C4 Brock Sample Questions Flashcards
The functional unit of genetic information is the
A) nucleotide.
B) gene.
C) chromosome.
D) protein.
B) gene.
A gene is considered the functional unit of genetic information because it encodes the instructions for making a specific protein or functional product.
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning mRNA?
A) mRNA has a very short half-life.
B) mRNA has complex secondary structure.
C) mRNA is catalytic.
D) mRNA is the product of translation.
A) mRNA has a very short half-life.
Many mRNA molecules have short half-lives, which allows for rapid response to changes in the cell’s environment by altering gene expression.
DNA-binding proteins interact predominantly within which portion of a double-stranded DNA helix?
A) major groove
B) minor groove
C) 3ʹ end
D) supercoil
A) major groove
The major groove of the DNA double helix provides a wider and more accessible space for DNA-binding proteins to interact with specific DNA sequences.
AT-rich DNA will denature/melt
A) at a higher temperature than GC-rich DNA.
B) at a lower temperature than GC-rich DNA.
C) usually at the same temperature as GC-rich DNA, with some minor variations.
D) in accordance with the animal or plant from which it was taken.
B) at a lower temperature than GC-rich DNA.
AT base pairs have two hydrogen bonds, whereas GC base pairs have three. This makes AT-rich DNA more easily denatured (melted) at lower temperatures due to the weaker interactions.
Supercoiling is important for DNA structure, because
A) it holds together the antiparallel strands of DNA in the double helix.
B) it provides energy for transcription.
C) it condenses the DNA so that it can fit inside the cell.
D) it prevents RNA from pairing with DNA in the double helix.
C) it condenses the DNA so that it can fit inside the cell.
Supercoiling helps to pack DNA into a smaller space, making it possible for the lengthy molecule to fit within the cell’s nucleus or the prokaryotic cell.
Many pharmaceutical drugs specifically inhibit transcription in Bacteria but not Archaea or Eukarya. Why would drugs that inhibit transcription only affect Bacteria and not Archaea even though they are both prokaryotes?
A) Archaea and Eukarya have very similar ribosomes that are different than bacterial ribosomes.
B) Bacteria lack a nucleus.
C) Archaea lack operons.
D) Archaea and Eukarya have very similar RNA polymerases that are different than bacterial RNA polymerases.
D) Archaea and Eukarya have very similar RNA polymerases that are different than bacterial RNA polymerases.
The specificity of these drugs towards bacterial transcription is largely due to differences in RNA polymerase structure between bacteria and the other two domains of life.
How are plasmids different than chromosomes?
A) Plasmids are always small, linear pieces of DNA. B) Plasmids are composed of single-stranded DNA.
C) Plasmids contain genes that are NOT essential for cellular growth and replication.
D) `Plasmids carry unimportant genes that are of little significance for the ecology and metabolism of an organism.
C) Plasmids contain genes that are NOT essential for cellular growth and replication.
While not exclusively true in all cases, plasmids often carry accessory genes that provide advantageous but non-essential traits, distinguishing them from chromosomes which carry essential genes.
Genes that are encoded for polymerases, gyrases, ribosomal proteins, and other proteins essential to replication, transcription, and translation are present on
A) chromosomes.
B) plasmids.
C) chromosomes and plasmids.
D) neither chromosomes nor plasmids.
A) chromosomes.
Essential genes for basic cellular processes like replication, transcription, and translation are typically found on chromosomes, ensuring their presence and stability in the cell.
The precursor of each new nucleotide in a strand of DNA is a
A) deoxynucleoside 5ʹ-diphosphate.
B) deoxynucleoside 3ʹ-diphosphate.
C) deoxynucleoside 5ʹ-triphosphate.
D) deoxynucleoside 3ʹ-triphosphate.
C) deoxynucleoside 5ʹ-triphosphate.
dNTPs (deoxynucleoside triphosphates) are the direct precursors for DNA synthesis, providing the energy for phosphodiester bond formation.
DNA replication always proceeds in only one direction because the of the incoming nucleotide is attached to the free of the growing DNA strand.
A) 5ʹ-phosphate / 3ʹ-hydroxyl
B) 3ʹ-phosphate / 5ʹ-hydroxyl
C) 5ʹ-deoxyribose / 3ʹ-base
D) 3ʹ-base / 5ʹ-deoxyribose
A) 5ʹ-phosphate / 3ʹ-hydroxyl
DNA synthesis proceeds in the 5’ to 3’ direction because DNA polymerase adds new nucleotides to the 3’-hydroxyl end of the growing strand, attaching to the 5’-phosphate of the incoming nucleotide.
Which of the following is formed on the lagging strand during DNA synthesis?
A) DNA secondary structures
B) Okazaki fragments
C) RNA polymerase
D) replisomes
B) Okazaki fragments
Due to the antiparallel nature of DNA and the unidirectional synthesis, the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously as short segments known as Okazaki fragments.
The template for RNA polymerase is _______, and the new RNA molecule is ________ to the template.
A) an independent RNA segment / parallel and identical
B) DNA / antiparallel and complementary
C) an independent RNA segment / antiparallel and complementary
D) DNA / parallel and identical
B) DNA / antiparallel and complementary
RNA polymerase uses DNA as a template, and the synthesized RNA strand is antiparallel and complementary to the DNA template strand.
In the process of transcription, promoters are specific sequences of that are recognized by ________.
A) DNA / DNA polymerase
B) RNA / DNA polymerase
C) DNA / sigma factors
D) RNA / ribosomes
C) DNA / sigma factors
Sigma factors, part of the RNA polymerase holoenzyme in prokaryotes, recognize and bind to specific DNA sequences known as promoters to initiate transcription.
An example of correct nucleotide pairing is
A) T and U.
B) G and U.
C) A and T.
D) C and U.
C) A and T.
In DNA, adenine (A) pairs with thymine (T) through two hydrogen bonds.
Stop codons are also called codons.
A) nonsense
B) release factor
C) degeneracy
D) conversion
A) nonsense
Stop codons are often referred to as nonsense codons because they do not code for any amino acid, instead signaling the termination of protein synthesis.
Transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules
A) function to transfer ribonucleotides to RNA polymerase during transcription.
B) function to transfer the correct amino acids to the ribosome during translation.
C) contain codons that bind to ribosomes during translation.
D) are only present in the nucleus or eukaryotes.
B) function to transfer the correct amino acids to the ribosome during translation.
The primary role of tRNA is to act as an adaptor molecule, linking the language of nucleotides to the language of amino acids by bringing the correct amino acid to the ribosome during protein synthesis.
tRNA is released from the ribosome at the site.
A) P
B) A
C) R
D) E
D) E
The E (Exit) site is where the tRNA, after donating its amino acid to the growing peptide chain, is released from the ribosome.
Which statement is TRUE regarding protein synthesis?
A) Ribosomal proteins catalyze peptide bond formation in the growing polypeptide chain.
B) The 23S rRNA catalyzes peptide bond formation in the growing polypeptide chain.
C) Transfer RNAs catalyze peptide bond formation in the growing polypeptide chain.
D) Messenger RNA catalyzes peptide bond formation in the growing polypeptide chain.
B) The 23S rRNA catalyzes peptide bond formation in the growing polypeptide chain.
In the ribosome, the 23S rRNA (part of the large subunit) plays a crucial catalytic role in forming peptide bonds between amino acids.
The Tat system is involved in
A) protein synthesis.
B) transcriptional initiation.
C) protein folding.
D) protein secretion.
D) protein secretion.
The Twin-arginine translocation (Tat) system is a protein transport system that secretes folded proteins across the cytoplasmic membrane in bacteria.
In all cells, genes are composed of
A) nucleic acids.
B) mRNA.
C) proteins.
D) chaperones.
A) nucleic acids.
Genes, by definition, are sequences of nucleic acids (DNA or, in some viruses, RNA) that encode information.
Which of the following is an example of one codon?
A) CATT
B) GCCATT
C) CAG
D) CCGUAA
C) CAG
A codon is a sequence of three nucleotides that together form a unit of genetic code in a DNA or RNA molecule. CAG is a specific example of a codon.
In all cells a gene encodes for
A) a protein (via mRNA).
B) a tRNA.
C) an rRNA.
D) a protein, tRNA, or rRNA depending on the specific gene.
D) a protein, tRNA, or rRNA depending on the specific gene.
While many genes encode proteins, others encode functional RNA molecules like tRNA and rRNA, which are crucial for protein synthesis.
Which of the following is NOT correct regarding DNA and RNA synthesis?
A) The overall direction of chain growth is from the 5ʹ to 3ʹ end.
B) Both processes require an RNA primer to begin.
C) The template strand is antiparallel to the newly synthesized strand.
D) DNA is the template for both DNA and RNA synthesis.
D) DNA is the template for both DNA and RNA synthesis.
While DNA serves as the template for DNA replication and transcription (RNA synthesis), RNA can also serve as a template for certain processes (e.g., reverse transcription in retroviruses).
Termination of RNA synthesis is ultimately determined by
A) exhaustion of RNA polymerase activity.
B) special protein factors.
C) terminases.
D) specific nucleotide sequences on the template strand.
D) specific nucleotide sequences on the template strand.
Termination of transcription is often signaled by specific DNA sequences that, when transcribed into RNA, trigger the release of the newly synthesized RNA from the RNA polymerase.