Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

S2: RADT 111 Fundamentals > C15: Notes > Flashcards

C15: Notes Flashcards

1
Q

the displacement of a bone that is no longer in contact with its normal articulation

A

dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

a serious injury or shock to the body, often requiring modifications that may include variations in positioning, minimal movement of the body part, and so on

A

trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

as with fractures, dislocations should be imaged

A

in two planes, 90 degrees to each other to demonstrate the degree of displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

a traumatic partial dislocation of the radial head of a child

A

nursemaid elbow (or jerked elbow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what causes a nursemaid elbow?

A

a hard pull on the hand and wrist of a child by an adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

a forced wrenching or twisting of a joint resulting in a partial rupture or tearing of supporting ligaments, without dislocation

A

sprain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what may result from a sprain?

A

severe damage to associated blood vessels, tendons, ligaments, and/or nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what frequently accompanies a severe sprain?

A

severe swelling and discoloration caused by hemorrhage of ruptured blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

a bruise type of injury with a possible avulsion fracture

A

contusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

a disruption of bone caused by mechanical forces applied either directly to the bone or transmitted along the shaft of the bone

A

fracture (fx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

a fracture is aligned if

A

the long axes of the bone remain parallel to each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

apposition describes

A

how the fragmented ends of the bone make contact with each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how many types of apposition are there?

A

three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the three types of apposition?

A

anatomic apposition, lack of apposition (distraction), Bayonet apposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

anatomic alignment of ends of fractured bone fragments, wherin the ends of the fragments make end-to-end contact

A

anatomic apposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

partial dislocation

A

subluxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

the ends of fragments are aligned but pulled apart and are not making contact with each other

A

lack of apposition (distraction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the fracture fragments overlap and the shafts make contact, but not at the fracture ends

A

Bayonet apposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

loss of alignment of the fracture

A

angulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

the direction of the angulation is termed what

A

apex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

the apex is opposite in relation to

A

the distal part of the fracture fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

the direction or angle of the apex of the fracture, such as a medial or lateral apex, wherein the point or apex of the fracture points medially or laterally

A

apex angulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the distal fragment ends are angled toward the midline of the body and the apex is pointed away from the midline

A

varus deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

the distal fragment ends are angled away from the midline and the apex is pointed toward the midline

A

valgus deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

a fracture in which the bone does not break through the skin

A

simple (closed) fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

a fracture in which a portion of the bone (usually the fragmented end) protrudes through the skin

A

compound (open) fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

fracture does not transverse through the entire bone (not broken into two pieces)

A

incomplete (partial) fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

buckle of the cortex (outer portion of the bone) is characterized by localized expansion or torus of the cortex, possibly with little or no displacement, and no complete break in the cortex

A

torus fx (buckle fx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

fracture is on one side only; the cortex on one side of the bone is broken and the other side is bent; when the bone straightens, a faint fracture line in the cortex may be seen on one side of the bone, and a slight bulging or wrinkle-like defect is seen on the opposite side

A

greenstick fx (hickory or willow stick fx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

fracture is complete and includes the cross-section of bone (broken into two pieces)

A

complete fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

fracture is transverse at a near right angle to the long axis of the bone

A

transverse fx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

fracture passes through bone at an oblique angle

A

oblique fx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

fracture where the bone has been twisted apart and the fracture spirals around the long axis

A

spiral fx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

fracture where the bone is splintered or crushed at the site of impact, resulting in two or more fragments

A

comminuted fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

a type of double fracture in which two fracture lines isolate a distinct segment of bone; the bone is broken into three pieces, with the middle fragment fractured at both ends

A

segmental fx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

a comminuted fracture with two fragments on each side of a main, wedge-shaped separate fragment; it has some resemblance to the wings of a butterfly

A

butterfly fx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

a comminuted fracture in which the bone is splintered into thin sharp fragments

A

splintered fx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

one fracture is firmly driven into the other

A

impacted fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

where do impacted fractures most commonly occur?

A

at distal or proximal ends of the femur, humerus, or radius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

an intra-articular fracture of the distal radius often associated with dislocation or subluxation of the radiocarpal joint

A

Barton fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

fracture of the distal phalanx caused by a ball striking the end of an extended finger; the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint is partially flexed, and an avulsion fracture is frequently present at the posterior base of the distal phalanx

A

baseball (Mallet) fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

longitudinal fracture which occurs at the base of the first metacarpal with the fracture line entering the carpometacarpal joint, generally includes a posterior dislocation or subluxation

A

Bennett fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

fracture that usually involves the distal fifth metacarpal, with an apex posterior angulation best demonstrated on the lateral view

A

boxer fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what fracture results from punching someone or something

A

boxer fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

fracture of the wrist in which the distal radius is fractured with the distal fragment displaced posteriorly

A

Colles fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what fracture may result from a forward fall on an outstretched arm?

A

Colles fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

a fracture of the wrist with the distal fragment of the radius displaced anteriorly rather than posteriorly

A

Smith (reverse Colles) fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what fracture commonly results from a backward fall on an outstretched arm

A

Smith (reverse Colles) fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

fracture that occurs through the pedicles of the axis (C2), with or without displacement of C2 or C3

A

hangman fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

an intra-articular fracture of the radial styloid process

A

Hutchinson (Chauffeur) fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

fracture of the proximal half of the ulna, along with dislocation of the radial head

A

Monteggia fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

a complete fracture of the distal fibula with major injury to the ankle joint, including ligament damage and frequent fracture of the distal tibia or medial malleolus

A

Pott’s fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

fracture results from severe stress to a tendon or ligament in a joint region; a fragment of bone is separated or pulled away by the attached tendon or ligament

A

avulsion fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

result from a direct blow to the orbit and/or maxilla and zygoma, create fractures to the orbital floor and lateral orbital margins

A

blowout and/or tripod fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

fracture involving an isolated bone fragment (is not caused by tendon or ligament stress)

A

chip fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

vertebral fracture caused by compression-type injury; the vertebral body collapses or is compressed

A

compression fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what fracture is most evident radiographically by a decreased vertical dimension of the anterior vertebral body

A

compression fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

fracture of the skull where a fragment is depressed; appearance is similar to a Ping-Pong ball that has been pressed in by the finger

A

depressed fracture (or ping-pong fracture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

a fracture through the epiphyseal plate, the point of union of the epiphysis and shaft of a bone

A

epiphyseal fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what fracture is one of the most easily fractured sites in long bones of children?

A

epiphyseal fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

fractures due to disease process within the bone

A

pathologic fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

fracture where lines radiate from a central point of injury with a starlike pattern

A

stellate fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

where does a stellate fracture usually occur? what is it often caused by?

A

patella; often caused by knees hitting the dashboard in a motor vehicle accident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

a nontraumatic fracture in origin that results from repeated stress on a bone; are frequently difficult to demonstrate radiographically and may be visible only through subsequent callus formation at the fracture site or on a NM bone scan

A

stress or fatigue fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

fracture of the ankle joint involves the medial and lateral malleoli as well as the posterior lip of the distal tibia

A

trimalleolar fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

comminuted fracture of the distal phalynx may be caused by a crushing blow to the distal finger or thumb

A

tuft or Burst fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

fracture fragments are realigned by manipulation and are immobilized by a cast or splint; is a nonsurgical procedure

A

closed reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

for severe fractures with significant displacement or fragmentation, a surgical procedure is required; fracture site is exposed and screws, plates, or rods are installed as needed to maintain alignment of the bony fragments until new bone growth can take place

A

open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

anterior cruciate ligament

A

ACL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

stiffening of a joint by operative means

A

arthrodesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

any disease that affects a joint

A

arthropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

creation of an artificial joint to correct ankylosis

A

arthroplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

a state of sterility; condition in which living pathogens are absent

A

asepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

orthopedic screw designed to enter and fix porous and spongy bone

A

cancellous screw

75
Q

large screw used for internal fixation of nondisplaced fractures of proximal femur

A

cannulated screw

76
Q

an artificial regulator for cardiac rate and rhythm

A

cardiac pacemaker

77
Q

orthopedic wire that tightens around fracture stie to reduce shortening of limb

A

cerclage wire

78
Q

the use of radioactive cesium in the treatment of certain malignancies, including prostate cancer

A

cesium implants

79
Q

surgical removal of gallbladder

A

cholecystectomy

80
Q

procedure in which bone fragments are reduced manually without surgical intervention

A

closed reduction

81
Q

narrow orthopedic screw designed to enter and fix cortical bone

A

cortical screw

82
Q

closed reduction (cast or traction)

A

CR

83
Q

lighted tubular endoscope used for examination of the urinary bladder

A

cystoscope

84
Q

dynamic hip screw

A

DHS

85
Q

screw and plate combination used to apply forces through the fracture site; used commonly for long bone saft fractures in which stress may be great

A

dynamic compression plate

86
Q

electrohydraulic shock waves used to break apart calcifications in the urinary system

A

ESWL (extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy)

87
Q

external fixation

A

EX-FIX

88
Q

a special OR table used for hip pinnings and other orthopedic procedures to provide traction to the involved limb and allow fluoroscopy to be performed during the procedure

A

fracture (orthopedic) table

89
Q

surgical procedure designed to reduce proximal femoral fractures through the use of various internal fixation devices

A

hip pinning

90
Q

high tibial osteotomy

A

HTO

91
Q

procedure in which a special external fixator is used to lengthen long bones as treatment for severe fracture or congenital deformity

A

ilizarov technique

92
Q

intramedullary nail

A

IM nail

93
Q

titanium or other alloy cage filled with bone and inserted between the vertebral bodies to maintain disk space height and permit fusion of the intervertebral joint

A

interbody bone fusion device

94
Q

a flexible or rigid device placed within the medullary cavity to reduce a fracture or stabilize a diseased long bone

A

intramedullary rod

95
Q

unthreaded (smooth) or threaded metallic wire used to reduce fractures of the wrist (carpals) and individual bones of the hands and feet; also may be used for skeletal traction

A

Kirchner wire (K-wire)

96
Q

a surgical procedure performed to alleviate pain caused by neural impingement by removing an aspect of the lamina in the vertebral arch

A

laminectomy

97
Q

surgical reopening into one or more laminae of the vertebral arch

A

laminotomy

98
Q

use of a special endoscopic device to visualize and assist with surgical removal of the gallbladder

A

laparoscopic cholecystectomy

99
Q

crushing of calcification in the renal pelvis, ureter, or urinary bladder by mechanical force or sound waves

A

lithotripsy

100
Q

microsurgical procedure performed on the spine to remove bony fragments or disk material that may be causing neural impingement

A

microdiskectomy

101
Q

a condition in which body changes or a herniated disk procedures impingement of the spinal nerves that pass through the vertebral arch of the vertebra

A

neural impingement

102
Q

reduction of fracture fragments through surgical interventions

A

open reduction

103
Q

radiographic procedure performed during surgery to visualize and locate undetected stories or obstructions within the biliary ducts

A

operative (immediate) cholangiography

104
Q

open reduction with internal fixation

A

ORIF

105
Q

posterior cruciate ligament

A

PCL

106
Q

fabricated (artificial) substitute for a diseased or missing anatomic part

A

prosthesis

107
Q

to align two bone fragments in the correct position as treatment for a fracture, as applied in orthopedic medicine

A

reduce

108
Q

a nonfunctional examination of the urinary system during which contrast medium is introduced directly retrograde (backward, against the flow) into the pelvicalyceal system via catheterization by a urologist during a minor surgical procedure

A

retrograde urography

109
Q

flexible and thin orthopedic plate used to fix and connect fractures

A

semitubular plate

110
Q

an isolation drape that separates the sterile field from the nonsterile environment; often used to permit the use of C-arm fluoroscopy during a hip pinning procedure

A

shower curtain

111
Q

surgical fusion of one vertebra to another, which stabilizes them following laminectomy or as treatment for a degenerative condition or fracture

A

spinal fusion

112
Q

condition caused by degenerative changes that result in enlargement of the facet joints, which often leads to impingement of the spinal nerves that pass by them

A

spinal stenosis

113
Q

soaking of moisture through a sterile or nonsterile drape, cover, or protective barrier, permitting bacteria to reach sterile areas

A

strike-through

114
Q

total hip replacement, total hip appliance

A

THR, THA

115
Q

total knee replacement, total knee appliance

A

TKR, TKA

116
Q

the use of artificial joint implants to restore motion and function of a joint–for example, total hip replacement is common orthopedic procedure performed on patients with degenerative joint disease

A

total joint arthroplasty

117
Q

the process of putting a limb, bone, or group of muscles under tension with the use of weights and pulleys to align or immobilize the part

A

traction

118
Q

battery-driven, battery-operated, mobile x-ray units are powered by what?

A

10 to 16 rechargeable, sealed, lead acid-type 12-volt batteries connected in series

119
Q

battery-driven, battery-operated, mobile x-ray units have an average walking speed of what?

A

2.5 to 3 mph

120
Q

what is the maximum incline of a mobile x-ray unit?

A

7 degrees

121
Q

what can mobile x-ray units be regarded at?

A

110 or 220 V

122
Q

one projection should be taken:

A

only as a last resort

123
Q

what are the essential attributes of the radiologic technologist in surgical radiography

A

confidence, communication, problem-solving skills, and mastery

124
Q

a physician licensed and trained in general surgery or a specialty such as cardiovascular or orthopedic procedures

A

surgeon

125
Q

who has the primary responsibility for the entire surgical procedure and for the well-being of the patient prior to, during, and immediately following surgery?

A

surgeon

126
Q

person who specializes in administering anesthetic drugs to induce and maintain anesthesia in the patient during surgery

A

anesthesiologist

127
Q

this person has be responsibility of ensuring the safety of the patient and monitoring physiologic functions and fluid levels of the patient during surgery

A

anesthesiologist

128
Q

what are the surgical assistant’s range of responsibilities?

A

may include suctioning, tying and clamping blood vessels, and assisting in cutting and suturing tissue

129
Q

who can the surgical assistant be?

A

a physician, physician assistant, certified surgical technologist (CST), or registered nurse (RN)

130
Q

a health professional who prepares the OR by supplying it with the appropriate supplies and instruments

A

certified surgical technologist (CST)

131
Q

what are other CST responsibilities?

A

preparing the patient for surgery and helping connect surgical equipment and monitoring devices; during surgery, they have the primary responsibility for maintaining the sterile field

132
Q

a nonsterile CST or RN who assists in the OR by responding to the needs of scrubbed members in the sterile field before, during, and after the surgical procedure

A

circulator

133
Q

what are the duties of a circulator?

A

may include recording of pertinent information, retrieval of additionally needed items, and connecting nonsterile surgical equipment

134
Q

a CST or RN who prepares the sterile field scrubs, gowns, and members of the surgical team, and prepares and sterilizes the instruments before the surgical procedure is begun

A

scrub

135
Q

the ability of a system to magnify the image for better visualization of structures

A

magnification mode

136
Q

used to create an x-ray beam that pulsates at timed increments to reduce exposure

A

pulse mode

137
Q

activates a digital spot, which results in a higher quality computer-enhanced image as compared with a held fluoroscopic image

A

snapshot or digital spot mode

138
Q

allows for exposure by the operator if desired, or the use of automatic exposure control (AEC)

A

auto/manual exposure control

139
Q

a technique in which an initial image is recorded during continuous fluoroscopy; the initial image is then used as a filter for the next fluoroscopic images

A

subtraction

140
Q

a method of image display wherein a specific fluoroscopic image is held on the screen in combination with continuous fluoroscopy; similar to subtraction in that it removes stationary structures from the viewing screen; especially useful in interventional procedures that require the placement of catheters

A

roadmapping

141
Q

the primary source of radiation exposure to the fluoroscopy staff is from

A

scattered radiation from the patient

142
Q

what is necessary if the person’s back is repeatedly turned toward the patient?

A

wrap-around apron

143
Q

studies have shown that even a 30 degree C-arm tilt will increase the dose to the face and neck region of an operator of average height who stands next to the C-arm by a factor of what?

A

4

144
Q

the exposure region on what side of the patient is significantly larger than the other?

A

the exposure region on the x-ray tube side of the patient is significantly larger than that in the region near the intensifier tower

145
Q

the practice and procedures used to minimize the levels of infectious agents present in the surgical environment

A

surgical aspesis

146
Q

if the sterility of an object is in doubt, it must be considered:

A

nonsterile

147
Q

sterile gowns are considered sterile from:

A

the shoulder to the level of the sterile field, and at the sleeve from the cuff to just above the elbow

148
Q

OR tables are considered sterile only:

A

at the level of the tabletop

149
Q

performed during surgery to demonstrate anatomy of the biliary duct system, drainage into the duodenum, and any residual stones in the biliary ducts

A

operative (immediate) cholangiography

150
Q

operative or immediate cholangiography may be performed:

A

before or following surgical removal of the gallbladder

151
Q

laparoscopic cholecystectomy provides a less invasive approach for the removal of what?

A

diseased gallbladders

152
Q

what happens during a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

A

surgeon makes a small opening in the umbilicus and passes an endoscope into the abdominal cavity

153
Q

why are laparoscopic cholecystectomies performed?

A

can be performed with a minimal amount of surgical trauma to the patient

154
Q

retrograde urography is a _____ examination of the urinary system

A

nonfunctional

155
Q

what occurs during a retrograde urography procedure?

A

contrast medium is introduced directly retrograde (backward, against the flow) into the pelvicalyceal system view catheterization by the urologist during a minor surgical procedure

156
Q

why is retrograde urography considered a nonfunctional study?

A

the patient’s normal physiologic processes are not involved in the procedure

157
Q

what is a retrograde urography performed for?

A

frequently performed to determine the location of undetected calculi or other types of obstruction in the urinary system; may also be performed to study the renal pelvis and calyces for signs of infection or structural defect

158
Q

fracture fragments are realigned by manipulation and are immobilized by a cast or splint

A

closed reduction

159
Q

T or F: closed reduction is a nonsurgical procedure

A

true

160
Q

fracture site is exposed, and a variety of screws, plates, or rods are inserted as needed to maintain alignment of the bony fragments until new bone growth can take place

A

open reduction

161
Q

during open reduction of fractures, a variety of compression plates, screws, pins, intramedullary rods, nails, or wires are applied to reduce or realign the fracture

A

internal fixation

162
Q

use of an external fracture-stabilizing device permits:

A

bone healing without the immediate requirement for internal fixation

163
Q

the Ilizarov device is a prime example of what?

A

an external fixator used to correct a length deficit

164
Q

intramedullary rods and nails are inserted within the shaft of long bones to:

A

stabilize fractures

165
Q

intramedullary fixation devices can:

A

minimize the amount of tissue exposed during surgery, decrease surgical and healing time, and reduce opportunities for postsurgical infection

166
Q

common hip fractures include

A

femoral neck fractures, intertrochanteric fractures, and subtrochanteric fractures

167
Q

for a hip pinning, the procedure generally involves:

A

the use of long screws for nondisplaced femoral neck fractures

168
Q

a surgical procedure performed to alleviate pain caused by neural impingement

A

laminectomy

169
Q

a laminectomy is designed to:

A

remove a small portion of the bone or herniated disk material impinging on the nerve root; intended to give the nerve root more space

170
Q

what is a spinal fusion?

A

uses rods, plates, and screws to stabilize surgically altered vertebrae during a laminectomy

171
Q

titanium cages filled with bone that are inserted between the vertebral bodies to maintain disk space height and fuse the joint, thereby eliminating abnormal movement

A

interbody fusion cages

172
Q

a laminectomy is effective in:

A

decreasing pain and improving function for patients with lumbar spinal stenosis

173
Q

a condition that primarily afflicts older patients; caused by degenerative changes that result in enlargement of the facet joints; the enlarged joints then place pressure on the nerves

A

spinal stenosis

174
Q

a laminectomy can be performed on what?

A

the cervical or lumbar region

175
Q

procedure performed to remove bony obstructions such as bone spurs and herniated disk materials that cause pain by impinging on the spinal cord or spinal nerves in the cervical region

A

cervical laminectomy

176
Q

procedure performed for a myriad of reasons, including bony obstructions, stenosis, and spinal cord impingement

A

lumbar laminectomy

177
Q

a fracture wherein the fragments overlap and the shafts make contact but not at the fracture end defines:

A

bayonet apposition

178
Q

a faint fracture line in the bone cortex that is seen on one side of bone with a slight bulging or wrinkle-like defect on the opposite side is a:

A

greenstick fracture

179
Q

which of the following fractures will be best demonstrated with a forearm series?

A

Monteggia’s

180
Q

how is the CR aligned for a mobile AP chest projection taken on a patient lying partially erect in bed?

A

align CR perpendicular to long axis of sternum

181
Q

which of the following positioning routines is required for a postreduction study of the ankle with a cast?

A

AP and lateral

182
Q

what type of CR angle is required for the “reverse Caldwell” projection of the cranium?

A

15 degrees cephalad to OML

183
Q

the large, sterile clear plastic sheet used during hip pinning procedures to maintain a sterile field over the surgical site is termed a:

A

shower curtain

S2: RADT 111 Fundamentals (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions