Cancer Flashcards
1
Q
Series of cellular genetic abberations that cause abnormal cells to proliferate marked by unchecked growth and invasion of surrounding tissues
A
Cancer
2
Q
Cancer has the ability to _________ to secondary sites
A
Metastasize
3
Q
Cell division
A
Mitosis
4
Q
New or continued cell growth not needed for normal development or replacement of dead or damaged cells
A
Neoplasia
5
Q
Term used to describe cancer cells moving from primary tumor by breaking off from original site and establishing remote colonies
A
Metastasize
6
Q
Cancer development with changing of a normal cell to a cancer cell
A
Carcinogenesis
7
Q
Process through which healthy cells become transformed into cancer cells and cells divide in an uncontrolled manner
A
Oncogenesis
8
Q
Substances that change the activity of a cell’s genes so the cell becomes a cancer cell
A
Carcinogens
9
Q
_________ classifies the number and structure of tumor chromosomes as normal or abnormal
A
Ploidy
10
Q
_________ must invade the body first before cancer develops and can be chemical, biological, or environmental
A
Carcinogens
11
Q
Term used to describe cells as having an abnormal structure or number of chromosomes
A
Aneuploidy
12
Q
Genetic portion of DNA that regulates normal cell growth and repair; A mutation may allow cells to proliferate beyond normal body needs
A
Proto-oncogens
13
Q
Mutated genes of normal proto-oncogenes that can give rise to cancer
A
Oncogenes
14
Q
Genetic portion of DNA that stops, inhibits, or suppresses cell division
A
Tumor suppressor genes
15
Q
Programmed cell death that can lead to cancer if failed
A
Apoptosis
16
Q
___ ______ genes make repairs to the DNA caused by carcinogens, but are not able to repair all the damage
A
DNA repair
17
Q
Characteristics of benign tumor cells
A
- Specific morphology (cells look like the tissue they come from)
- nuclear to cytoplasmic ration (nucleus and rest of cell are consistently the same size)
- Specific differentiated functions (acts like normal cells)
- tight adherence
- no migration
- orderly growth
- euploidy (complete set of 23 chromosomes)
18
Q
Characteristics of malignant tumor cells
A
- anaplasia
- large nuclear cytoplasmic ration (nucleus larger than rest of cell)
- specific function lost
- loose adherence
- migration occurs
- contact inhibition does not occur (b/c of loss of cellular regulation)
- rapid or continuous cell division
- abnormal chromosomes (more or less than 23)
- angiogenesis (creation of own blood supply)
19
Q
Describe the process of Carcinogenesis (how cancer metastasizes)
A
1) malignant transformation, 2) initiation, 3) promotion, 4) progression I and II 5) metastasis
20
Q
Process by which carcinogens are introduced resulting in increased growth
A
Promotion
21
Q
Any tumor greater than ___ sonometers needs oxygen and blood supply
A
0.5
22
Q
Adeno: tissue of origin
A
Epithelial glands
23
Q
Adeno: benign tumor
A
Adenoma
24
Q
Adeno: malignant tumor
A
Adenocarcinoma
25
Chondro: tissue of origin
Cartilage
26
Chondro: benign tumor
Chondroma
27
Chondro: malignant tumor
Chondrosarcoma
28
Fibro: tissue of origin
Fibrous connective
29
Fibro: benign tumor
Fibroma
30
Fibro: malignant tumor
Fibrosarcoma
31
Hemangio: tissue of origin
Blood vessel
32
Hemangio: benign tumor
Hemangioma
33
Hemangio: malignant tumor
Hemangiosarcoma
34
Hepato: tissue or origin
Liver
35
Hepato: benign tumor
Hepatoma
36
Hepato: malignant tumor
Hepatocarcinoma/Hepatoblastoma
37
Melano: tissue of origin
Pigment-producing skin (melanin)
38
Melano: malignant tumor
Melanoma
39
Meningio: tissue of origin
Meninges
40
Meningio: benign tumor
Meningioma
41
Meningio: malignant tumor
Malignant meningioma/Meningioblastoma
42
Neuro: tissue of origin
Nerve tissue
43
Neuro: benign tumor
Neuroma/Neurofibroma
44
Neuro: malignant tumor
Neurosarcoma/Neuroblastoma
45
Osteo: tissue of origin
Bone
46
Osteo: benign tumor
Osteoma
47
Osteo: malignant tumor
Osteosarcoma
48
Renal: tissue of origin
Kidneys
49
Renal: malignant tumor
Renal cell carcinoma
50
Rhabdo: tissue of origin
Skeletal muscle
51
Rhabdo: benign tumor
Rhabdomyoma
52
Rhabdo: malignant tumor
Rhabdomyosarcoma
53
Squamous: tissue of origin
Epithelial layer of skin, mucous membranes, and organ linings
54
Squamous: benign tumor
Papilloma
55
Squamous: malignant tumor
Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin, bladder, lungs, cervix
56
Cancer management consists of
Curing and controlling the disease
57
Cancer management surgery used to prevent cancer such as a mastectomy or oophorectomy in women
Prophylactic surgery
58
Cancer management surgery that determines diagnosis or extent of the disease
Diagnostic surgery
59
Cancer management surgery that consists of removing all visible tumor, performing frozen suction of tumor segments, and assessing for cancer cells
Curative surgery
60
Intense surgery involving the administration of heating chemotherapy into the abdominal cavity, allowing it to dwell, then suctioning out the chemo
Cancer control/cytoreduction
61
Cancer management consisting of pain/pressure management with the goal of restoring as much function as possible
Palliative
62
Surgery done prior to chemotherapy to increase the effectiveness of chemo
Debulking surgery
63
The goal of _________ is to kill cancer cells while having minimal damaging effect on surrounding tissue
Radiation
64
Cancer management that blocks the growth and spread of cancer by interfering with the cellular growth pathways involves in cellular regulation
Small molecule inhibitor targeted therapy
65
Cancer management used in some upper GI therapies and skin cancer
Photodynamic therapy
66
Cancer management used to block hormone production in hormone driven tumors
Hormonal manipulation
67
Cytotoxic systemic therapy involves
Chemotherapy, oral, IV, intracranial, intrathecal
68
Biological response modifier therapy (BRM) is also called _________, and uses substances from living organisms and the individual’s own immune system to fight cancer and treat the disease
Immunotherapy
69
Radiation nursing considerations
Minimize as much exposure time as possible, always wear lead aprons, keep distance!
70
What is the most critical site for radiation therapy?
DNA
71
Cancer vaccine
HPV
72
_________ chemotherapy is given after primary intervention such as surgery to prevent of lessen the chance of cells growing back and to decrease tumor growth
Adjuvant
73
General cancer risk factors
Smoking, age > 55 (although now being seen in younger populations), poor nutrition, sedentary lifestyle, exposure to chemical and airborne pollutants, previous radiation and chemotherapy, genetics
74
Detailed cancer staging assesses what three factors?
Tumor, Nodes, and Mets (TNM)
75
Cancer staging: Tx
Main tumor cannot be measured
76
Cancer staging: T0
Main tumor not found
77
Cancer staging that refers to size and/or extent of main tumor; the higher the # the larger the tumor
T1,2,3,4
78
Cancer staging: Nx
Regional lymph nodes not measured
79
Cancer staging: N0
No cancer in nearby lymph nodes
80
Cancer staging ___ refers to the number and location of MOBILE lymph nodes that contain cancer
N1
81
Cancer staging ___ refers to the number of FIXED nodes involved
N2
82
Cancer staging: Mx
Mets can’t be measured
83
Cancer staging ___ indicates cancer had not spread to other parts of the body
M0
84
Cancer staging ___ indicates cancer has spread outside the original tumor to other organs
M1
85
Precursor to cancer by which abnormal cells are present, but there is no cancer
Stage 0 (Carcinoma in Situ)
86
Stages in which cancer is present
I, II, III (the larger the tumor or more it has spread to nearby tissues increase the stage)
87
Stage in which cancer has spread to distant organs of the body
IV
88
Cancer that is _________ differentiated describes the tumor acting and looking normal, but is not. This staging usually has better outcomes
Highly
89
Cancer that is _________ differentiated describes the tumor as irregular with no resemblance to normal cells, exhibits rapid growth, and metastasizes easily
Poorly
90
Types of lung cancer
Small cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, large-cell carcinoma
91
What is the #1 risk factor for lung cancer?
Smoking (including vaping)
92
Respiratory symptoms of lung cancer
Cough, hemoptysis, wheezing, dyspnea, chest pain (dull or pleuritic), hoarseness, dysphasia, pleural effusion
93
Cardiovascular symptoms of lung cancer
Compression of the superior vena cava
94
GI symptoms of lung cancer
Anorexia
95
Metabolic processes related to lung cancer
Weight loss and fever
96
Paraneoplastic endocrine symptoms/syndromes of cancer
Hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, Cushing syndrome, SIADH, hyponatremia
97
Paraneoplastic cardiovascular symptoms of cancer
Thrombophlebitis, endocarditis
98
Paraneoplastic hematologic effects of cancer
Anemia, DIC, Eosinophilia
99
Paraneoplastic connective tissue syndromes of cancer
Osteoarthropathy with clubbing and periosteal inflammation
100
Paraneoplastic neuromuscular effects of cancer
Peripheral neuropathy, cerebellar degeneration, myasthenia-like muscle weakness
101
Second-line cancer treatment that works with T cells, B cells, and Natural Killer Cells to kill what has not been killed
Immunotherapy
102
Most colorectal cancers are _________ and are most often found within the __________ area
Adenocarcinomas; rectosigmoid
103
What is the most common site of metastasis with colorectal cancer?
Liver
104
Colorectal cancer risk factors
Age >50, genetics, family hx, Crohn’s, UC, H. Pylori, HPV, high fat and processed foods, smoking
105
S/S of colorectal cancer
Rectal bleeding and changes in bowel habits
106
Surgical treatment of colorectal cancer
Colon resection or abdominal perineal resection (resulting in permanent ileostomy)
107
What are the 4 types of leukemia?
1) acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), 2) chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), 3) acute myeloid leukemia (AML), 4) chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
108
Myeloid leukemias arise from
Myeloid tissue
109
Lymphoblastic leukemias arise from
Lymph system
110
_________ results from excessive growth of immature lymphocytes which leads to stoppage of normal bone marrow production
ALL
111
Leukemia risk factors
Radiation, chemicals, drugs, immunity factors, previous chemo and radiation, genetics
112
Respiratory S/S of leukemia
SOB, dyspnea on exertion
113
Hematologic symptoms of leukemia
Clotting disorders, nose bleeds, bleeding gums, excessive bruising, petechiae, high WBC and blasts
114
Reproductive symptoms of leukemia
Increased menstrual flow
115
GU symptoms of leukemia
Hematuria
116
GI symptoms of leukemia
Rectal bleeding, loss of appetite
117
CNS symptoms of leukemia
Headaches, behavioral changes, fatigue
118
Cardiovascular symptoms of leukemia
Palpitations, hypotension
119
Lab tests for leukemia
CBC/CMP, bone marrow aspiration, clotting factors, chromosome analysis
120
Chromosome analysis for leukemia
Philadelphia chromosome found only in CML or ALL
121
Types of Lymphomas
Hodgkin’s and Non-Hodgkin’s
122
What population is Hodgkin’s most common in?
Teens and young adults and 50-60 yo.
123
Possible causes of Hodgkin’s
Viruses — Epstein Barr, HIV, and chemical exposures
124
Lymphoma that usually starts in a single node or single chain of nodes
Hodgkin’s
125
Hallmark of Hodgkin’s
Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells
126
Hodgkin’s treatment for early and extensive stages
Early — aggressive external radiation; Extensive — chemo and radiation
127
All lymphoid cancers that do not contain Reed-Sternberg cells
Non-Hodgkin’s
128
Non-Hodgkin’s has a higher incidence in
Transplant patients, those on immunosuppressive therapy, and HIV
129
_________ in the stomach is thought to be a precursor to mucosa-associated lymphoma (MALT)
H. Pylori
130
Non-Hodgkin’s treatment
Combo chemo, MABs, localized radiation, I 131 radiolabeled antibodies, targeted therapy, CarT cell therapy to increase immune system
131
_________ are solid tumors in the lymphoid tissues such as lymph nodes, lymph organs such as spleen, and liver
Lymphomas
132
S/S of lymphomas
Drenching night sweats, unintentional weight loss, fatigue — poor prognosis with these symptoms
133
Lymphoma treatment patient education
Increased risk for permanent fertility and sterility in males
134
Types of skin cancer
Actinic keratosis, basal cell, squamous cell, melanoma
135
Most common precancerous lesions related to sun damage that can progress to squamous cell carcinoma
Actinic keratosis
136
Skin cancer prevention
Wear sunscreen, avoid sun
137
Most common skin cancer affecting the basal layer of the epidermis
Basal cell carcinoma
138
Most common cause of basal cell carcinoma
UV exposure
139
Melanomas arise from
Melanin
140
ABCDE assessment of melanoma
Asymmetry, Borders irregular, Color (multicolored w/blackened or dark spots), Diameter >6mm (pencil eraser), Evolution (changes in size, color, border)
141
Melanoma risk factors
Genetics, chemical carcinogens, sun exposure — melanomas are HIGHLY metastatic
142
Two broad categories of breast cancer
Non-invasive and invasive
143
Breast cancer that remains within the duct
Non-invasive
144
Most common breast cancer that grows into surrounding breast tissue or beyond
Invasive
145
Breast cancer is diagnosed according to
ER/PR/Her2Neu status — whether positive or negative and Triple Negative which lacks expression of ER/PR and Her2Neu
146
Breast cancer is more prevalent in
African American and Jewish women
147
Breast cancer comes from a _____ transformed cell
SINGLE
148
Breast cancer that has not invaded surrounding tissue, but can be a precursor and is found in the DUCTS of the breasts
Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
149
Most common type of breast cancer that causes dimpling of the skin of the breasts (orange peel appearance)
Invasive ductal carcinoma
150
Cancer of the nipple(s)
Paget’s Disease
151
Breast cancer treatment
Chemo, radiation, surgery
152
Cells inside some of the breast LOBULES have started to become abnormal
Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)
153
Most cancers of the cervix arise from
Squamous cells
154
Metastatic diseases of the cervix are usually confined to the
Pelvis
155
Most cases of cervical cancer are caused by
HPV
156
_________ cancers are the leading cause of GYN deaths
Ovarian
157
Ovarian cancer risk factors
Older age, obesity, estrogen use, certain fertility diagnoses
158
S/S of cervical cancer
Abnormal vaginal bleeding or discharge
159
S/S of ovarian cancer
Abnormal vaginal bleeding/discharge, feeling full too quickly or difficulty eating, pelvic pain/pressure, frequent urination or urgency, constipation, bloating, abdominal or back pain
160
S/S of uterine cancer
Abnormal vaginal bleeding/discharge, pelvic pain/pressure
161
S/S of vaginal cancer
Abnormal vaginal bleeding/discharge, frequency urination or urgency
162
S/S of vulvar cancer
Itchin, burning, pin, or tenderness of vulva, changes in vulva color or skin, such as rash, sores, or warts
163
First treatment for cervical or ovarian cancers
Hysterectomy
164
T or F: cervical and ovarian cancers have a high recurrence rate
True
165
Internal radiation therapy used to treat cancers of the cervix, prostate, etc.
Brachytherapy
166
Brachytherapy nursing considerations/patient education
No visitors, patient placed in special room, foley insertion, need at least 3 doses of medication
167
Brachytherapy nursing intervention
Pain management
168
Symptoms of enlarged prostate
Hematuria, dysuria, nocturia, decreased urine stream, urgency
169
T or F: an enlarged prostrate is an abnormal process in aging men
False; prostate enlargement is a normal process in aging men
170
Characteristics of prostate cancer
Most are adenocarcinomas, slowest growing of all cancers, metastasis is very predictable, good prognosis if found and treated early
171
Prostate cancer metastasizes to
Bone
172
Prostate cancer risk factors
Advanced age, family hx, African American men
173
Prostate cancer treatment
Radiation and brachytherapy
174
Medications for prostate cancer
Androgen deprivation therapy, chemotherapy
175
Lung cancer can metastasize to the
Bone, brain, adrenal gland
176
Breast cancer can metastasize to the
Brain, bone, lungs, liver
177
Skin melanoma can metastasize to the
Brain
178
Ovarian cancer can metastasize to the
Pleura, liver
179
Chemo drugs are classified as pregnancy category ___ or ___ and its usage choice is based on benefits vs. risks
D; X
180
Chemo and radiation can cause significant permanent fetal harm or death with greatest risk during the _____ trimester
First
181
Chemo can be given during what trimesters to improve maternal outcome without significant fetal risk?
2nd and 3rd
182
Reproductive risks associated with killing of germinal epithelial cells
Irreversible sterility in males, ovarian damage w/ subsequent amenorrhea in females, possible teratogenic effects on pregnant women with possible fetal death
183
Pregnancy category D chemo drugs
Benefit outweighs the risk
184
Pregnancy category X chemo drugs
Contraindicated
185
Breast cancer incidence
1 in 8 women
186
Prostate cancer incidence
1 in 8 men
187
Assessment of malignant cell proliferation
Impaired immunity and clotting, altered GI function, altered peripheral nerve function, motor and sensory deficits, cancer pain, altered respiratory and cardiac function
188
Decreased labs associated with chemotherapy
Neutrophils (neutropenia), WBCs (leukopenia), platelets (thrombocytopenia)
189
Absolute neutrophil count less than ___ is critical in cancer patients
1.5
190
S/S of thrombocytopenia
Increased fatigue, SOB, tachycardia, impaired clotting, increased bleeding
191
Side effects of chemotherapy
Alterations in food taste, metallic taste, decreased appetite
192
Education for patients with decreased appetite related to chemotherapy
Consume small, frequently meals; drink liquid substances such as ensure; keep food diary
193
Cancer patients with inadequate nutrient intake may require TPN, but this carries and increased risk for
Infection
194
Inflammation of the mucosa, the mucous membranes that line the mouth, causing mouth sores and fungal infections with white, scaly patches on skin and tongue
Mucusitis
195
Food recommendations for patients with mucusitis
Soft foods such as yogurt (probiotics help decrease fungal flora)
196
Interventions for metallic taste related to chemotherapy
Have the patient suck on lemon drops prior to eating; avoid metal pots/pans and utensils
197
Intervention for chemotherapy induced nausea/vomiting
Antiemetics
198
Cancer is suspected in the _________ if the patient presents with dysphasia
Esophagus
199
Manifestations of chemo induced peripheral neuropathy
Change in gait and balance, loss of sensation or paresthesias in extremities
200
#1 risk for patients with bone cancers
Fractures
201
Bone Mets can cause
Hypercalcemia
202
Cancer pain
Can be acute, chronic, or idiopathic; may result from the cancer itself or treatment
203
Characteristics of acute cancer pain
Described as pins and needles, burning
204
Cancer pain treatment
Start with low-level ASA, acetaminophen, naproxen; progress to opioids (oxycodone, OxyContin, dilaudid, morphine); adjuvant therapies (amytriptyline, anticonvulsants); PCA (increase basal rate if pt hits button to frequently); epidural placement
205
PCA education
Only the patient can hit the button!
206
Nursing actions for airway difficulties
Oxygen, suction as needed, turn-cough-deep breathe, chest percussion
207
The leakage of blood, lymph, or other fluid, caused by vesicant, from a blood vessel or tub into the tissue around it resulting in severe damage
Extravasation
208
Extravasation interventions
STOP infusion, disconnect tubing from hub, call health care provider
209
Low red blood cells
Anemia
210
Anemia interventions
Epoietin Alfa, iron and folic acid supplements, rest
211
Interventions for neutropenia (ANC <1.5, admitted if less than 0.5)
Neutropenic precautions: Full PPE, visitors for only 30 min at a time, visitors not allowed if ill, dedicated equipment for pt, disinfection (priority), NO plants or flowers in room
212
Pharmacological prevention of neutropenia
Filgastrim (5-10 mcg/kg/day, subq for up to 5 days, 24-72 hrs POST chemo); Pegfilgastrim (24 hrs POST chemo 6mg/0.6mL)
213
Medication that forces bone marrow to make more WBCs when the patient is already neutropenic
Filgastrim
214
Medication given to reduce the CHANCE of neutropenia
Pegfilgastrim
215
Home instructions for discharging a patient who has undergone chemo
Monitor temp daily (call if >100.4), avoid crowds, do NOT work in garden or with soil, NO RAW foods, do NOT handle cat litter, frequently disinfect toothbrush in dishwasher (weekly; esp. if pt has mucusitis)
216
Thrombocytopenia patient education
Monitor for bleeding (melena, hematuria, hematemesis), avoid IVs if possible, use soft-bristled toothbrushes and electric razors, avoid NSAIDs, use assistive devices to avoid falls
217
Alopecia interventions
Ice cap prior to and during chemotherapy, avoid direct sunlight if shaved head, look for wigs prior to starting chemo, shaving head can prevent pain related to destruction of hair follicles
218
Extreme body wasting and malnutrition in advanced cancer patients
Cachexia
219
Cachexia interventions
NUTRITION, T or PEG tubes, small frequent meals, monitor weight daily, food diary, appetite stimulating agents: megestrol and MJ (although cannot advise patient to take MJ)
220
Mucusitis interventions
Avoid mouthwash w/ alcohol in it, baking soda and salt water rinses, cold foods and yogurt, brush teeth and use mouthwash before AND after eating
221
Types of chemotherapy induced N/V (CIPM)
- anticipatory
- acute (within 24 hr)
- delayed (after 24 hr)
- breakthrough (intermittent, no regular pattern)
222
Medications for CIPM
Serotonin antagonists, Ondansetron, neurokinin, neuroreceptor antagonists, corticosteroids
223
Patients at high risk for sepsis
Neutropenic patients
224
Sepsis presentation in cancer patients
Low-grade fever
225
Two stage disorder triggered by sepsis characterized by extensive abnormal clotting that depletes clotting factors and platelets, followed by extensive hemorrhaging from multiple sites at once
DIC
226
Clots related to DIC can result in symptoms such as
Pain, ischemia, stroke-like symptoms, dyspnea, tachycardia, decreased kidney function, bowel necrosis
227
DIC interventions in early and late stages
Early — prevent infections (antibiotics), anticoagulants such as heparin; Late — clotting factors such as platelets and albumin
228
Disorder of impaired water retention seen especially in small cell lung cancer patients
SIADH
229
In SIADH, water is reabsorbed in excess by the kidneys and put back into circulation causing electrolyte imbalances such as
Hyponatremia
230
Hyponatremia symptoms
Muscle weakness and cramps, fatigue
231
SIADH interventions
Draw sodium levels frequently, fluid restriction, increase sodium SLOWLY (can overcorrect quickly), IV drug therapy, immediate cancer treatment, monitor for S/S of fluid overload
232
Symptoms of increasing water retention related to SIADH
Sodium level decreases, edema and weight gain, CNS and personality changes, confusion, extreme muscle weakness
233
Sodium less than 110 S/S
Seizure, coma, death
234
Ontological emergency that occurs when tumor directly enters the spinal column or when a vertebra collapses from tumor degradation
Spinal cord compression
235
Most common site for spinal cord compression
Thoracic spine
236
Spinal cord compression treatment
MRI first; often palliative (start w/ high dose corticosteroids followed by tapered doses), surgery
237
Hypercalcemia is an oncological emergency caused by bone Mets and is worsened with
Dehydration
238
S/S of Hypercalcemia
Skeletal muscle pain, fatigue, N/V, constipation (review previous unit)
239
Hypercalcemia treatment
Aggressive IV hydration with NS, dialysis (review previous unit)
240
Oncological emergency by which the vena cava of the heart is being compressed by a tumor
Superior vena cava syndrome
241
S/S of superior vena cava syndrome
Facial edema, periorbital edema, engorged blood vessels and erythema of upper body, dyspnea, stridor
242
Diagnosis of superior vena cava syndrome
MRI and CT
243
Oncological emergency characterized by a dump of tumor cells into the blood stream
Tumor lysis syndrome
244
S/S of tumor lysis syndrome
Hyperkalemia, tall T waves, flat P waves, bradycardia, hyperuricemia, AKI, lethargy, N/V, CHANGE IN UOP**, anorexia, flank pain, muscle weakness and cramps, seizures
245
Tumor lysis syndrome treatment
Hydration, preventing uric acid build-up, dilute potassium levels
246
Lymph dissection can lead to
Lymphedema
247
Prostate cancer always carries a risk for
Sexual dysfunction
248
If a patient has undergone bone marrow biopsy and is thrombocytopenic, the priority is to
Control bleeding at site
249
Symptom that alerts the nurse of tumor lysis syndrome
Change in urinary output
250
Common preschooler reaction to cancer diagnosis
They often think they caused the illness and are now being punished for it
251
Symptoms associated with spinal cord compression that the patient should alert the physician of
Sudden onset of back pain, decreased sensation in legs, edema
252
What should the nurse monitor for in patients receiving immunotherapy
Dyspnea, possible pneumonitis
253
What should the nurse monitor for in patients receiving radiation
Burns, lower GI issues
254
Hypercalcemia is a result of
Sepsis
