idarubicin, epirubicin 2. mitoxantrone 3. actinomycin D 4. mitomycin C 5. bleomycin
59
what is mitoxantrone?
Structurally related to anthracyclines * Does not produce free radicals so less cardiotoxic * Indications include AML, breast cancer, prostate cancer.
60
what is actinomycin D?
Binds to DNA and inhibits DNA-dependent RNA synthesis. Also inhibits topoisomerase II. * Used for sarcomas.
61
what is mitomycin C?
Causes cross-links between complementary DNA strands, which inhibits replication. Commonly used for lung cancer. Also given intravesically for bladder cancer. Causes delayed myelosuppression.
62
what is bleomycin?
Causes DNA strand scission - resulting in fragmentation of DNA. Indications include testicular cancer, Hodgkin’s and NHL. Risk of cumulative pulmonary toxicity.
63
why are biologics used in cancer treatment ?
using understanding of biology of the tumour and TME to control the disease e.g. allowing switching of cytokines relative to the TME
64
what is rituximab like as a biologic ?
more targeted biologic - monoclonal antibody targets antigens expressed on the cancer cell
65
what is thalidomide like as a biologic ?
non specific biologic modulates the immune system
66
what is the main treatment of chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)?
allogenic SCT - stem cell treatment given with a large amount of chemo therapy this allows the immune system to be restored
67
what are the types of cytokines?
Interleukin-2 * Produced by activated T-cells. * Stimulates T-cell proliferation and activates NK cells. * Has been used in renal cell cancer and melanoma. Interferon-alpha * Possesses a variety of immunomodulatory effects e.g. activation of NK cells modulation of antibody production inducing antigen presentation on tumour cells
68
what is an example of an immunomodulator?
thalidomide
69
what indication is interferon-alpha used for?
renal cell carcinoma
70
describe thalidomide use in cancer?
inhibit angiogenesis = prevent tumour spread immunodulation too ! alters immune response
71
how are monoclonal antibodies used in cancer treatment?
Binding to tumour-associated antigens = Destruction of the tumour cell by blocking the growth and spread of cancer cells by interfering with cellular functions necessary for their survival.
72
when are checkpoint blockade used in cancer treatment?
used in haematology and oncology
73
what are some examples of checkpoint blockades in cancer treatment?
Pembrolizumab and nivolumab inhibit PD-1 and have multiple indications – melanoma, lung, bladder, renal cell, head and neck , Hodgkin lymphoma Atezolizumab is a PD-L1 inhibitor – used for bladder and lung Ipilumumab – inhibits CTLA-4 and is used to treat advanced melanoma OPPOSITE Abatacept – enhances CTLA-4 and can be used for RA, kidney transplant rejection
74
describe Ipilimumab
antibody binds to CTLA4 on a T cell = activate T cell by blocking B7 + CTLA4 process (= inactivate T cell)
75
describe nivolumab/pembrolizumab
blocks overexpressed PDL1 and blocks PD1 on cancer cells = T cell activation PDL1+PD1 binding = T cell inactivation
76
describe rituximab
A monoclonal antibody, specific for CD20, expressed on the surface of mature B cells. * After binding Rituximab causes cell death by: - induction of apoptosis - activation of patient’s immune system - sensitisation of resistant lymphoma cells to conventional chemotherapy
77
what are the ways rituximab induces cell death?
- induction of apoptosis - activation of patient’s immune system - sensitisation of resistant lymphoma cells to conventional chemotherapy
78
what are the side effects of rituximab?
infusion related e.g. fever/chills/rigors RARE: cytokine release syndrome - can be fatal
79
why do you get fevers/chills/rigors from taking rituximab?
due to foreign substances/antibodies inducing an immune response
80
how do you prevent rituximab from getting side effects?
pre-medicate with antihistamine/paracetamol/steroids or slow down the infusion rate
81
describe trastuzumab/ HERCEPTIN
antibody against HER2 antigen which is over-expressed in some breast cancer cells monotherapy or in combo
82
what occurs between trastuzumab/ HERCEPTIN and doxorubicin?
concerns of cardiac toxicity
83
describe alemtuzumab
antibody against CD-52, against specific lymphocytes used for T cell depletion prior to allogenic BMT used for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia (CLL) and Multiple sclerosis
84
describe how T cell cancer therapy to kill tumour cells
1. blood drawn from the pt and T cells are separated out 2. t cells are genetically engineered to produce surface receptors called Cars - Cars recognised and attaches to specific proteins on tumour cells 3. cars T cells multiply while the pt has chemotherapy to kill off existing t cells 4. transfer t cells into the body to recognise and kill cancerous cells
85
what does Cars do?
produced from genetically engineered T cells target CD19 on B cells Cars recognised and attaches to specific proteins on tumour cells
86
when are CARS used?
treat advanced B-ALL, advanced non-hodgkin lymphoma and mantle cell lymphoma
87
whats a risk of CARS?
cytokine release syndrome and neurological complications
88
what are the symptoms of cytokine release syndrome
fever, nausea, headache, rash, rapid heartbeat, low blood pressure, and trouble breathing
89
what are the subtypes of targeted therapies?
- proteasome inhibitors - protein kinase inhibitors/nibs - PARP inhibitors - BCL-2 inhibitors - Hedgehog pathway inhibitors - VEGF inhibitors
90
describe proteasomes
key roll in cellular degradation - accumulation of proteins = toxic to cells
91
what are proteasome inhibitors used to treat?
multiple myeloma
92
what is bortezomib ?
a proteasome inhibitor IV bolus inf. and SC
93
describe the side effects of bortezomib
neuropathy thrombocytopenia fatigue
94
describe the side effects of proteasome inhibitors
neuropathy thrombocytopenia fatigue
95
name some proteaome inhibitors
bortezomib -iv inf/sc carfilzomib -iv inf ixazomib -oral
96
describe protein kinase inhibitors/nibs
target growth factors on receptors of cancer cells oral therapies given continuously
97
give an example of nibs
imatinib FLT-3 inhibitors
98
what is imatinib used for
CML used for BCR-ABL BCR-ABL kinase selective inhibitor
99
what are the common side effects of imatinib
haematological toxicities diarrhoea rash oedema nausea cramps headache
100
what are some drug interactions of imatinib
itraconazole, clarithromycin, phenytoin, rifampicin, warfarin, ciclosporin
101
what are FLT-3 inhibitors
FLT3 mutations occur im AML inhibits mutations properties: cellular growth anti-apoptotic signalling cellular survival
102
what are PARPi used for?
ovarian and breast cancer
103
what are some examples of PARPi
olaparib, niraparib, rucaparib - ovarian cancer olaparib, talazoparib - breast cancer
104
describe PARPi
inhibit PARP enzymes used for DNA repair of cancerous cells = cell death generally require BRCA mutation to cause cell death
105
describe BCL-2 inhibitors
inhibit BCL-2 = overexpressed in many cancers e.g. CLL BCL-2 inhibits BAX/BID/BAK= inhibit cyto c release from mitochondria = no caspase enzymes released = no cellular apoptosis
106
what is an example of BCL-2 inhibitor?
venetoclax
107
what is venetoclax?
BCL-2 inhibitor used for CLL and AML and others. - lymphoma/myeloma
108
what are the side effects of venetoclax?
tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) so start with a low dose and titrate up
109
why is a lower dose of venetoclax given in AML
as venetoclax is given with posaconazole = increases venetoclax conc. systemically therefore we can give a lower dose to give a similar efficacy of venetoclax without risk of TLS
110
describe VEGF inhibitors
inhibit VEGF = inhibit angiogenesis = prevent tumour growth and spread VEGF = promotes angiogenesis
111
what are some examples of VEGF inhibitors
- MABs e.g. bevacizumab, ramucirumab – TKIs e.g. sunitinib, axitinib. Commonly for kidney cancer – Aflibercept (a modified antibody)
112
when should you take etoposide capsules?
before food
113
when should you take uftoral capsules?
before food
114
when should you take capecitabine tablets?
with/after food
115
which cancer drugs can cross the BBB
small lipophilic drugs : MTX cytarabine BCNU
116
when do you need to be careful when prescribing hydrophilic drugs? and example
overdosing in obese pts e.g. doxorubicin
117
why are the people with liver disease at higher risk when taking drugs?
poor drug metabolism due to a lack of cyto P450 = risk of toxicity
118
what drugs need dose reductions in renal impairment?
cisplatin carboplatin MTX etoposide bleomycin
119
what drugs are nephrotoxic? and how can you reduce effects?
cisplatin - requires adequate hydration MTX - alkalise urine in high doses
120
what drugs need dose reductions in hepatic impairment?
doxorubicin vincristine paclitaxel etoposide
121
what drugs are hepatotoxic?
nitrosureas - elevated liver enzymes MTX - fibrosis/cirrhosis
122
what factors determine success of chemotherapy?
objective of treatment pt factors factors related to the tumour
123
what may be the overall objective of chemo treatment?
- attempt to cure disease - focus on symptom palliation - choice of adjuvant chemo
124
what are pt factors that effect chemo success?
medical condition age motivation psychological status
125
what are tumour factors that effect chemo success?
sensitivity to chemo clinical stage/size growth characteristics
126
what are the effects of chemotherapy on various cancers?
1. Often curative: ALL and AML, especially in children Testicular cancer Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphoma Wilms’ tumour 2. More than 30% responsive Breast cancer Small cell lung cancer Multiple myeloma CLL 3. Usually highly resistant Non-small cell lung cancer Renal cell carcinoma Pancreatic cancer
127
what is adjuvant chemotherapy?
chemo/radiotherapy given after surgery eradicate micrometastases low toxicity regimen
128
what is neo-adjuvant chemotherapy?
chemo/radiotherapy given before surgery
129
what is the advantage of neo-adjuvant chemotherapy?
1. Earlier exposure to cytotoxic drugs 2. Can measure objective response in primary lesion - helps determine likely success or failure of chemo. 3. Regression of the primary tumour may allow for less extensive surgery.
130
what is the disadvantage of neo-adjuvant chemotherapy?
1. increased thrombocytopenia 2. if chemo is not a success the tumour size can grow = increase surgery risk
131
how are combination chemotherapy drug treatments prescribed?
Basic principles 1. Choose individually active drugs 2. Choose drugs with non-overlapping toxicities 3. Choose agents with different modes of action 4. Choose agents that do not display cross-resistance 5. Use drugs at their optimal dose and schedule 6. Treatment-free interval should be the shortest possible to allow recovery of most sensitive host tissue
132
why are combination chemotherapy used?
Combinations usually more successful than single agent chemotherapy. - prevention of resistant clones - cytotoxicity to resting and dividing cells - biochemical enhancement of effect
133
name phase specific drugs
S PHASE - cytarabine - MTX - 5-FU G2 PHASE - bleomycin - etoposide M PHASE - vinca alkaloids - paclitaxel
134
name whole cell cycle specific drugs
Alkylating agents - chlorambucil, cyclophosphamide, cisplatin Antibiotics - doxorubicin, epirubicin
135
name cell cycle non-specific drugs
Nitrogen mustard Nitrosureas - carmustine, lomustine
136
what is BEP?
combination regimen for testicular cancer BLEOMYCIN + ETOPOSIDE + CISPLATIN
137
describe bleomycin
inhibits DNA synthesis G2 phase
138
what are side effects of bleomycin?
- toxic to skin and mucous membranes - can cause pulmonary toxicity
139
what are side effects of etoposide?
- myelosuppressive, usually alopecia - moderate nausea and vomiting - given slowly to avoid hypotension
140
what are side effects of cisplatin?
- nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, neuropathy - severe nausea and vomiting