bone injury, healing and grafting Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

When do stress fractures occur?

A
  • Cyclical loading with forces below the ultimate strength of the bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is cortical bone stiffer than cancellous?

A
  • Yes
  • Tolerates less strain before fracture 2% cf cancellous which is 75%
  • Anisotrophic
    • strong in compression
    • weak in tension > shear ( worst)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What determines the energy of the force transferred to the bone?

A
  • E= 1/2 mv2
  • m = mass
  • v = velocity
  • thus the energy imparted increases as the square of the velocity of the injury
  • bone is viscoelastic - the biomechanical properties vary with the rate of application of the load
  • bone is stiffer, stronger and more brittle when loads are applied at a higher rate
  • with rapid loading bone absorbs more energy than when loaded more slowly and this energyis released as it fractures
  • therefore as the energy increases the more comminuted the fx is likely to be
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What 5 key factors determine the type of fractures created?

A
  • Load
  • Rate
  • Direction
  • Bone properties- shape/anatomical area/quality of bone
  • Soft tissue forces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do compressive forces do to bone?

A
  • Lead to shear forces
  • fx at 45o to compressive load
  • -> oblique fractures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do tensile forces do to bone?

A
  • Arise at soft- tissue insertions to cancellous bone
  • -> transverse fx due to debonding of cement lines adn pulliing of osteons e.g patella/oelcranon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What do pure bending forces do to bone?

A
  • transverse fx from tension on the convexity and compression on concavity with the neutral axis moving towards the fx
  • a bending wedge ( butterfly) fragment may occur compression ( concave ) side especially with high energy injuries
  • with combined bending and compression= a transverse fx on tension and oblique fx on compression side
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What do torsional forces do to bone?

A
  • Spiral fx
  • if torsion and compression combined = spiral wedge fx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do 4 point bending forces do to bone?

A
  • segmental fx
  • like hitting a car bumper
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When does primary bone healing occur?

A
  • Anatomical reduction and interfragmentary compression
  • -> absolute stability ( no motion between fx surfaces under functional load)
  • this process is very intolerant of strain ( movement ) at the fx site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describes what happens in primary bone healing?

A
  • In first few days there is minimal activity in areas of direct contact ( contact healing)
  • New blood vessels grow into any small gpas that exist ( gap healing) and mesechymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts
  • these lay down new bone in small gaps and woven bone in larger gaps
  • subsequently Osetoclasts form cutting cones that tunnel across the fx site whereveer there is contact between the bone ends or minute gap
  • this leaves a path for blood vessels and osteoblasts to follow in their wake, laying down lamellar bone in the form of new osteons
  • the formation of osteons bridging the gap may take months and may be difficult to see on xray
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When does secondary bone healing occur?

A
  • In the presence of relative stability
  • ( some movement at the fx site)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 2 methods of secondary bone healing?

A
  • Periosteal bony callus = Intramembranous ossification
  • Fibrocartilaginous bridging callus = endosteal ossification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Periosteal bony callus Intramembranous ossification?

A
  • Multipotent cells in the periosteum differentiate into osteoprognitor cells which produce bone directly without first forming cartilage
  • This hard callus forms early on at the periphery of the fracture site providing there hasn’t been extensive periosteal stripping
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Fibrocartilaginous bridging callus, endosteal ossification?

A
  • This process occurs stimultaneously between adjacent bone ends and involes the formation of fibrocartilage that become calcified adn is then replaced by osteoud or woven bone.
  • This process occurs within the surrounding soft tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the stages of callus formation of endoosteal ossificaiton?

A
  • Stage 1 -haematoma and inflammation
    • up to a week
  • **Stage 2- Soft callus **
    • 1 week - 1 month
  • Stage 3- hard callus
    • 1-4 months
  • Stage 4- remodelling
    • up to several years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What happens in the stage I of callus formation?

A
  • Haematoma from ruptured blood vessels -> fibrin clot
  • damaged tissue and degranulated platelets release signalling moecules and growth factors
  • Migration of inflammatory cells PMNs. macrophages and fibroblasts into haematoma, responding to local growth factors and cytokines - IL1, IL6, TGF-Beta< BMPs, PDGF
  • Proliferation , differentiation and matrix synthesis as the haematoma is replaced by granulation tissue.
  • capillary ingrowth ( angiogenesis) and recruitment of fibroblasts, mesechymal adn osteoprognitor cells. periosteum plays important role
  • all necrotic bone ends, bone resorptionis mediated by OC, and removal of tissue debris by macrophages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What happens in the stage 2 of callus formation?

A
  • Increased celluarity , with proliferation and differentiation and soft callus revascularisation
  • callus is a combination of fibrous tissue, cartilage and woven bone
  • Intramembranous callus- primary callus reponse- type 1 collagen laid down from periosteal OB in the Cambium layer of periosteal body callus or woven bone. hard callus but doesn’t bridge the fx
  • endochondral callus- bridging external callus- multipotent cells differentiate to -> chondroblasts and fibroblasts within the granulating callus=> type 2 cartilaginous and fibrous elements of matrix
    • chondroblasts then calcify the chondroid matrix -> calcified fibrocartilage/ soft callus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens in the stage 3 of callus formation?

A
  • Calcified soft callus is resorbed by chondroclasts adn invaded by new blood vessels
  • these bring with them OB precursors that produce type 1 collagen and then mineralise it to form woven bone
  • Soft calcifed chondroid callus becomes hard mineralised osteoid callus
  • Bony bridging continues peripherally as subperiosteal new bone formation At this point the fx is united, solid and pain free to movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens in the stage IV of callus formation?

A
  • Once the fx has united the hard callus is remodelled from woven bone to hard , dense lamellar bone by a process of osteoclastic resorption followed by osteoblastic bone formation. the medullary canal reforms at the end of this process
  • this is the same mechanism as for direct cortical , osteonal or primary bone healing
  • bone assumes a configuration and shape based on stresses acting upon it - wolfe’s law
  • OB activity > on electro+ve Tension side
  • OC activity > on elctro-ve compression side
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Perren’s strain theory of fx healing?

A
  • After a fx fixation or immobilisation the fx will undergo some degree of movement or strain
  • Strain at the fx site is decreased with increased fx gap or greater surface area e.g. metaphsyeal fx and in multifragmented or segmental fx
  • Fx callus becomes increasingly stiff with time from the gelatinous granultation tissue ti soft callus and then hard bony callus each of these tissues tolerates a diff amount of strain
    • granulation tissue up to 100%
    • Fibrous connective tissue 17%
    • Fibrocartilage 2-10%
    • lamellar bone 2%
  • the degree of interfragmentary strain appears to govern the cellular response and therefore the type of tissue that forms between fx fragments
  • in absolute stablity ( compression plating/rigid ext fixation) the fragments are inital contact, so strain low allow primary bone healing. If fixed rigid but gap present then cutting cones won’t bridge gap and lack of strain inhibit callus formation-> atrophic non union
  • in relative stability ( splint, IM nail, bridge plating) the more strain tolerant cartilaginous callus is required to stiffen the fx site before hard woven bony callus forming and replacing it. a larger strain -> bigger callus
  • in complete instablity callus is unable to form as strain is too much for it to tolerate. the more strain tolerant fibrous tissue forms-> hypertrophic non union
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the factors affecting bone healing ?

A

Local

  • Degree of soft tissue trauma
  • Assoc NV injury
  • Degree of bone loss
  • Degree of immobilisation
  • Open fx or presence of infection
  • local pathological lesion ( tumour)
  • Type of fx ( tibia 3-4/12, MC 4-6/52)
  • Site of fx ( metaphysis vs diaphysis)
  • Interposition of soft tissue or inadequate reduction

Systemic

  • Smoking ( affects OB fucntion)
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Nutrition
  • Age
  • Drugs ( steriods/nsaids)
  • Horomones
  • Assoc head injury ( enhances fx healing)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is non union of a fracture?

A
  • The lack of healing of a fx within the expected time frame of the bone involved
  • healing varies with the bones
    • ​radius 4-6/52
    • scaphoid 8 /52
    • tibial 16/52
    • femoral 16 + 4/52
24
Q

What is clinical union of a fx?

A
  • defined by the absence of tenderness or motion of the fx site with no pain on loading
25
Q

What is radiological union of a fx?

A
  • the presence of visibile bridging trabeculae on 3 out of 4 cortices on xrays
26
Q

What are the type of union?

A
  • Hypertrophic
  • **Atrophic **
27
Q

What is the cause of hypertophic non union and what is it tx?

A
  • A good blood supply but excessive strain at the fx site prevents progression of the callus -> bone
  • Require biomechanical stability to allow callus pregression to bone to occur
28
Q

What is the cause of atrophic non union and what is it tx?

A
  • Poor blood supply that os caused by soft tissue damage, perosteal stripping and or fx cominution during injury or time of surgical exposure
  • A fx fixed with rigid fixation with a gap-> lack of stimulation of callus formation
  • tx requires stabilisation and biological enhancement
29
Q

What is bone grafting?

A
  • The use of implanted material that alone or in combination with other materials promote a bone -healing response by providing osteogenic, osteoconductive or osteo-inductive activity to a local site
30
Q

What are the functions of bone grafts?

A
  • Provide
    • mechanical- support
    • biological- stimulus for bone formation
31
Q

What are the indications for bone grafts?

A
  • Provisional structural stability
    • massive femoral grafting
  • Stimulation of bone formation
    • in spinal fusions
  • enhancement of fx healing
    • acute- comminuted fx/ elevation of depressed fx
    • non union
32
Q

What are the properties of bone grafts?

A
  • Osteogeneicity
    • graft contains living cells capable of differentiation
  • ​Osteoconduction
    • ​graft provides a 3d scaffold
  • ​Osteoinductive
    • ​graft provides a biolocial stimulus that stimulates mitosis and differentiation of undifferentiated meschymal cells with capacity to form new bone
    • demineralised bone graft has this potent as contains BMPs, IGF-1 /2 granulocye/macrophage colony stimulating factors
33
Q

What are autografts bone grafts?

A
  • **Tissue harvested from and implanted into the same individual **
  • e.g. cancellous/cortical and vascularised grafts
34
Q

What are allografts bone grafts?

A
  • Tissue harvested from one individual and implanted into another of the same species
  • graft is processed to remove immunogenic cells, decreasing the risk of both immune response and transmission infection
    • types
      • anatomy
        • cortical/cancellous/corticocancellous
      • Processing
        • fresh, frozen, freeze-dried
      • Sterilisation
        • sterile processing, irradiated, ethylene oxide
      • Handling properties
        • powder, gel, paste/putty, chips, strips/block, massive
35
Q

What are xenografts bone grafts?

A
  • Tissue harvested from one species and implantd into a different species
  • unfortunately vigorous immune responses preclude the use of most preparations
36
Q

What are the dangers of bone grafts?

A
  • Autografts
    • donor site morbidity
      • scar/haematoma/infection/pain
  • Allografts
    • Disease transmission
      • microbiological - 2 cases of HIV per 1 million grafts
      • pathological- 8% femoral head evidence of disease ( benign /malig tumours)
    • Immune sensitisation
37
Q

What are the propeties of autologous bone marrow for bone graft?

A
  • Osteogenic
  • Osteoinductive
38
Q

What are the properties of autologous cancellous bone for bone graft?

A
  • Osteogenic
  • Osteconductive
  • mild osteoinductive
  • Structural mild
39
Q

What are the properties of autologous cortical bone for bone graft?

A
  • Osteogenic - mild
  • Osteoconductive- mild
  • Osteoinductive- mild
  • Structural - ++ ( early)
40
Q

What are the properties of autologous vascularised bone for bone graft?

A
  • OSteogenic
  • OSteoconductive
  • osteoinductive- mild
  • Structural ++
  • Vascularisd ++
41
Q

What are the properties of allograft cancellous bone?

A
  • Oseoconductive ++
  • osteoinductive +
42
Q

What are the properties of allograft cortical bone?

A
  • Osteoconductive ++
  • osteoinductive +
  • structural ++
43
Q

What are the properties of allograft demineralised bone?

A
  • OSteoconductive ++
  • OSteoinductive ++ = BMPs
  • no structure
44
Q

What are the properties of bone graft subitiutes like calcium phosphates?

A
  • Osteoconductive ++
  • Structural +
  • vascularised +
45
Q

Descibe how autogenous non vascularise cancellous grafts incoorporate?

A
  • Similar to cortical grafts undergoing an inflammatory response
  • process similar to callus formation with formation of inital bony scaffold and subsequent remodelling with all cancellous grafts eventually being replaced by creeping subsitution
  • Phase 1
    • vascular ingrowth, chemotaxis and invasion/differentiation of multipotent stem cells. As revascularisation is rapid, surface osteocytes survive
  • Phase 2
    • OB lay down new bone on the scaffold of dead trabeculae with stimultaneous OC resorption ( creeping subsitiution) this leads to early increase in density of X rays and an associated transient increase in strength
  • ​Phase 3
    • ​Osteoclast/blasts remodelling of the trabecula along the lines of force with assoc decreased radiodensity
  • ​**Allogenic grafts undergo a similar process with more inflammation and less predictability
46
Q

Descibe how autogenous non vascularise cortical grafts incoorporate?

A
  • After an intial much slower process of inflammation and revascularisation , incoporate in a different manner to cancellous grafts
  • All donor bone has to be removed before appositional bone formation occurs
  • Osetoclastic resorption via cutting cones into the graft has to precede OB formation
  • SO 40-60% of mechanical strength is lost in the first 3-6 months and returns only after 1-2 years
  • inital incorporation occurs at the host-graft junction via enchondral bone formation
  • subsquently there is new appositional bone formation by ingrowth of new osteons following new blood vessels
47
Q

Name some bone substitutes?

A
  • Calcium phosphates
    • bulk
      • tricalcium phosphate ( partial conversion to hydroxyapatite)
    • Injectable
      • NorianSRS- paste of inorganic calcium phospahte
  • Calcium carbonates
    • Biocora- chemcially altered marine coral
  • Coralline hydroxyapatite
    • pro-osteon- converted to calcium phosphate
  • Calcium sulphate
    • Osteosset
      • osteoconductive calcium sulphate pellets
  • Silicon based
    • glassionmer cement
  • ceramic compounds
    • calcium collagen graft material
48
Q

Name some osteoinductive agents?

A
  • Transforming growth factor beta
    • super family of growth factors found in platelets and many cells
    • induces synthesis of type 2 collagen and proteoglycans
    • stimulates proliferation/differentiation of OB
    • stored in matrix and released during resorption
  • Bone Morphogenic Proteins
    • family at least 17 gylcoproteins able to stimulate ectopic bone formation
    • BMP2,3, and 7 appear to be the most important
    • induce differentiation of mysenchymal cells to osteogenic lineages
  • ​Fibroblast growth factors
    • ​mitogenic for many cell types
    • released from endothelial cells
    • Stimulates angiogenesis and callus formation
  • Platelet derived growth factors
    • Potent chemotactic activity following fx
    • Release from platelets and moncytes after trauma
    • Stimulates deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis
49
Q

What are the prinicples to apply for bone banking?

A
  • Donor Consent
  • Donor Screening
  • Exclusion Criteria
  • Allograft Processing
  • Allograft Preservation
50
Q

What consent is required for bone banking?

A
  • Living donor
    • consent to cover retrieval, testing and access to medical records
  • Cadavers
    • Prerequisite is lack of objection from the next of kin
51
Q

What does the donor screening involve in bone banking?

A
  • Medical and behavioural history
    • to exclude ivdu
    • obtained from next of kin/ Gp notes
  • Blood tests
    • hepatitis B/C
    • HIV
    • Syphilis
    • Rhesus status
52
Q

What are the exlusion criteria for donors?

A
  • HIV
  • Hepatitis B and C
  • Malignancy
  • Systemic disorders that may compromise biological or biomechanical integrity of the graft
    • RA, autoimmune disease, long term steriods
  • Disease of unknown origin
    • Alzheimer’s, Creutzfedt-Jakob, multiple sclerosis
53
Q

How are allografts processed?

A
  • Aim to remove superfluous proteins, cells and tissues in order to decrease immune sensitization and disease transmission
  • Allows better graft preservation
  • Physical debridment of unwanted tissue
  • Ultrasonic processing with/wout pulsatile washes to remove remaining cells and blood
  • Ethanol treatment to denature cell proteins and reduced bacterial and viral load
  • Antibiotic soak to kill bacteria
  • Irradiation to sterilise tissue, particuarly if contaminated or if not processd in a sterile manner
  • Demineralisation
54
Q

How are allografts preserved?

A
  • Fresh- immunogenic
  • Fresh- Frozen at -70oC
    • has least impact on mechanical strength
    • Decrease immunogenicity
    • Preserve BMPs
  • ​Lyophilized ( freeze-dried)
    • least immunogenic
    • lowest likelihood of disease transmission
    • BMP depleted
    • May structurally weaken during rehydration
55
Q

Name some examples of products available from bone banks?

A
  • Fresh Frozen femoral Heads
    • Whole femoral head retrieved from a living donor
    • unprocessed >50g in weight
    • Only frozen
  • Cancellous cubes
    • approx 1cm3 in volume
    • freeze-dried and irradiated in packs of 5
  • Massive bone allografts
    • grafts prepared with articular cartilage adn soft tissue removed
    • frozen and irradiated
    • small stock of distal femora and prox tibia stored