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Fundamentals of Patient Management > BSC Path/ Histo > Flashcards

BSC Path/ Histo Flashcards

1
Q

what are the primary uses for light microscopy? phase contrast?

A

light: patient diagnostics
phase- contrast: unstained, live

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2
Q

how is tissue prepared? what are the significant solutions?

A

placed in fixative
- most common formalin
- michel solution for direct immunofluorescence

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3
Q

what is the next step after tissue prep? what is an important part of this step

A

embedding and cutting, piece/ entire tissue is embedded in paraffin wax blocks

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4
Q

what is the next step after embedding and cutting? how does this relate to diagnosis?

A

hematoxylin and eosin staining, first step of diagnosis

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5
Q

describe the 3 dyes discussed

A
  • hematoxylin- basic dye, attracts positive charges due to (-) phosphate groups
  • eosin- acidic dye, attracts negative charges due to positive lysine and anginine
  • periodic- acid schiff- used to identify fungal stains and mucous cells b/c chitin and cellulose
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6
Q

what are the disorders in net cell production

A

excess- hyperplasia, cancer, autoimmune disorders
depletion- atrophy, degenerative diseases, AIDS, ischemic injury

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7
Q

what are some important features of the nucleus

A

membrane bound
nuclear envelope
chromatin
nucleolus

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8
Q

describe an example of a DNA checkpoint

A
  • if normal cell acquires DNA damage P53 accumulates, and mutation of TP53 leads to tumor suppressor activity
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9
Q

what are the 2 types of cell death

A

necrosis: accidental, unfavorable environments (hypothermia, hypoxia)
apoptosis: programmed cell death

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10
Q

what are the 2 types of apoptosis

A

intrinsic vs extrinsic
- intrinsic: inside cell, tumor suppression, p53 for DNA damage
- extrinsic: outside cell, TNF- membrane receptors trigger signaling cascade

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11
Q

what are the 4 basic tissue types and give a fast fact for each

A

1) epithelium: rests on basal lamina
2) CT: loose, dense, and specialized
3) muscle tissue: lots of actin and myosin
4) nerve tissue: CNS- neuroglial, PNS- schwann and satellite

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12
Q

what is a feature of all types of epithelium

A

avascular

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13
Q

what are the 4 types of epithelium we discussed? which are special?

A

1) simple epithelium: better for exchange, absorption, secretion
2) stratified epithelium: better for barrier and conduit formation
3) pseudostratified epithelium (actually simple), special
4) transitional epithelium/ urothelium, special

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14
Q

what are the 3 distinct morphologic domains

A

apical, lateral, basal

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15
Q

what are the components of the apical domain and give a fast fact for each

A

1) microvilli: enhance absorptive capacity
2) cilia: movement of fluid & particles along epithelial surfaces
3) stereocilia: mechanosensory function

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16
Q

what does the lateral domain do? what are the 5 categories?

A

cell-to-cell adhesion
1) tight junction
2) adherens junction
3) desmosomes
4) hemidesmosomes
5) gap junction

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17
Q

describe the important parts of the basal domain

A
  • basal lamina, where epithelial cells produce collagen
  • basement membrane= basal lamina + reticular lamina
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18
Q

what is the target of pathogens and autoimmunity

A

junctional complexes

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19
Q

what are examples of autoimmune diseases that attack junctional complexes

A

1) pemphigus vulgaris: antibodies attack desmosomes
2) mucus membrane pemphigoid: attack hemidesmosomes

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20
Q

what are 3 examples of organs w/ mainly secretory epithelium

A

thyroid gland, sebaceous, and salivary

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21
Q

what is the difference between simple vs. compound exocrine ducts

A

simple ducts don’t branch, compound, ducts branch

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22
Q

what is the pathway of exocrine secretion

A

secretory epithelial cells release products -> blood vessel -> systemic circulation -> destination site/ organ

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23
Q

what are the three types of exocrine glands? give an example of each and how they look w/ microscopy

A

mucous, serous (parotid), mucoserous (submandibular)
- hard to see myoepithelial cells

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24
Q

what are the 3 types of exocrine secretions? give an example for each

A

merocrine: exocytosis in secretory vesicles, sweat
holocrine: entire cell is secretory product, sebaceous
apocrine: apical end is broken w/ secretory products, mammary

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25
Q

what is an example of endocrine secretion

A

basal cell layer of SSE

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26
Q

what are the layers of epithelium from free surface to CT

A
  • stratum corneum: keratin layer
  • stratum lucidum
  • stratum granulosum
  • stratum spinosum
  • stratum basale
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27
Q

what is the classification of epithelium for the oral cavity

A

stratified squamous epithelium

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28
Q

what is an epithelial disease

A

epithelial dysplasia: premalignant condition, mild, moderate and severe classification, microscopic diagnosis

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29
Q

what are the 2 types of keratinization? what disease is associated with each?

A

1) non- keratinized: apthous ulcers (canker sores)
2) keratinized (recurrent intraoral herpes)

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30
Q

what are the 2 types of keratinized cells

A

orthokeratin- no nuclei in eptl cell
parakeratin- nuclei in eptl cell

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31
Q

what is metaplasia? an example of a metaplasia?

A

one cell type is converted to a different cell type
- Barret esophagus, more prone to malignancy, not malignant or pre-malignant

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32
Q

what are the 2 types of epithelium malignancies and give an example of each

A

1) carcinoma (lining), oral squamous cell carcinoma, most common oral cavity cancer
2) adeno- carcinoma (gland), polymorphous adenocarcinoma, salivary gland eptm

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33
Q

what are the boundaries of connective tissue

A

basal lamina and external lamina

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34
Q

what is in ECM

A

protein fibers (mainly collagen) and ground substance

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35
Q

what does ground substance contain

A

proteoglycans (GAGs- most abundant, hydrophilic), multi-adhesive glycoproteins

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36
Q

what are the types of CT

A

embryonic, connective tissue proper, and specialized

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37
Q

what are the key features of embryonic CT

A
  • mucous and mesenchyme
  • mesenchyme: from mesoderm (except ectomesenchyme), gives rise to almost all CT in body
    mucous: umbilical cord is Whartons’ jelly, appear like fibroblasts, potential therapeutic application
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38
Q

what are key features loose CT

A
  • sparse collagen fibers, abundant ground substance
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39
Q

what are key features of dense regular CT

A
  • tendons, ligaments, and aponeuroses
  • tendons connect muscle to bone, ligaments are bone to bone
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40
Q

what are the 3 types of fibers

A

collagen, reticular, and elastic

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41
Q

what is the significance of collagen

A
  • strength comparable to steel
  • type I (precursor to bone), II (cartilage), and IV (basement membrane)
42
Q

what is the structure of collagen

A
  • glycoproteins due to sugar that holds helix proteins together
  • molecule w/ triple helix
43
Q

what is the production of collagen

A

vitamin c transforms preprocollagen to procollagen

44
Q

what are problems that can arise from collagen

A
  • scurvy
  • oral - scorbutic gingivitis, gingival swelling, periodontitis
45
Q

what is the significance of reticular fibers

A

composed of type III, reticular, supports lymph tissues

46
Q

what are reticular fibers produced by

A

reticular cell

47
Q

what is the significance of elastic fiber

A

cross linked elastin and fibrillin network

48
Q

what is the function of adipose

A

energy homeostasis and hormone production

49
Q

what are key points of white adipose tissue

A
  • unilocular
  • 10% of body weight if healthy
  • function is storage
  • ECM is elastic fibers
50
Q

what are key points of brown adipose tissue

A
  • multilocular
  • large amounts in newborns
  • function is heat production
51
Q

what are the 4 types of papillae

A

filliform, fungiform, foliate, circumvallate

52
Q

describe filliform papillae

A

no taste buds, thick keratin layer

53
Q

where are papillae? what is the cell classification

A

cover dorsal tongue, variations of SSE

54
Q

describe fungiform papillae

A

taste buds

55
Q

describe foliate papillae

A

taste buds

56
Q

what is a significant point about dental pulp

A

some nerve fibers enter proximal portions of dentinal tubules and contact odontoblast processes

57
Q

what is cartilage? give a couple of key features

A

CT formed by chondrocytes and highly specialized ECM
- avascular
- >95% ECM

58
Q

what is in the ECM of cartilage

A

Large GAG to Type II collagen ratio= allows diffusion to chondrocytes

59
Q

what are the 3 types of cartilage

A

hyaline, elastic, fibrocartilage

60
Q

describe hyaline cartilage

A
  • lacunae house chondrocytes-> chondros produce matrix
  • in articular surface of synovial joints
  • contains perichondrion
61
Q

describe perichondrion

A
  • dense irregular CT
  • source of new cartilage cells
  • articular joint surfaces do not have
62
Q

describe the ECM of hyaline cartilage

A
  • collagen type II (80%)
  • proteoglycans
  • multiadhesive glycoprotein
  • precursor for endochondral ossification
63
Q

describe elastic cartilage

A
  • found in epiglottis
  • has perichondrium
64
Q

describe ECM of elastic cartilage

A
  • type II collagen fibrils, elastic fibers, and aggrecan monomers
  • proteoglycans
  • multiadhesive glycoproteins
  • precursor for endochondral ossification
65
Q

describe fibrocartilage

A
  • temporomandibular joints
  • chondrocytes and FIBROBLASTS
66
Q

describe ECM of fibrocartilage

A

aggrecan (chondrocyte) and versican (fibroblast)

67
Q

when does growth and repair of cartilage occur

A
  • contact w/ bone tissue while growing/ adult
  • about to be replaced by bone
  • part of aging process
68
Q

what are the 4 types of bones

A

long, short, flat, and irregular

69
Q

describe the long bone

A

proximal epiphysis/ distal epiphysis, metaphysis, diaphysis

70
Q

describe the flat bone

A

intramembranous ossification, skull, mandible, and clavicle

71
Q

what are 2 important features of bone

A

covered in periosteum, sharpey fibers connect periosteum to bone

72
Q

describe bone ECM

A
  • hydroxyapatite (Calcium phosphate)
  • bone ground substance (growth factors BMP)
  • lacunae surrounding osteocytes and canciuli connecting lacuna
73
Q

describe endochondral ossification

A

osteoprogenitor cells -> osteoblasts -> deposit on cartilage surface

74
Q

how are the primary and secondary ossification center separated

A

epiphyseal growth plate

75
Q

what bones undergo intramembranous ossification

A

skull, mandible, clavicle

76
Q

what are the cells of bone

A

osteoprogenito cells have RUNX2 (CBFA1 transcription factor) affect them -> osteoblasts -> secrete osteoid

77
Q

what is an osteocyte

A

mature bone cells enclosed w/ lacunae of bone matrix, begin as osteoblasts before enclosed

78
Q

what is the pathway of an osteoclast

A

osteoclast -> hematopoietic progenitor cells -> resorb bone matrix

79
Q

what are the important components of bone

A
  • immature (interwoven) bone
  • compact (dense, cortical) bone
  • spongy trabecular bone
  • mature (lamellar) bone: osteons and haversian canal
  • perforating (volkman canals)
80
Q

how does bone grow

A

length= increase epiphyseal growth plate
width (appositional) = increase compact bone and periosteum

81
Q

why is muscle and how is muscle

A

why: primary role of contraction, responsible for nearly all movement
how: myofilament interaction, thin- actin, thick- myosin

82
Q

what are three important features of skeletal muscle

A
  • striations
  • regeneration thru satellite cells
  • hypertrophy
83
Q

what are the components of skeletal muscle cells

A
  • peripherally located nuclei
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum (smooth ER)
  • many myofibrils, series of sarcomeres
  • sarcolemme (PM)
84
Q

what does the I band have? A band?

A

I: thin filaments and titin
A: thick and thing, central M line, Hzone (only thick)

85
Q

what happens when a muscle contracts

A

sarcomere shortens, myofilament remains

86
Q

what are important features of cardiac muscle

A
  • striations
  • no regeneration
  • hypertrophy
87
Q

describe cardiac muscle

A
  • 1-2 centrally located nuclei
  • intercalated discs: transverse regions (desmosomes) and gap junctions
  • no satellite cells
  • involuntary (purkinje fibers)
88
Q

how does the nervous system help with cardiac muscle

A
  • autonomic nerves, example heart rate
  • some contraction is modified by autonomic innervation (symp. vs. parasymp)
89
Q

describe smooth muscle

A
  • no striations
  • regeneration b/c mitosis
  • hypertrophy and hyperplasia
90
Q

what are important parts about smooth muscle

A
  • individual small tapering cells
  • still thin and thick filaments
  • involuntary: ANS
91
Q

where do nerve cells originate from

A

ectoderm
- neural tube -> CNS
- neural crest cells -> PNS

92
Q

describe the sensory nerves

A

afferent
somatic: sensory input received consciously
visceral: not consciously (ex. internal organs)

93
Q

describe motor nerves

A

efferent
somatic: voluntary
autonomic: involuntary

94
Q

what are the parts of a neuron

A

dendrites, cell body, axon

95
Q

what are the elements of support in nervous system

A

supporting cells (CNS: neuroglia, PNS: schwann and satellite)
macrophages
CT elements
- meninges surround CNS
- endo/peri/epineurium surround peripheral nerves

96
Q

what are the layers of PNS CTs

A
  • endoneurium: axon and myelin sheath
  • perineurium: group of axons and perineurium = nerve fascicle
  • epineurium covers multiple fascicles
97
Q

what is neoplasia

A

new growth, uncontrolled, of cells/ tissues

98
Q

what does neoplasia start off as

A

monoclonal” single mutated cell leads to neoplasm

99
Q

what are aspects of a benign neoplasm and an example

A
  • circumscribed
  • well diff.
  • locally invasive
  • uniform cells
  • normal/ few/ no mitotic figures
  • ex: ameloblastoma (locally aggro)
100
Q

what are aspects of a malignant neoplasm

A
  • can spread in body
  • poorly diff.
  • metastasize
  • increased nucleus: cytoplasm ratio
  • pleomorphic
  • bizarre mitosis

Fundamentals of Patient Management (10 decks)

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