Cancer Chemotherapy Flashcards

1
Q

What are the limitations of anti-cancer therapy/

A
  • cancers are good at evading the immune response
  • cancer originates from the body’s own cells and so the body has poor defences
  • cancer cells have the same biochemistry as normal body cells which makes targeting difficult
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2
Q

What are the 3 main approaches to dealing with cancer?

A
  • surgical excision
  • radiotherapy
  • chemotherapy
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3
Q

What are the 4 traditional agents used for cancer?

A
  • alkylating agents
  • antimetabolites
  • cytotoxic antibiotics
  • plant derivatives
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4
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of alkylating agents

A
  • can form covalent bonds with nucleophilic substances in the cancerous cell
  • bifunctional and causes intrastrand cross-linking of DNA
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5
Q

What are the 6 major groups of alkylating agents and some examples?

A
  1. nitrogen mustards (eg. cyclophosphamide)
  2. ethylenimines (eg. thiotepa)
  3. alkylsulphonates (eg. busulphan)
  4. hydrazines and triazines (eg. temozolomide)
  5. nitrosoureas (eg. lomustine/carmustine)
  6. platinum based compounds (eg. cisplatin)
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6
Q

What are the 3 major groups of antimetabolites and examples?

A
  1. antifolates (eg. methotrexate)
  2. antipyrimidines (eg. 5-FU, gemticibane)
  3. antipurines (eg. mercaptopurine, thioguanine)
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7
Q

What are some examples of cytotoxic antibiotics?

A
  • anthracyclines
  • dactinomycin
  • bleomycin
  • mitomycin
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8
Q

What are the 2 mechanisms of action of plant derivatives?

A
  • spindle poisons: affect microtubule function and prevent mitotic spindle formation
  • top I/II inhibitors
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9
Q

What are examples of plant derivates?

A
  • spindle poisons:
  • vinca alkaloids eg. vincristine, vinblastine
  • taxanes eg. paclitaxel, doxetaxel
  • top I/II inhibitors:
  • camptothecins eg. irinotecan (top I)
  • etoposide eg. DNA binding (top II)
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10
Q

What are the drawbacks of chemotherapy?

A
  • it targets cell proliferation not invasiveness/metastasis
  • non-specific cell killers so can kill healthy cells
  • development of resistance
  • leaves remaining cells
  • side effects which can affect body systems that have high cell growth rate
  • side effects which are drug specific
  • side effects often post treatment
  • patient non-compliance due to side effects (not completing therapy)
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11
Q

Describe what tumour lysis syndrome is

A
  • acute side effect of chemo
  • metabolic emergency
  • due to rapid cell lysis and large amounts of cell matabolites in blood
  • characterised by hyperuricaemia, hyperphosphataemia, hyperkalaemia, hypocalcaemia
  • if left untreated can lead to acute renal failure, cardiac arrest and death
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12
Q

How would you manage and prevent tumour lysis syndrome?

A
  • manage it by monitoring and responding to deranged urea and electrolytes/fluid balance: may need dialysis
  • prevent by risk assessing patient prior to chemotherapy
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13
Q

Describe the side effect of chemotherapy on the bone marrow

A
  • myelosuppression; reduced production of cells that provide immunity, oxygen transport and clotting
  • only actively dividing cells in bone marrow
  • cells with shorter life span more affected
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14
Q

How would you manage and treat myelosuppression?

A
  • monitor full blood count prior to and then daily during treatment cycles
  • occasional use of recombinant human granulocyte- colony stimulating factors to reduce incidence/duration of myelosuppression
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15
Q

What are the GI side effects of chemotherapy?

A
  • nausea and vomiting
  • loss of appetite
  • constipation (due to reduction is gastric motility/fluid intake/activity)
  • diarrhoea (can cause severe dehydration and electrolyte disturbances)
  • ulceration, dry mouth, pain, taste alterations
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16
Q

What are some examples of emetogenic chemotherapy agents?

A
  • highly emetogenic: cisplatin
  • moderately emetogenic: doxorubicin
  • midly emetogenic: etoposide
17
Q

How would you treat nausea/vomiting due to chemo?

A
  • pre-treatment low dose benodiazepine eg.lorazepam
  • steroids eg. dezamethasone
  • anti-emetics eg. metoclopramide
18
Q

What are other specific side effects of chemotherapy?

A
  • fatigue
  • body-image side effects (weight gain/loss, hair loss, intervention wounds)
  • peripheral neuropathy (counsel patient, analgesia for nerve pain)
  • altered renal function
  • infertility
  • secondary malignancy
19
Q

What is the treatment for specific target of B cell lymphomas?

A
  • rituximab

- targets a B cell surface protein

20
Q

What is the treatment for target of HER1/ERBB2 in breast cancer?

A
  • trastuzumab (herceptin)

- targets epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2)

21
Q

What is the choice of treatment for chronic myeloid leukaemia?

A
  • imatinib (Gleevac)

- inhibits bcr-abl gene signalling pathways

22
Q

What are the components of genetic medicine?

A
  • genomic/genetic testing
  • proteomic profiling
  • metabolomic analysis
23
Q

What are the 4Ps of personalised medicine?

A
  • predictive
  • personalised
  • preventative
  • participatory
24
Q

Describe personalised medicine treatment of lung cancer

A
  • if activating mutation on EGFR, given erlotinib
  • BUT if activating mutation on KRAS not given
  • if fusion ALK rearrangement, given crizotinib
25
Q

Describe personalised medicine treatment of colorectal cancer

A
  • cetuximab: anti-EGFR monoclonal antibody therapy

- if no mutation on KRAS/NRAS: cetuximab plus chemo (RAS mutation predicts lack of response to therapy)

26
Q

Describe personalised medicine treatment on melanoma

A
  • vermurafenib: inhibits mutated B-Raf (gene that leads to tumour growth)
  • c-KIT mutations: imatinib
27
Q

Describe personalised medicine treatment of high grade glioblastomas (brain tumours)

A
  • temozolomide: alkylating agent (first line)
  • increases methylation of MGMT promoter gene
  • DNA repair enzyme that repairs damage caused by chemotherapy alkylating agents of cancer cells
  • decreases expression of MGMT increasing survival of patients
28
Q

Describe personalised medicine treatment of gastric tumours

A
  • trastuzumab: anti-Her2 (and cisplatin and more)
  • for tumours expressing high levels of HER2
  • if c-KIT mutation in GISTs: imatinib used
29
Q

Describe personalised medicine treatment of soft tissue and bone tumours

A
  • FISH testing to complement morphological diagnosis for soft tissue sarcomas
  • Ewing’s sarcomas
  • alveolar rhabdomyosarcomas
  • leiomyosarcomas
  • fibromyxoid sarcomas
30
Q

Describe personalised medicine treatment for thyroid tumours

A
  • BRAF mutation analysis to aid pathological diagnosis

- BRAF mutation associated with aggressive tumour phenotype and higher risk of recurrent and perisistent disease

31
Q

Why can pharmacogenetic testing be useful for treatment for cancer?

A
  • germline variants in dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPYD) gene can confer increased risk of severe toxicity when patient is treated with
  • flurorpyrimidines, capecitabine or 5-FU
32
Q

Describe immunotherapy of cancer

A
  • nivolumab is fully human IgG4 PD-1 immune checkpoint inhibitor antibody
  • PD-1/PDL-1 signalling axis blockade (melanoma, specific lung cancer NSCLC)
  • ipilimumab: anti-CTLA-4 antibody (metastatic melanoma)