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Pathophysiology - year 3 > cancer > Flashcards

cancer Flashcards

1
Q

is the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the body

A

cancer

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2
Q

is the study of tumors and their treatment

A

oncology

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3
Q

_ in every _ Canadians will develop cancer

A

2 in every 5

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4
Q

_ in every _ Canadians will die from cancer

A

1 in every 4

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5
Q

is the sequence of events involved in the replication and distribution of DNA to daughter cells

A

the cell cycle

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6
Q

how many phases in the cell cycle?

A

5

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7
Q

what are the 2 major phases to the cell cycle?

A

synthesis (S) and mitosis (M)

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8
Q

the DNA is synthesized and chromosomes are replicated

A

synthesis phase

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9
Q

the cell divides and 2 daughter cells are formed

A

mitosis

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10
Q

when the cell is metabolically active or growing enzymes or proteins in preparation for DNA synthesis or mitotic division

A

G phases

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11
Q

the daughter cells either go into a state of dormancy- that is they are not actively proliferating

A

G zero phase

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12
Q

if a stimulus for cell division exists, the cell enters the __ phase to begin the cell reproductive cycle again.

A

G1 phase

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13
Q

is the process by which proliferating cells become specialized.

A

cell differentiation

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14
Q

cells that continue to proliferate and then die, particularly in areas that have a high cell turnover

A

progenitor cells

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15
Q

is a method of replacing cancerous bone marrow with healthy stem cells.

A

stem cell transplant

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16
Q

entails receiving a donors stem cells, and an autologous transplant entails receiving a donors stem cells, and an autologous transplant entails receiving ones own stem cells.

A

allogenic transplant

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17
Q

are able to complete the cell cycle more quickly by decreasing the length of time spent in the G1 phase.

A

cancer cells

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18
Q

monitors whether the DNA in the chromosomes in damaged by radiation or chemicals

A

G1-S checkpoint

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19
Q

prevents entry into mitosis if DNA replication is not complete.

A

G2 M checkpoint

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20
Q

is the process by which normal cells are transformed into cancer cells

A

carcinogenesis

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21
Q

is caused by a mutation of the genetic material of normal cells, which upsets the normal balance between proliferation and cell death

A

carcinogenesis

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22
Q

Carcinogenesis is hypothesized to be a multistep mechanism that can be divided into three stages:

A

1) initiation
2) promotion
3) progression

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23
Q

is the first step in the process of cancer development

A

initiation

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24
Q

Involves the exposure of cells to appropriate doses of carcinogenic agent that makes them susceptible to malignant transformation.

A

initiation stage of carcinogenesis

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25
Q

involves the unregulated and accelerated growth of the mutated cells

A

promotion

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26
Q

abnormality of cell development during the promotion stage.

A

dysplasia

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27
Q

is often indicative of an early neoplastic process.

A

dysplasia

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28
Q

is the process whereby tumor cells acquire malignant changes and autonomous growth tendencies that promote invasiveness and metastatic capabilities.

A

progression

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29
Q

represents the transformation of a neoplastic lesion to one in which cells undergo essentially no maturation, and thus may be considered cancer like.

A

Carcinoma in situ

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30
Q

which gene process encourages cell division?

A

protooncogenes

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31
Q

which gene process inhibits cell division?

A

tumor suppressor genes

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32
Q

what do mutated proto-oncogenes become?

A

oncogenes

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33
Q

genes that stimulate excessive cell division

A

oncogenes

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34
Q

eliminating the critical inhibition of cell division that normally prevents excessive growth

A

mutations in tumor suppressor genes

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35
Q

When ____ arise in normal cells, they can contribute to the development of cancer by instructing cells to make proteins or “go signals” that stimulate excessive cell growth and division.

A

oncogenes

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36
Q

When DNA damage is detected in a cell, some ______ can send “stop signals” to the cell to stop it from multiplying until the damage is repaired.

A

tumor suppressor genes

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37
Q

When ____ don’t function correctly, the cells with DNA damage continue to divide and can accumulate further DNA damage that can eventually lead a cell to grow and divide in an uncontrolled fashion.

A

tumor suppressor genes

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38
Q

People with a condition called _____ have an inherited defect in a DNA repair system

A

xeroderma pigmentosum

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39
Q

can stimulate cells with damaged DNA to commit cell suicide

A

specific tumor suppressor genes (p53)

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40
Q

is the first and last defense against cancer

A

the immune system

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41
Q

can target tumors and cancer cells and kill them.

A

Natural Killer Cells (NK)

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42
Q

process of forming new blood vessels

A

angiogenesis

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43
Q

begins when a tumor becomes large enough where it needs to increase the supply of nutrients and oxygen it receives.

A

angiogenesis

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44
Q

What triggers the tumor and its surrounding environment to release signals that result in the growth of blood vessels towards and into the tumor?

A

low oxygen levels (hypoxia)

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45
Q

is the proliferation of a network of blood vessels that penetrates into cancerous growths, supplying nutrients and oxygen and removing waste products.

A

tumor angiogenesis

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46
Q

is the study of causation, or origination, that is what causes cancer or how does it originate.

A

Etiology

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47
Q

are a class of substances that are directly responsible for damaging DNA, promoting or aiding cancer.

A

Carcinogens

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48
Q

Any abnormal growth of new tissue is referred to as ___

A

neoplastic

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49
Q

new growth

A

neoplasm

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50
Q
  • well differentiated
  • slow growing
  • look like tissues from which they arise
  • localized
  • do not metastasize
  • encapsulated
  • can interfere with vital functions
A

characteristics of benign tumors

51
Q

add suffix “oma” to the tissue type

A

benign tumors

52
Q

__ is a benign tumor of the meniges of the brain or surface of the brain

A

menigioma

53
Q

A benign tumor of the pancreas is called an ___

A

insulinoma

54
Q

A benign tumor of glandular epithelial tissue is called an ___

A

adenoma

55
Q

a benign tumor of bone tissue is called ___

A

osteoma

56
Q

are benign, microscopic finger-like projections that grow on any surface.

A

papilomas

57
Q

___ is a benign thyroid tumor

A

thyroid adenoma

58
Q

hyperthyroidism symptoms- excessive sweating, nervousness, agitation, rapid HR, weight loss and fatigue

A

patients with thyroid adenomas may present with these symptoms

59
Q

are benign, slow-growing tumors that arise from epithelial tissue in the pituitary gland.

A

pituitary adenomas

60
Q

can trigger breast milk production in non-lactating females and males and amenorrhea (loss of menstrual periods) in females.

A

benign pituitary tumors can cause too much prolactin secretion

61
Q

composed of fibrous and glandular tissue in the breast

A

fibroadenomas

62
Q

is a benign growth of the surface of the colon (referred to as a polyp).

A

colon adenoma

63
Q

The 2 most common types of intestinal polyps are …

A

adenomas and hyperplastic polyps

64
Q

is a benign tumor composed of connective adipose tissue

A

lipoma

65
Q

is a new piece of bone usually growing on another piece of bone, typically the skull.

A

osteoma

66
Q

is a benign tissue of uterine muscle- referred to as uterine fibroids

A

leiomyoma

67
Q

abdo fullness, gas, or constipation, bleeding between periods, increase in urinary frequency, heavy menstrual bleeding or menorrhagia, periods that may last longer than normal, pelvic cramping or pain with periods, and a sensation of fullness or pressure in the lower abdo

A

symptoms of leiomyoma (uterine fibroids)

68
Q

is a benign tumor of striated muscle

A

rhabdomyoma

69
Q

is a growth or benign tumor of nerve tissue

A

neuroma

70
Q

a type of benign tumor that starts in the brain or spine

A

glioma

71
Q

is a benign tumor of the meninges, the layers of tissue covering the brain and spinal cord

A

meningioma

72
Q

is a benign tumor of the cells that line blood vessels

A

hemangioma

73
Q

are malformations or cell growth of the lymphatic system, which is responsible for draining excess fluid from tissues

A

Lymphagiomas

74
Q
  • anaplasia
  • do not resemble originating tissues
  • rapid, disorganized growth patterns
  • not encapsulated
  • rob normal tissues of essential nutrients
  • metastasize through blood and lymph
A

characteristics of malignant tumors

75
Q

add suffix “carcinoma” or “sarcoma” to the tissue type

A

malignant tumors

76
Q

Cancers that are derived from cells of glandular origin or epithelial tissue type are known as ___

A

carcinomas

77
Q

flat surface epithelial cells are known as ___

A

squammous cells

78
Q

internal body organ epithelial cells are known as ____

A

adenomatous cells

79
Q

The skin and the lining of the esophagus and rectum are lined with ____

A

epithelial squammous cells

80
Q

____ cells are found in the lining of most of our internal body organs.

A

epithelial adenomatous

81
Q

what are the 2 types of CT sarcomas?

A
  • bone sarcomas

- soft tissue sarcomas

82
Q

___ is found in internal organs such as stomach, intestines, blood vessels, or uterus and causes them to contract

A

smooth muscle

83
Q

___ are malignant tumors of smooth muscle

A

Leiomyosarcomas

84
Q

____ are malignant tumors of skeletal or striated muscle

A

Rhabdomyosarcomas

85
Q

The closer the tumor cell resembles comparable normal tissue cells, both morphologically and functionally, the____ the grade.

A

lower

86
Q

refers to a measure of how abnormal cells from the tumor appear under the microscope.

A

tumor grade

87
Q

The ____ the grade, the more aggressive and fast growing the cancer

A

higher

88
Q

The initial tumor is called the

A

primary tumor

89
Q

describe how far cancer has spread anatomically

A

cancer staging systems

90
Q

classifies the extent of the primary tumor

A

the “T”

given as T0-T4

91
Q

a tumor that has not even started to invade the local tissue (called In Situ)

A

T0

92
Q

a large primary tumor that has probably invaded other organs by direct extension, and which is usually inoperable

A

T4

93
Q

classifies the amount of regional lymph node involvement.

A

the “N”

94
Q

no lymph node involvement

A

N0

95
Q

extensive lymph node involvement

A

N4

96
Q

classifies if metastases is involved

A

the “M”

97
Q

is a substance made mostly by the prostate that may be found in an increased amount in the blood of men who have prostate cancer.

A

PSA

98
Q

is a type of protein molecule that can be found in many different cells of the body, but is typically associated with certain tumors

A

CEA

99
Q

is a normal fetal serum protein synthesized by the liver, yolk sac, and GI tract

A

AFP

100
Q

is an antigen present on 80% of ovarian carcinomas

A

CA 125

101
Q

have receptors for estrogen on their surface and their growth often requires the presence of estrogen

A

ER+

102
Q

are more affected by hormonal treatment and tend to be less aggressive

A

ER+

103
Q

sends drugs or substances through the bloodstream to destroy cancer cells all over the body

A

systematic therapy

104
Q

involves the instillation of liquid nitrogen into the tumor through a probe

A

Cryosurgery

105
Q

is the use of a corrosive paste in combination with surgically removing multiple frozen sections of the tumor

A

chemosurgery

106
Q

involves the surgeon using a laser beam to resect a tumor

A

laser surgery

107
Q

involves the surgeon making 2 small incisions in the surgical area, one for viewing the cavity and the other for inserting the instruments to perform the surgery

A

Laparoscopic surgery

108
Q

uses high energy rays to destroy cancer cells

A

radiation therapy (radiotherapy)

109
Q

is when the radiation comes from a large machine outside the body.

A

external radiation

110
Q

the patient swallows liquid or capsules containing radioactive material that travels throughout the body

A

internal radiation

111
Q

placed in implanted seeds, or thin plastic tubes that are put in or near the cancerous tissue or cavity

A

brachytherapy

112
Q

slow or stop cancer cells from growing, multiplying or spreading to other parts of the body

A

chemotherapy drugs

113
Q

Chemotherapeutic drugs are most active against frequently dividing cells, or in all the phases of the cell cycle EXCEPT ____

A

G0

114
Q

are active on cells undergoing division in the cell cycle

A

cell cycle phase specific drugs

115
Q

are active on cells in either a dividing or resting state

A

cell cycle phase-non specific drugs

116
Q

consists of administration of drugs designed to disrupt the hormonal environment of cancer cells

A

hormone therapy

117
Q

uses the body’s own immune system to fight cancer and to reduce treatment-related side effects

A

Biotherapy

118
Q

are drugs or other substances that selectively attack malignant cells while leaving normal cells unharmed.

A

targeted therapy

119
Q

are procedures that restore stem cells that have been destroyed by high doses of chemotherapy and/or radiation therapy

A

Bone marrow transplantation (BMT) and peripheral blood stem cell transplantation (PBSCT)

120
Q

is any medical system, practice, or product that is not thought of as standard care

A

Complimentary and Alternative Therapy (CAM)

121
Q

is an inadvertent leakage of chemotherapeutic drug from a vessel into surrounding tissue

A

Extravasation

122
Q

is a pinpoint hemorrhages on skin and mucous membranes caused by low platelet counts

A

Petechia

123
Q

is a reduction in the number of circulating platelets below 30,000 per cubic mm

A

thrombocytopenia

Pathophysiology - year 3 (8 decks)

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