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1
Q

Emergency lighting system is maintained by fully charged batteries for

A

15 minutes (FCOM 1.40.5)

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2
Q

All emergency lights and exit signs are powered by DC bus #4, True or False

A

FALSE (FCOM 1.40.5)

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3
Q

For added protection against smoke rising into the upper deck the smoke barrier may be used in flight. True or False

A

TRUE (FCOM 1.30.44 )

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4
Q

Do not operate entry or cargo doors when winds exceed _____ at the doors.

A

40knts. (FCOM 1.50.1)

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5
Q

Supernumerary oxygen system automatically deploys masks if cabin altitude exceeds approximately

A

14,000ft (FCOM 1.40.9)

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6
Q

What is the maximum takeoff and landing altitude?

A

10,000ft Pressure altitude. (FCOM L.10.2)

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7
Q

For single channel ILS approaches, autopilot must be disengaged before the aircraft descends below feet

A

100ft AGL. (FCOM L.10.5)

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8
Q

Maximum crosswind for auto landing operations is

A

Headwind & x-wind – 25knts, Tailwind – 15knts (FCOM L.10.5)

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9
Q

Automatic landings can be made with 30 flaps only true or false?

A

FALSE (FCOM L.10.5)

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10
Q

APU start duty cycle between starts for 1 and 2 is

A

Battery wait -1 minute (FCOM L.10.7)

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11
Q

APU start duty cycle between starts for 2 and 3 is

A

Battery wait -1 minute (TR – 10 minutes for ICA/D). (FCOM L.10.7)

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12
Q

APU start duty cycle between starts for 3 and 4 is

A

Battery wait -75 minutes (FCOM L.10.7)

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13
Q

Maximum altitude with the flaps extended is

A

20,000ft. (FCOM L.10.8)

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14
Q

Maximum differential cabin pressure (relief valves) is

A

9.4psi. (FCOM L.10.5)

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15
Q

How many crash axes are onboard?

A

2 (FCOM 1.45.4/5.)

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16
Q

The passenger oxygen system uses the same source as the cockpit crew

A

FALSE (FCOM 1.40.7)

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17
Q

What is the wingspan of the B744?

A

64.9m. (FCOM 1.10.1)

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18
Q

What is the length of the B744?

A

70.7m. (FCOM 1.10.1)

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19
Q

What is the minimum of pavement for a 180 degree turn?

A

46.6m (153ft). (FCOM 1.10.3)

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20
Q

Which is a momentary action switch?

A

APU switch, STROBE switch, PACK switch… (FCOM 1.30.2. Momentary action switches are spring loaded to the extended position. They activate or deactivate systems or reset system logic. The switch display indicates system status.)

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21
Q

Which is an alternate action switch?

A

? (FCOM 1.30.1)

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22
Q

The FASTEN SEATBELT signs illuminate in AUTO mode

A

gear not up and locked OR flap lever not up OR airplane altitude below 10,300’ OR cabin altitude above 10,000’ OR (FCOM 1.40.4)

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23
Q

When are the landing lights at maximum intensity

A

Landing Gear Lever DOWN + Landing lights ON (FCOM 1.40.1)

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24
Q

Can the taxi and turnoff lights be illuminated inflight

A

No. (FCOM 1.40.1)

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25
Q

With the emergency lights switch in ARMED, when do the emergency lights illuminate

A

When DC power fails or when turned off when the system is armed. (FCOM 1.40.5)

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26
Q

How is the emergency lights system powered when activated

A

By remote batteries (FCOM 1.40.5)

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27
Q

Approximately how long can the emergency lights illuminate when activated?

A

At least 15 minutes (FCOM 1.40.5)

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28
Q

When do the supernumerary oxygen masks automatically drop if the switch is NORM?

A

altitude exceeds 14,000 (FCOM 1.40.9)

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29
Q

Can the supernumerary oxygen flow control unit be reset in flight?

A

yes (FCOM 1.40.9)

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30
Q

What indicates that the pilot’s oxygen is flowing?

A

Yellow cross on the Oxy Flow Indicator (FCOM 1.30.19)

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31
Q

What does the “N” mean on the oxygen mask’s switch?

A

Normal - supplies an air/oxy mixture on demand (FCOM 1.30.21)

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32
Q

What happens when you rotate the oxygen mask’s Emergency/Test selector to emergency?

A

Supplies 100% oxy under positive pressure (FCOM 1.30.22)

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33
Q

When the mask is removed from its stowage box, when does the mask mic activate?

A

When the left door opens (FCOM 1.30.19)

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34
Q

How do you know that the oxygen supply valve is open?

A

An oxygen on flag appears on the mask compartment (FCOM 1.30.19)

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35
Q

How do you shut off oxygen after use?

A

By closing the stowage compartment left hand door and pushing and releasing the Reset/Test switch (FCOM 1.40.8)

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36
Q

Where are the negative pressure relief valves located?

A

side cargo door, fwd and aft cargo door (FCOM 2.30.3)

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37
Q

Where are the outflow valves located?

A

right and left aft fuselage (FCOM NP 21.7/8)

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38
Q

Where are the positive pressure relief valves located?

A

left fwd fuselage (FCOM NP 21.9)

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39
Q

What action inflates the flight crew oxygen mask harness?

A

squeeze the right mask lever (FCOM 1.30.19)

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40
Q

How are emergency locator transmitters activated?

A

fuselage - high deceleration forces or ELT or switch On, Portable - by salted liquid (FCOM 1.45.2)

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41
Q

A drop of 100 psig or greater in the crew oxygen system during the preflight mask check indicates:

A

oxy cylinder valve not fully open (FCOM NP 21.15)

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42
Q

Trim air switch when turned on allows automatic and manual selection of pack controllers A or B enabled. True or False

A

TRUE (FCOM 2.10.5)

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43
Q

Pilot auxiliary heat is provided by elements

A

electric (FCOM 2.20.12)

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44
Q

Equipment cooling system provides cooling air for_

A

flight deck equipment and to the electrical and electronics compartment (FCOM 2.20.12)

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45
Q

Cabin Altitude Controller in Cruise Mode has a maximum of

A

8,000’ (FCOM 2.30.2)

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46
Q

Landing elevation limits are___below mean sea level to___above mean sea level

A

-1,000’ to +14,000’ (FCOM 2.30.2)

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47
Q

Pack control selector switch in the normal position does

A

a or b selected automatically on alternate flights as primary controller or other one selected if the primary has failed (FCOM 2.10.9)

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48
Q

The flight deck fan switch on and all packs off there is no airflow to cockpit. True or False

A

FALSE - Supplies recirculated air (FCOM 2.20.4)

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49
Q

Trim air switch turned on all flight deck zone trim air valves operate automatically except

A

NONE - Trim air supplies air to all (Shitty question)

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50
Q

Aft cargo heat switch on provides bleed air heat to

A

aft and bulk cargo compartments (FCOM 2.10.8)

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51
Q

Engine Bleed Air Fault Light is caused by

A

bleed air overheat\overpressure\HP bleed valve or PRV open when commanded closed (FCOM 2.10.16)

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52
Q

Three airconditioning packs draw air from

A

bleed air duct supplied by the engines\APU\external (FCOM 2.40.1)

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53
Q

The pack valve is____controlled and___operated.

A

electrically, bleed air pressure (FCOM 2.20.2)

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54
Q

The temperature zone requiring the warmest temperature controls the pack outlet temperature. True or False

A

FALSE ()

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55
Q

Closing the right isolation valve will prevent bleed air from reaching hydraulic demand pump 4

A

false. (FCOM 2.40.5)

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56
Q

With the pax temp selector in auto and the system operating normally, which temp. zone determines the outlet temp of the packs?

A

the zone requiring the coolest temp (FCOM 2.20.7)

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57
Q

What does selecting the equipment cooling selector STDBY position do?

A

gnd exhaust valve closed, automatic control bypassed to configure system for flight; inboard exhaust valve open. with single internal fault, inboard exhaust valve closes and the cooling system re-configured to allow internal closed loop recirculation of cooling air (FCOM 2.10.6)

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58
Q

In flight, what does placing the captain’s foot heater switch to LO or HI do?

A

under floor electric heater operates at high\low rate (FCOM 2.10.12)

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59
Q

Shoulder and foot heaters operate in flight only

A

TRUE (FCOM 2.10.11)

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60
Q

When is the EICAS warning message CABIN ALTITUDE displayed?

A

cabin altitude > 10,000’ (FCOM 2.50.1)

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61
Q

Placing the landing altitude in manual

A

to set the landing altitude manually when this data is missing from the FMS (FCOM 2.10.14)

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62
Q

What does selecting the equipment cooling selector OVRD position do?

A

inboard exhaust valve closed, ground exhaust valve closed, equipment supply valve closed; cooling air supplied through flight panels, smoke\override valve open; differential pressure exhausts cooling air overboard (FCOM 2.10.6)

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63
Q

With a pack control selector in the NORM position, which of the following is correct?

A

pack a or b selected automatically on alternate flights as primary controller while the other one is selected if the primary has failed (FCOM 2.10.9)

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64
Q

The cabin pressurization system is normally fully automatic, but the outflow valves may be positioned manually

A

TRUE (FCOM 2.10.15)

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65
Q

At what cabin altitude will the outflow valves close in the automatic mode?

A

11,000’ (FCOM 2.30.2)

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66
Q

When is the EICAS advisory message PRESS RELIEF displayed?

A

when one or more pressure relief valves open with all packs on (QRH 2.27 FCOM 2.50.2)

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67
Q

With the master temp set at 83 degrees f (28 deg. c), what is the maximum zone target temp setting using the cabin tamp panel?

A

85f\29c (FCOM 2.20.8)

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68
Q

What does pushing the outflow valve MAN left switch on do?

A

outflow valve controlled manually (FCOM 2.10.14)

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69
Q

Packs will be in high flow:

A

when High Flow switch is On or takeoff\climb\approach (FCOM 2.20.2)

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70
Q

Which of the following regarding failure of the selected pack controller is true?

A

pack valve closes resulting in a pack shut down (FCOM 2.20.2)

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71
Q

With the HI FLOW switch off, which of the following is true?

A

when High Flow switch is On or takeoff\climb\approach or depends on LLCCAR selecto (FCOM 2.10.7)

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72
Q

When is the EICAS advisory message BLEED displayed and the engine bleed air system fault light illuminated?

A

bleed air overpressure, overheat, HP bleed valve\PRV fail to close when commanded (FCOM 2.40.4 FCOM 2.10.16)

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73
Q

What source normally supplies engine bleed air during low thrust conditions?

A

HP engine section (FCOM 2.40.1)

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74
Q

Where is pneumatic duct pressure displayed?

A

Primary and secondary ()

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75
Q

What are the indications if an HP bleed valve fails to close when engine thrust is increased?

A

“BLEED #” advisory on EICAS (FCOM 2.50.1)

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76
Q

What does the EICAS advisory message > BLEED 1 OFF mean?

A

eng bleed switch is off (FCOM 2.50.1)

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77
Q

At high engine power settings, which engine compressor section furnishes bleed air for the pneumatic system?

A

the IP section (FCOM 2.40.1)

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78
Q

Pushing the APU bleed air switch on, opens the APU bleed isolation valve, with the APU running

A

True, 95% APU N1 (FCOM 2.40.3)

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79
Q

The PRV will open with the engine bleed air switch off

A

FALSE (FCOM 2.40.2)

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80
Q

When is the EICAS advisory message BLEED ISLN L/R displayed

A

isolation valve switch position and valve position disagree (FCOM 2.50.1)

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81
Q

When will the APU bleed air valve open?

A

When the APU is running ()

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82
Q

What is bleed air used for?

A

1.A\C 2.pressurization 3.A\I 4.ENG start 5.LE flaps 6. aft cargo heat 7.cargo smoke detection 8.hyd reservoir pressurization 9.potable water tank 10.hyd ADP 11.T\R (FCOM 2.40.1)

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83
Q

Autopilot engage switch push will engage

A

HDG hold or ATT (in bank) and V/S ()

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84
Q

On a go around the first push of the TOGA button will give a

A

THR and 2000ft/min ()

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85
Q

During a CFIT recovery maneuver the flight director will give good recovery guidance with TOGA engaged. True or False

A

FALSE ()

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86
Q

THR switch is operable from the ground to landing. True or False

A

False (from 400’) ()

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87
Q

SPD switch is operable from

A

400ft after T/O until landing ()

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88
Q

The bank limit selector limits all roll modes to 5, 10,15, 20, 25 degree regardless of airspeed. True or False

A

FALSE ()

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89
Q

Vertical Speed Window has a range from to feet per minute.

A

-8000 ft/min to +6000ft/min ()

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90
Q

Mode Control Panel Window is in foot increments. (Altitude window)

A

100ft ()

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91
Q

Mode Control Panel Window range is feet.

A

V/S 14000ft (-8000 to +6000) ALT 50000 (0 to 50000) ()

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92
Q

LOC button when pushed displays

A

displays LOC in white (Armed) on PFD Roll FMA before localizer capture, current roll mode remains active until LOC capture. ()

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93
Q

Flare Mode becomes armed below and activates between ____ and ____ feet

A

armed below 1500 ft and active between 60 and 40 ft. ()

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94
Q

In wings-level flight with both flight directors off, which roll mode is engaged by engaging the first autopilot in command?

A

HDG HOLD ()

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95
Q

When can the command bars be displayed on the PFD during preflight?

A

when the first F/D switch positioned ON arms the F/D in the Takeoff Go-around Roll and Pitch mode. ()

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96
Q

In VNAV, pushing the THR switch will not change the A/T mode

A

TRUE ()

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97
Q

What pitch mode is engaged by selecting an autopilot in command with both flight director switches off while in flight?

A

V/S Vertical Speed ()

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98
Q

What indicates a pitch or roll mode fault?

A

an amber line is drawn through the mode annunciation Auto Pilot reverts to attitude stabilizing mode ()

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99
Q

What is the FMA modes annunciation for a go-around?

A

THR / TOGA / TOGA ()

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100
Q

What do the flight control computers (FCC) use to command level-off when engaged in a VNAV pitch mode?

A

MCP or FMC ()

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101
Q

When are flare and rollout modes available?

A

Autoland ()

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102
Q

A white LNAV annunciation on the PFD indicates

A

LNAV mode is armed ()

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103
Q

What is accomplished by lifting up the autopilot disengage bar?

A

enable A/P engagement, cancels amber stripe ()

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104
Q

What do the autopilots control to track the localizer while in the rollout mode?

A

A/P uses Localize signal , Rudder and Nosewheel to maintain center line ()

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105
Q

A go-around can be accomplished with:

A

Single A/P, Multi A/P or F/D ()

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106
Q

Pushing the SPD switch while in FLCH will engage the A/T mode to the current airspeed or the FMC speed, whichever is higher

A

FALSE ()

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107
Q

When does the go-around function of the TO/GA mode arm for the AFDS and autothrottle system?

A

during approach, Flap out of up or, G/S capture ()

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108
Q

Which modes are affected by the bank limit selector?

A

active only in HDG select ()

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109
Q

At what radio altitude does the autopilot start the landing flare?

A

40 to 60’ ()

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110
Q

What is the target vertical speed for a single push of the TO/GA switch for go- around?

A

2000 ft/min ()

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111
Q

What is the indication of LNAV or VNAV mode engagement?

A

LNAV/VNAV green on PFD ()

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112
Q

In FLCH mode, where is the commanded airspeed displayed? PFD & MCP

A

IAS/MACH window and PFD speed scale ()

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113
Q

How is the autothrottle normally disengage after an automatic landing?

A

when a reverse thrust lever is raised to reverse idle ()

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114
Q

How is the autopilot normally disengage after an automatic landing?

A

A/P disengage switch ()

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115
Q

After an automatic landing, rollout guidance continues until

A

until A/P disengaged ()

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116
Q

During an approach, when is the go-around mode inhibited?

A

below 5’ + 2 sec ()

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117
Q

During a crosswind autoland, the autopilot starts runway alignment at approximately:

A

1300ft (engine out) 500ft (all engines) ()

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118
Q

During takeoff, above which speed will the autothrottle enter the A/T hold mode?

A

65 kt ()

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119
Q

What does the A/T hold mode accomplish?

A

disconnect the servos ()

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120
Q

Oxygen microphone is active

A

opening Left oxygen door ()

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121
Q

Service interphone switch connects______when turned to the on position.

A

flight and service system ()

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122
Q

What occurs when the ground service call switch is pushed?

A

sound three seconds horn in nose wheel well ()

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123
Q

A Cargo call light switch illuminated means that

A

illuminated (white) indicates call received from main deck cargo ares ()

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124
Q

The erase switch on the cockpit voice recorder operates when

A

push and hold for three seconds erases voice recorder if on the ground -AC power ON and parking brake set ()

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125
Q

In ICA/ICD The Captain’s audio panel is INOP. What can be done?

A

can be switched to VHF-Direct on the CAPT Audio System ( overhead panel) ()

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126
Q

What option does the first officer have if right audio panel has failed?

A

switch OBS Audio Panel System to F/O ()

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127
Q

What does the “call” light on the left HF selector mean?

A

SELCAL ()

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128
Q

What stations can be connected through the flight interphone system?

A

the flight interphone system provides communication between flight deck crewmembers the flight interphone system also provides communication between the flight deck and ground crew through the flight interphone jack on the nose landing gear ()

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129
Q

The left radio tuning panel has failed. can the left HF sensitivity be adjusted? ICB True

A

not affected by radio tuning panel failure or by OFF switch (FCOM 5.10.4)

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130
Q

The offside tuning light is illuminated on the audio panel - what is one possible risk?

A

Changing the other person’s frequency inadvertently ()

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131
Q

You shut down all engines and the APU GPU is not available. Can you still contact ATC if needed?

A

Yes, on Bat only, VHF L and RTP L still operative ()

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132
Q

How many radios or systems can be selected for transmission on an audio panel at one time

A

only one can be selected at a time for each crew station ()

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133
Q

What must the captain do to clear the “call” light on the center VHF transmitter switch?

A

the CALL light is reset by selecting the respective transmitter selector, or transmitting on the radio ()

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134
Q

The flight deck communicate with the cabin interphone without using the interphone handset

A

TRUE (via hot mic) ()

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135
Q

What occurs when the cockpit voice recorder test button is pushed? 4 channels

A

test all four channels (push and hold for five seconds, tests all four cockpit voice recorder channels, 1 per second) Test is passed with needle in green band or green light illuminated ()

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136
Q

On the audio control panel you deselect by mistake VHF-L but the associated MIC light is still on, what would happen?

A

audio still on for VHF L ()

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137
Q

Audio panel and volume are set corrently and “hot mic” is on, yet you are unable to transmit. What may have happened?

A

Left oxygen door partially open. (Service phone switch might be on)

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138
Q

Electrical faults are automatically detected and ____ isolated.

A

Automatically ()

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139
Q

The main electrical power sources are

A

AC electrical System - 4 IDGs, 2 APU Gen, 2 Ext Power, ()

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140
Q

The ground service bus is powered whenever the ____bus is powered.

A

AC Bus 1 ()

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141
Q

The First Officer transfer bus is powered by_____.

A

AC Bus 2 or 1 ()

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142
Q

During automatic ILS approaches AC and DC busses #1, #2, #3 remain connected to the synchronous bus for redundancy electrical backup to autopilots. True or False.

A

FALSE ()

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143
Q

Standby selector power selector switch in BAT will provide approximately ____minutes of emergency power

A

30 min ()

144
Q

If AC bus 1 is unpowered (all engines operating) which of the following will be observed?

A

ELEC AC BUS 1 ()

145
Q

When is the EICAS advisory message DRIVE DISC displayed?

A

IDG disconnect ()

146
Q

AC bus 1, 2 and 3 isolation lights and EICAS advisory message ELEC BUS ISLN may be displayed during autoland

A

False. ( AC BUS ISOL light1,2,3 remain extinguished. The EICAS msg ELEC BUS ISOL is not displayed. The msg ‘ ELECTRICAL SYNOPTIC INHIBITED FOR AUTOLAND’ is displayed on the electrical synoptic)

147
Q

The ground handling bus supplies power to:

A
  1. Lower cargo handling equipment and compartment light 2. fueling system 3.auxiliar hyd. pump #4 ()
148
Q

When the EICAS advisory message ELEC BUS ISLN is displayed

A

BUS tie breaker open (BTB), effective bus is disconnected from synchronous bus ()

149
Q

The EICAS advisory message BATTERY OFF is displayed when the main battery is discharging

A

False, is displayed when battery switch is OFF ()

150
Q

When is the EICAS advisory message BAT DISCH APU displayed?

A

APU battery discharging or during Standby power test ()

151
Q

With both APU generators connected; after the #4 engine has been started, the respective IDG automatically powers its side of the synchronous bus

A

TRUE ()

152
Q

What occurs if available generator power is less than electrical system demand?

A

Load shedding. No EICAS msg or lights ()

153
Q

When autoland is engaged, system logic provides independent power sources for each of the three autopilots. which statement is true?

A

AC bus 4 continues to power the synchronous bus ()

154
Q

What does placing the bus tie switch in the auto position do?

A

pushing the Bus tie switch to AUTO, closes the related BTB and DCIR. AUTO - arms automatic AC bus tie circuit -closes related DC isolation relay ( DCIR ). ()

155
Q

What does the EICAS message ELEC GEN OFF 3 mean?

A

Generator control breaker open. (-the resulting loss of generator power output opens the GCB and displays the EICAS message ‘ELEC GEN OFF’ )

156
Q

During preflight, selecting AUTO on the standby power selector, with the battery switch on, activates the primary EICAS display and enables required caution & warning?

A

TRUE (FCOM 6.20.7)

157
Q

THE FOUR MAIN DC BUSSES REMAIN INTERCONNECTED THROUGH THE DC ISOLATION RELAYS AND DC TIE BUS IF THERE IS AN AC BUS OR TRASFORMER/RECTIFIER (T/R) FAILURE

A

TRUE ()

158
Q

THE CAPTAIN’S TRANSFER BUS IS NORMALLY POWERED BY

A

AC BUS 3 ()

159
Q

PUSHING A BUS TIE SW. OFF OPENS THE RESPECTIVE DC ISOLATION RELAY. THE ASSOCIATED DC BUS REMAINS POWERED BY ITS RESPECTIVE AC BUS AND TR

A

TRUE ()

160
Q

IF AC BUS 1 IS UNPOWERED (ALL ENGINES OPERATING) WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WILL BE OBSERVED? ELEC AC BUS 1

A

Both pitot probe heaters on one side of the aircraft Inop. Autothrottle inop - use manual throttle. LNAV/VNAV inop - use HDG SEL or HDG HOLD and FLCH, V/S or ALT HOLD. ICA/D reference N1 inop. ICB/C reference EPR inop ()

161
Q

WHICH AC BUS SERVES AS THE PRIMARY BACKUP POWER SOURCE FOR THE CAPTAIN’S AND FIRST OFFICER’S TRANSFER BUSSES?

A

AC BUS 1 (FCOM 6.20.5)

162
Q

THE GROUND HANDLING BUS SUPPLIES POWER TO

A

Lower cargo handling equipment and compartment light, fueling system, auxiliar hyd. pump 4 ()

163
Q

WITH THE STANDBY POWER SELECTOR IN THE BAT POSITION AND THE BATTERY SWITCH ON, WHAT IS THE ELECTRICAL SYSTEM CONFIGURATION?

A

BAT - Power main bat bus from main bat through the main hot bat bus with bat switch on. ()

164
Q

Normal APU start source is in the battery position. True or False.

A

TRUE (QRH - Normal procedures )

165
Q

During the ground start the autostart system will abort the start for

A

Hung start, Hot start, No EGT rise (CBT- Engine (Not in CAL, probably not in the exam))

166
Q

During an inflight flameout, the EEC will make a maximum of 3 start attempts then reset. True or False

A

TRUE (CBT)

167
Q

APU can be started on the ground and will operate upto a maximum of ___.

A

20,000ft (7.30.1)

168
Q

APU provides pneumatic pressure for 1 pack up to a maximum of

A

15,000ft (7.30.1)

169
Q

EGT indications are inhibited from changing color to amber for____minutes during T/O or Go around when reach continuous limit.

A

5 min (7.20.2)

170
Q

Oil pressure and Temperature indication will turn____when reaching caution limits and return to____when limits are within normal limits.

A

AMBER/ WHITE (7.20.2)

171
Q

Oil quantity indications will change to___if quantity is low.

A

Magenta (7.20.3)

172
Q

EEC uses__inputs to set___ thrust.

A

Thrust lever, forward and reverse (7.20.5)

173
Q

EEC Alternate mode provides thrust limiting at maximum N1 or maximum EPR whenever thrust lever is less than full forward position. True or False

A

FALSE (7.20.6)

174
Q

When the EEC transfer from normal to alternate the autothrottle will

A

If control for any EEC transfers from normal to alternate, the autothrottle disconnects. (7.20.7)

175
Q

During the engine autostart procedure, the starter will cutout at__

A

50%N2 (CBT-Engine 7.20.8)

176
Q

During the ground start the auto start will monitor oil pressure. True or False - Wait for confirmation

A

False. Crew must monitor oil pressure (CBT - Engine, Normal Operation, Engine start, step 12 (+audio))

177
Q

APU fire warning horn will sound on the ground for

A

APU fire or fire test (FCOM 8.10.6)

178
Q

APU ground control panel is located .

A

Right body gear wheel well (FCOM 8.20.1)

179
Q

There is a dual loop fire detection system in each of the engine compartments. True or False

A

TRUE ((in each nacelle) FCOM 8.20.2)

180
Q

There is a single fire detection system for the APU compartment. True or False.

A

FALSE (FCOM 8.20.2)

181
Q

There is a single fire detection system in each main gear wheel well compartment. True or False.

A

TRUE (FCOM 8.20.3)

182
Q

All extinguishing discharge sqibs are tested

A

for electrical continuity (FCOM 8.20.8)

183
Q

The EICAS warning message “FIRE ENG 1” extinguishes as soon as…

A

the fire condition does not exist (FCOM 8.20.1)

184
Q

What is the result when the AFT Cargo Fire Arm switch is pushed?

A
  1. turns off two packs 2. arms lower cargo compartment fire extinguishers 3. configures equipment cooling to override mode and turns off all airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments 4. closes master trim air valve (FCOM 8.10.4)
185
Q

How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced?

A

by extinguishing the fire or pushing either Master Warning/Caution Reset switch (FCOM 8.20.1)

186
Q

What is the discharging sequence of the fire extinguisher bottles into the FWD lower cargo compartment?

A

Two bottles immediately. the other 2 bottles after a brief delay, or touchdown. (FCOM 8.20.6)

187
Q

Which aircraft systems do NOT have a continuously monitored (meaning: as long as electrical power is available!) Fire / Overheat detection?

A

Cargo Smoke, Wheel Wells fire, bleed duct leak ()

188
Q

How do you recognize a fire in the nose gear wheel well?

A

Impossible (CBT questionnaire step 8)

189
Q

Primary mode positions leading edge flaps

A

Pneumatically ()

190
Q

Primary mode position for trailing edge flaps is

A

Hydraulically ()

191
Q

Secondary mode position for leading and/or trailing edge flaps is

A

Electrically ()

192
Q

The primary flight controls are powered hydraulically with no manual reversion available. True or False

A

TRUE ()

193
Q

An elevator feel and centering mechanism is powered by hydraulic power from which systems?

A

Hyd 2 & 3 systems, loss of one system does not affect feel forces. (FCOM 9.20.2)

194
Q

The four inboard spoilers function as____in flight.

A

Speedbrakes ()

195
Q

The spoiler panels on each wing act as a ground spoilers upon landing.

A

6 (FCOM 9.20.11)

196
Q

What is the stabilizer trim rate with the EICAS advisory message STAB TRIM 2 is displayed?

A

Half the normal schedule rate (FCOM 9.20.5)

197
Q

When will the ground spoilers extend automatically after landing, with the speedbrake lever in the dn position?

A

Main gear on ground, Thrust levers 1&3 near idle, Reverse Thrust levers 2&4 are pulled up to idle detent. (FCOM 9.20.11)

198
Q

You are flying with flaps 20 at the corresponding FLAP LIMIT placard speed. What happens if you select flaps 25?

A

Flap relief + EICAS msg ()

199
Q

During normal flap extension sequence, when do inboard and midspan leading edge flaps extend?

A

Flap lever moved from UP detent to flaps 1 Detent ()

200
Q

In Primary mode operation, how are leading flaps (LEF) and trailing edge flaps (TEF) powered?

A

LE - Pneumatically, TE - Hydraulically ()

201
Q

Due to EICAS message FLAPS CONTROL you have to use Alternate Flaps extension. What is the maximum flaps setting?

A

Flaps 25 ()

202
Q

What happens when moving the flap lever from the FLAPS 1 to the FLAPS 5 position?

A

Outboard LE flaps extend and TE flaps move to flap 5 position (FCOM 9.20.14)

203
Q

Which flaps drive systems have asymmetry protection?

A

Primary and secondary ()

204
Q

What is the purpose of the flaps lever gate at the flaps 20 position?

A

Prevents inadvertent retraction of flaps past go-around position (FCOM 9.10.9)

205
Q

What is the purpose of the flaps load relief system?

A

Protects the flaps from excessive air loads if flap airspeed limits are exceeded with flaps 25 or 30 selected. (Works in Primary mode only)

206
Q

What does the EICAS advisory message FLAPS PRIMARY mean?

A

One or more flap groups operating in secondary control mode (FCOM 9.30.1)

207
Q

How are the flaps powered in the secondary control mode?

A

Electrically ()

208
Q

Which hydraulic systems power the trailing edge flaps?

A

1 & 4 ()

209
Q

Which of the following is indicated by the EICAS caution message STAB TRIM UNSCHD?

A

Uncommanded stabilizer motion detected & automatic cutout does not occur OR Alternate stabilizer trim switches used with autopilot engaged. (FCOM 9.30.2)

210
Q

What will happen when the stabilizer trim switches on the control wheels are actuated with multiple autopilots engaged?

A

Nothing - They are inhibited during autoland (Multiple A/P use) (Two actuators are used so stab moves at NORMAL TRIM rate)

211
Q

What occurs when the alternate stabilizer trim switches are used with any number of autopilots engaged?

A

Override A/P commands but do not disengage A/P. Pilot is warned via a STAB TRIM UNSCHD caution msg.Will override the A/P input ()

212
Q

Which hydraulic systems power the stabilizer trim?

A

2 & 3 ()

213
Q

What occurs when the stabilizer trim switches on the control wheel are actuated with a single autopilot engaged?

A

A/P is disengaged ()

214
Q

Which trim is affected by the control column cutoff function?

A

STAB Trim (FCOM 9.20.5)

215
Q

Hydraulic power for the elevators is provided by which hydraulic systems?

A

Hyd 1 - Left outboard, Hyd 4 - Right outboard, Hyd 1&2 - Left inboard, Hyd 3&4 - Right inboard ()

216
Q

What stabilizer trim condition exists when both stabilizer trim cutout switches are in the cutout position?

A

Hydraulic power to the related trim control module is shut off. ()

217
Q

Why are the outboard ailerons locked out?

A

To prevent overcontrolling at high airspeeds and provides the required roll authority at low airspeeds. (lock in neutral position at 238kts) (FCOM 9.20.7)

218
Q

What does the aileron trim indicator display?

A

Aileron Trim units (The trim deflects the control wheel in a desired direction, the indicator shows the amount of deflection)

219
Q

What is one of the required conditions for automatic speedbrake extension with the speedbrake lever in the arm position?

A

Main gear on ground, Thrust levers 1&3 near idle (FCOM 9.20.11)

220
Q

Which statement is true when the EICAS advisory message SPEEDBRAKE AUTO is displayed?

A

Fault detected in automatic ground spoiler system, Manual still opertional (FCOM 9.30.1)

221
Q

How many spoiler panels are on each wing?

A

6 (similar to question 195)

222
Q

With the speedbrake lever in the armed position what does the EICAS message speedbrake auto mean?

A

Fault detected in automatic ground spoiler system that could result in an inadvertent spoiler extension (FCOM 9.30.1)

223
Q

When are the outboard ailerons locked out?

A

High airspeed ()

224
Q

What is the function of the RUDDER RATIO changers?

A

1.Gradually reduce each rudder surface’s response to pedal inputs as airspeed increases. 2.Protects the vertical tail structure from stresses which could result from large rudder surface deflections at high airspeeds (FCOM 9.20.9)

225
Q

What does the EICAS advisory message RUD RATIO SNGL mean?

A

Upper or lower rudder ratio changer has failed (FCOM 9.30.1 Pg. 1195)

226
Q

What functions do the yaw damper systems provide?

A

Improve airplane lateral & directional stability and provide turn coordination. (FCOM 9.20.9)

227
Q

How many yaw damper systems are there?

A

2 systems ()

228
Q

What does the EICAS message YAW DAMPER LWR or UPPER mean?

A

Yaw damper failure or Power Failure (FCOM 9.30.2)

229
Q

What does the rudder trim indicator display?

A

Units of rudder trim (towards nose left or nose right) ()

230
Q

What does rotating the rudder trim knob do?

A

The rudder feel & trim mechanism repositions the rudder pedal neutral point. ()

231
Q

Radio altitude displays when the aircraft is below____feet AGL

A

2,500ft (FCOM 10.10.16)

232
Q

The Plan Mode in the Map display shows an UP arrow in the top center of the display which shows.

A

True north. (FCOM 10.10.52)

233
Q

Approach and VOR are displayed in a

A

HDG ()

234
Q

MAP displays are in a

A

HDG ()

235
Q

WX displays in

A

MAP, MAP CTR, VOR, APP. Displayed when WX radar switch selected (FCOM 10.40.33, 10.10.70)

236
Q

The Navigation Displays are

A

MAP, VOR, APP, PLN. (FCOM 10.40.1)

237
Q

TEST MODE for Wx Radar tests system without transmitting. TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE (FCOM 11.10.16)

238
Q

WX+T shows weather and turbulance within preciptiation with ranges of ___ or less.

A

40NM (FCOM 11.10.17)

239
Q

When will a flashing amber box appear on the ND heading?

A

Descent phase, if the heading reference is TRU. And airplane descend 2000’ at 800’ per minute (FCOM 11.31.8)

240
Q

Airplane heading is referenced to true north when:

A

the airplane is north of 82° N latitude (or north of 70°N between 80° W and 130°W) or south of 82° S latitude (or south of 60°S between 120° E and 160°E). (FCOM 10.40.2)

241
Q

Which ND mode is not available for CTR display?

A

PLN (FCOM 10.10.69)

242
Q

Where is the selected heading displayed?

A

MCP, Navigation displays and PFDs (FCOM)

243
Q

In which mode(s) can radar returns be displayed on the ND?

A

Map, Map CTR, VOR, APP. (FCOM 10.40.33, 10.10.70)

244
Q

Which source selector controls the signal to the vertical speed indicator?

A

ADC source selector. (FCOM 10.10.72 ??)

245
Q

With the ND in MAP mode, what additional information is displayed when the ARPT switch is pushed on?

A

Displays airports on all ranges. (FCOM 10.10.70)

246
Q

Which orientation is used on the navigation display in PLN mode?

A

True North. (FCOM 10.10.52)

247
Q

When is the pitch limit indicator displayed?

A

When the flaps are out of up. (FCOM 10.10.11)

248
Q

Where is the CDI and scale information displayed?

A

VOR, VOR CTR, APP, APP CTR (FCOM 11.20.6)

249
Q

With the ND in MAP mode, what additional information is displayed when the STA switch is pushed on?

A

additional navigation facility (STA). (FCOM 10.40.27)

250
Q

What indicates a flight director failure?

A

Command bars out of view and flight director flag in the PFD. (FCOM 4.20.2)

251
Q

What identifies the active waypoint on the ND?

A

The waypoint will show in magenta. (FCOM 10.40.29)

252
Q

When weather radar is displayed on the ND, what color indicates the lowest precipitation intensity?

A

Green. (FCOM 10.40.33)

253
Q

With the ND in MAP mode, what additional information is displayed when the WPT switch is pushed on?

A

Waypoints in range of 5, 10, 20, or 40 NM range. (FCOM 10.10.70)

254
Q

Fuel can be scavenge feed through Main tanks

A

From the center tank to main tanks 2,3 (FCOM 12.20.2)

255
Q

Fuel temperature is measured in each respective tank. True or False

A

False -Fuel temperature is measured in main tank 1 and displays on primary EICAS (FCOM 12.20.1)

256
Q

Each reserve tank contains two transfer valves when open gravity feed to

A

to the inboard main tanks when main tank 2 or 3 fuel quantity decreases to approximately 18,200 kilograms. (FCOM 12.20.9)

257
Q

Apu fuel comes from

A

APU fuel is normally supplied from AFT main tank 2. When AC power is available, the aft boost pumps in main tanks 2 and 3 supply pressure to the APU (FCOM 12.20.9)

258
Q

Fuel can be jettison from____.

A

all fuel tanks (FCOM 12.20.11)

259
Q

When does jettison begin, after arming the Jettison logic?

A

Fuel Jettison NOZZLE Valve Switches ON (FCOM 12.20.10)

260
Q

If the flow bar is not in view and the valve light is extinguished on a fuel crossfeed valve switch, what is the position of the crossfeed valve?

A

The switch is off, and the valve close. (CBT– FUEL -Inflight)

261
Q

What is the indication if the CWT pump switches are OFF and there is no fuel in the tank?

A

Nothing ()

262
Q

What does the EICAS caution message FUEL QTY LOW mean?

A

Fuel quantity 900 kgs or less in one or (FCOM 12.30.2)

263
Q

What is the indication if a main tank fuel pump fails?

A

EICAS Message+ LOW pressure light (CBT– FUEL- FAILURES )

264
Q

When will the FMC message “FUEL DISAGREE - PROG 2/2” be displayed?

A

If the FMC calculates a large (4,080kg) difference between the total sensed fuel quantity and calculated (11.32.4)

265
Q

Crossfeed valves 2 and 3 automatically close during?

A

The FSMCs close crossfeed valves 2 and 3 when flaps extend to takeoff position (FCOM 12.20.11)

266
Q

Which tanks are equipped with override jettison pumps?

A

Main tanks 2,3,center wing tank (FCOM 12.10.1)

267
Q

Which pump has to be switched on when the APU is started?

A

None- all automatically (CBT- FUEL- Normal operation)

268
Q

What does the ambler VALVE light in a fuel X-FEED switch tell you?

A

Illuminated (amber) - crossfeed valve not in system logic commanded position (FCOM 12.10.1)

269
Q

When does the > FUEL TEMP LOW message appear?

A

Fuel temperature -37°C or less (FCOM 12.30.4)

270
Q

What happens in the fuel system when takeoff flaps are extended?

A

The FSMCs close crossfeed valves 2 and 3 when flaps extend to takeoff (FCOM 12.20.11)

271
Q

How is fuel transferred out of reserve tanks 1 & 4?

A

Gravity (FCOM 12.20.9)

272
Q

When will the FUEL/TANK EICAS message appear?

A

With crossfeed valve 1 or 4 open: on the ground after fueling, after initial electrical power stablished, or after CMC ground test; main tank 2 quantity less than or equal to main tank 1 quantity plus 500 kgs and main tank 3 quantity less than or equal to main tank 4 quantity plus 500 kgs, or in flight, main tank 2 quantity equal to or less than main tank 1 quantity, or main tank 3 quantity equal to or less than main tank 4 quantity. Message inhibited during jettison. Message inhibited on the ground with
takeoff power

on the ground after fueling, after initial
electrical power established, or after
CMC ground test; main tank 2 quantity
less than or equal to main tank 1
quantity plus 500 kgs and main tank 3
quantity less than or equal to main tank
4 quantity plus 500 kgs, or
in flight, main tank 2 quantity equal to
or less than main tank 1 quantity, or
main tank 3 quantity equal to or less
than main tank 4 quantity.
Message inhibited during jettison.
Message inhibited on the ground with
takeoff power
 (FCOM 12.30.4)
273
Q

There are 4 independent systems driven by

A

EDP (Engine driven pumps) & Demand pumps ()

274
Q

Systems 1 and 4 have demand pumps.

A

ADP (Air Driven) ()

275
Q

Systems 2 and 3 have demand pumps.

A

ACMP (AC electric) ()

276
Q

The Aux Pump works with System fluid.

A

4 ()

277
Q

The Aux pump is operated by a system.

A

electric ()

278
Q

The Aux pump can be used both on the ground and in the air. True or False

A

(Ground use only, for breaking and MX purposes) ()

279
Q

What hydraulic system powers the alternate brakes and the body gear steering system?

A

System 1 only (FCOM 13.20.2)

280
Q

What hydraulic system powers the respective autopilot servos?

A

3 Left Autopilot, 1 Center Autopilot and 2 Right Autopilot (FCOM 13.20.2)

281
Q

What causes the EICAS message “HYD PRESS DEM” to remain displayed after the selector has been placed in the ON position? Pump pressure low

A

Malfunction for the demand pump, demand pump output pressure low ()

282
Q

Select the correct statement:

A

? ()

283
Q

The electric AUX pump in system 4 …

A

? ()

284
Q

Demand selector 4 is in AUX. Select the correct statement…

A

? ()

285
Q

The EDPs can not deliver hydraulic pressure …

A

While engines are not running, and engine pump not switched ON, and eng fire switch pulled ()

286
Q

With flaps in landing position during approach …

A

HYD 1 & 4 demand pumps activate ()

287
Q

Engine 3 is shut down due to a fire warning and the fire switch is pulled, and fuel control switch 3 in CUTOFF. S

A

If an engine fire switch is pulled, the respective hydraulic fluid shutoff valve closes, the EDP depressurizes, and the respective demand pump operates ()

288
Q

You are on approach selecting flaps 5. HYD PRESS DEM 1 message appears. What should be done?

A

Possible auto logic failure. Turn HYD 1 demand pump on ()

289
Q

Which abnormal condition does not trigger the SYS FAULT light?

A

Low air pressure in the reservoir ()

290
Q

The beeper sounds and hydraulic SYS FAULT light 2 is on. Which message triggers the EICAS caution alert?

A

HYD PRESS SYS 2 (FCOM Chapter 13 Section 30)

291
Q

During flap extension while taxiing out, the SYS FAULT light 4 illuminates and the message HYD OVHT 4 appears. What describes the situation correctly?

A

Excessive hydraulic temp. detected. (When temp above 105 deg) possible overheated pump. ()

292
Q

What conditions would cause the DEMAND pumps to operate with the selector in the AUTO position?

A

Respective engine output pressure low or fuel control switch in cutoff. sys 1&4 during periods of high system demands, such as flaps in transit or or gear retraction. ()

293
Q

When the #1 EDP switch is ON, when will the #1 engine produce pressure?

A

Eng rotates ()

294
Q

What condition would automatically command Hydraulic demand pumps #1 and #4 to operate?

A

TE flaps in transit, or flaps extended with engines IDLE ()

295
Q

What causes the EICAS message “HYD PRESS DEM 4” to be displayed?

A

Demand Selector OFF ()

296
Q

The HYDRAULIC demand pump in System 4 is disabled when the system 4 demand pump selector is in the AUX position.

A

TRUE ()

297
Q

With a HYDRAULIC system 1 failure, what capability is lost?

A

Center Autopilot, Inboard TE flap, Nose & Body Steering\actuation, Left outboard elevator ()

298
Q

The window heat control switches control heating to the:

A

Forward windshield only (FCOM 3.20.4, 3.10.3)

299
Q

Probe heat supplies heat to:

A

4 pitot-static probes + 2 angle of attack probes (engine operating) 2 TAT (FCOM 3.20.4)

300
Q

WHAT WILL HAPPEN IF THE ENGINE 1 NACELLE ANTI-ICE SWITCH IS ON AND THE VALVE REMAINS CLOSED?

A

Anti ice valve remains closed. Nacelle Anti ice Valve 1 MSG. Valve light illuminates (FCOM 3.20.1)

301
Q

WHEN DO THE TAT PROBES RECEIVE ANTI-ICING PROTECTION?

A

In flight (FCOM 3.20.4)

302
Q

WHAT DOES THE EICAS ADVISORY MESSAGE HEAT P/S F/O MEAN?

A

Pitot static probe heat failed on F\O side (FCOM 3.30.1)

303
Q

WHAT HAPPENS WHEN THE FIRST OFFICER’S WINDSHIELD AIR SWITCH IS ON?

A

Anti-fogging air flow from the flight deck conditioned air supply to right windshield (FCOM 3.20.4)

304
Q

IF THE EICAS MESSAGE HEAT R TAT IS DISPLAYED ON THE GROUND, POWER IS BEING APPLIED TO THE RIGHT TAT PROBE. True/False

A

TRUE (FCOM 3.30.1 “TAT probe heat is failed, or on the ground, TAT probe is heated.”)

305
Q

WHEN SHOULD WING ANTI-ICE BE USED ON THE GROUND?

A

Never (FCOM SP.16.7 “The wing anti-ice system may be used as a de-icer or anti-icer in flight only.”)

306
Q

WHAT DOES THE EICAS ADVISORY MESSAGE HEAT L TAT MEAN?

A

TAT probe heat is failed, or on the ground, TAT probe is heated. (FCOM 3.30.1)

307
Q

WHICH IS TRUE WITH THE NACELLE ANTI-ICE SWITCHES ON?

A

the respective nacelle anti-icing valve is commanded open, engine igniters, EICAS nacelle anti ice msg, Approach idle (FCOM 3.20.1)

308
Q

WHAT IS REQUIRED TO PREVENT WING DAMAGE AFTER LANDING, WITH THE WING ANTI-ICE SWITCH OFF, AND THE EICAS WAI VALVE RIGHT MESSAGE DISPLAYED?

A

ENGINE BLEEDs switch off (affected side), ISLN valve switch off (right) (QRH page 119)

309
Q

HEAT FOR WHICH WINDOWS IS CONTROLLED BY THE WINDOW HEAT SWITCHES?

A

Front only (Right or Left - CAPT or F\O switches) (FCOM 3.20.4)

310
Q

WHAT DOES THE EICAS MESSAGE HEAT FOLLOWED BY THE NAME OF THE PROBE MEAN?

A

Probe heat has failed, unpowered probe (FCOM 3.30.1)

311
Q

WHEN IS THE EICAS ADVISORY MESSAGE WAI VALVE LEFT DISPLAYED?

A

valve is not in the commanded position. (FCOM 3.30.1)

312
Q

Rudder pedals full deflection will turn the nose wheel up to___degrees.

A

Turns nose wheel up to 7 degrees in either direction (FCOM 14.10.3)

313
Q

The brake accumulator is normally powered by hydraulic system

A

True- The brake accumulator is pressurized by hydraulic system 4 (FCOM 14.20.6)

314
Q

RTO will become active above

A

The airplane is on the ground, Groundspeed is above 85 knots, and all thrust levers are closed (FCOM 14.20.5)

315
Q

Gear Position Indicator show the color___and then blanks when the gear is up and locked.

A

UP (white) - all landing gear up and locked (blanks after 10 seconds) (FCOM 14.10.6)

316
Q

The brake temperature white range is____.

A

white - normal range; 0 to 4 (FCOM 14.10.8)

317
Q

The brake temperature amber to high range is .

A

amber - high range; 5 or higher (FCOM 14.10.8)

318
Q

Normal hydraulic brake system is powered from system

A

The normal brake hydraulic system is powered by hydraulic system 4 (FCOM 14.20.3)

319
Q

Alternate brake system is powered by

A

Hydraulic system No.1 and System no.2 as a backup (FCOM 14.20.3)

320
Q

Upon gear retraction the main gear is held up and locked with trapped hydraulic pressure when the gear handle is selected to the off position. True or False.

A

False- Positioning the Landing Gear lever to OFF depressurizes the landing gear system. (FCOM 14.20.2)

321
Q

Nose wheel and main body gear steering is powered by hydraulic system

A

system 1. (FCOM 14.20.3)

322
Q

If the antiskid system is lost …

A

ANTISKID displays on the gear synoptic adjacent to the affected wheels, Longer landing distances, Braking and autobrakes effectiveness reduced and, Tire blowout, Locked tire. (FCOM 14.20.4)

323
Q

The ANTISKID message indicates the lost of …

A

Fault detected in antiskid system.(Protection) (FCOM 14.30.2)

324
Q

THE ACCUMULATOR STORES ENOUGH PRESSURE TO SET THE PARKING BRAKE BUT IS NOT DESIGNED TO STOP THE AIRPLANE.

A

The brake accumulator provides for parking brake application (FCOM 14.20.4)

325
Q

What causes the gear to extend when the alternate gear extension switches are use?

A

Gravity / freefall (FCOM 14.20.3)

326
Q

When is the eicas message BRAKE TEMP displayed?

A

One of the Brakes equal or greater than 5 units (FCOM 14.30.2)

327
Q

After takeoff, how is the autobrakes selector positioned to off?

A

When the autobrake system disarms during takeoff, the Autobrakes selector remains in RTO position, but moves to OFF after takeoff. (FCOM 14.20.5 system logic )

328
Q

When does the eicas message ANTISKID OFF display?

A

Antiskid power off on all wheels, or parking brake lever released and parking brake valve not fully open, or brake system control unit power loss occurs. ()

329
Q

When is the eicas message CONFIG PARK BRK displayed?

A

in RUN, and engine 2 or 3 thrust inParking brake set when airplane on the ground, airspeed less than V1, three or more Fuel Control switches takeoff range (FCOM 15.30.1)

330
Q

What happens when tiller and rudder pedals are operated simultaneously on the ground?

A

Tiller inputs override rudder pedal inputs. (FCOM 14.20.3)

331
Q

What holds the main landing gear in the retracted position with the gear off?

A

uplocks (FCOM 14.20.2)

332
Q

How long is the gear up indication displayed on eicas after all gears are up and locked?

A

10 seconds (FCOM 14.20.2)

333
Q

When the autobrake system is armed during landing, when are the brakes applied after touchdown?

A

all thrust levers are closed, ground mode is sensed, and the wheels have spun up (FCOM 14.20.5)

334
Q

To what speed will the autobrake system provide automatic braking?

A

to a complete stop or until disarmed. (FCOM 14.20.5)

335
Q

What disarms the autobrakes after landing?

A

DISARM or OFF position selected, pedal braking, any Thrust lever advanced after landing, Speedbrake lever moved to DOWN detent deployed on the ground, autobrake fault, normal antiskid system fault, loss of normal brake hydraulic pressure (FCOM 14.20.5)

336
Q

A traffic advisory prediction will annunciate when an aircraft is within conflict airspace in

A

25-45 seconds. (FCOM 15.20.13. )

337
Q

Proximate traffic shows on TCAS display when aircraft is

A

6 miles or 1,200ft vertically. (FCOM 15.20.13)

338
Q

Traffic message amber in color means

A

Traffic Advisory (TA). (FCOM 15.20.14)

339
Q

Traffic message red in color means

A

Traffic Resolution (RA). (FCOM 15.20.14)

340
Q

GPWS RED PULLUP on both PFDs shows impact in

A

20-30 seconds. (FCOM 15.20.19)

341
Q

Caution obstacle in amber on both NDs shows impact in

A

40-60 seconds. (FCOM 15.20.20)

342
Q

All TCAS RAs are inhibited below

A

Approx. 1,000ft Radio Altitude. (FCOM 15.20.32)

343
Q

All Descent TCAS RAs are inhibited below____radio altitude.

A

Approx. 1,100ft Radio Altitude. (FCOM 15.20.32)

344
Q

ON WHICH FMS-CDU PAGES ARE ROUTE MODIFICATIONS ENTERED?

A

LEGS or RTE page as a waypoint. (FCOM 11.42.16)

345
Q

CAN THE FLIGHT CREW CHANGE THE GMT ON THE POS INIT PAGE?

A

No ()

346
Q

WAYPOINT SPEED AND ALTITUDE CONSTRAINTS ARE ENTERED ON WHICH FMS-CDU PAGE?

A

LEGS PAGE (FCOM 11.41.7)

347
Q

WHAT FMS-CDU PAGE DISPLAYS THE FMC AND IRS POSITIONS AND GROUND SPEEDS?

A

POSITION REFERENCE 2/3 (FCOM 11.40.12)

348
Q

HOW CAN AN ACTIVE ROUTE BE CLEARED?

A

Enter a new destination ()

349
Q

WHAT DOES THE FMS-CDU DSPY LIGHT MEAN?

A

current display is not related to the active leg or current performance mode. (FCOM 11.10.4)

350
Q

WHICH COST INDEX PROVIDES MAXIMUM RANGE?

A

zero (FCOM 11.31.3)

351
Q

THE SUPPLEMENTARY NORMAL PROCEDURE FOR IRS FAST ALIGNMENT REQUIRES ENTERING PRESENT POSITION

A

TRUE. positioning selectors to ALIGN, entering present position, and repositioning selectors to NAV. Fast realignment completes in approximately 30 seconds. (FCOM 11.20.3 )

352
Q

WHAT INFORMS THE FLIGHT CREW THAT THE ACTIVE NAVIGATION LEG CANNOT BE INTERCEPTED BY FOLLOWING THE PRESENT HEADING?

A

FMC message - NOT ON INTERCEPT HEADING (FCOM 11.60.7)

353
Q

WHAT DOES THE FMC DATABASE CONTAIN?

A

navigation, operational program configuration (OPC), aero engine database (AEDB), MAGVAR tables (FCOM 11.32.1)

354
Q

WHEN ROUTE 1 IS ACTIVE, HOW CAN ROUTE 2 BE ACTIVATED?

A

Activating and executing RTE 2 or LEGS 2 ()

355
Q

WHEN DOES THE FMS CLEAR THE LATITUDE AND LONGITUDE ENTRY FROM THE SET IRS POS LINE ON THE FMS-CDU POS INIT PAGE?

A

When all IRUs enter the navigation mode. (FCOM 11.20.3)

356
Q

WHAT INFORMATION MAY BE ENTERED INTO THE FMS-CDU WAYPOINT WINDS PAGE?

A

Forecast wind and temperature up to 4 altitudes (FCOM 11.31.23 and FCOM 11.42.1)

357
Q

WHICH IS TRUE REGARDING THE ILS RADIOS?

A

Tuned automatically or manually ()

CAL B747 Systems (18 decks)

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