Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Upper Extremities > BOC EXAM > Flashcards

BOC EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

5 Types of Tissue Loading

A
  1. Compression 2. Tension 3. Shearing 4. Bending

5. Torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define: Clonic Muscle Spasm

A

Involuntary contraction to relaxation in rapid succession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define: Tonic Muscle Spasm

A

Constant contraction over period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define Tendinosis

A

Shift from Tendinitis to tendon degeneration.
S/S: Pain, swollen, stiffness.
Tx: Strengthen and stretch tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define Tenosynovitis

A

Inflammation of tendon and synovial sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Latent Trigger Point

A

Does not cause spontaneous pain but restricts movement or causes muscle weakness. Pain is felt when pressure is applied over point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Active Trigger Point

A

Causes pain at rest. Applied pressure over causes “jump sign.” Referred pain/radiating pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define: Osteoarthritis

A

Decrease of hyaline cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the 5 functions of Bone

A
  1. Body Support 2. Organ Protection 3. Movement via joints/levers 4. Calcium storage
  2. Hematopoiesis - formation of blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What do Osteoblasts do?

A

Bone Producing cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do Osteoclasts do?

A

Bone-remodeling cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define: Hypoesthesia

A

Diminished sense of feeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define: Hyperesthesia

A

Increase sense of feeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define Paresthesia

A

Numbness, tingling, prickling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define Neuropraxia

A

Compression or mild blunt blow to nerve. Temporary loss of function within hrs - months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define Neuritis

A

Inflammation of nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Burning Sensation is indicative of…

A

a nerve being over stretched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cardinal Signs of Inflammation (5)

A
  1. Redness (Rubor) 2. Swelling (Tumor) 3. Pain (Dolor) 4. Heat (Calor)
  2. Loss of function (functiolaesa)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Job of Chemical Mediator - Histamine

A

Vasodilation and increase cell permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Job of Chemical Mediator - Leukotrines

A

Margination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Job of Chemical Mediator - Cytokines

A

Attract phagocytes to injured site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Psychological Response (Kubler - Ross rx) 5 Steps

A
  1. Denial
  2. Anger
  3. Bargaining
  4. Depression
  5. Acceptance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define: Hypovolemic

A

Decrease blood volume leading to shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Neurogenic Shock

A

General dilation of vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Psychogenic Shock

A

Fainting (syncope)

Temporary dilation of vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cardiogenic Shock

A

Inability of heart to pump enough blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Septic Shock

A

Bacterial toxins = dilation of vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Anaphylactic Shock

A

Allergies

Tx:epi-pen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Metabolic Shock

A

Untreated diabetes

Decrease of body fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

S/S of Shock

A 
Moist
Pale
Clammy Skin
Weak + Rapid pulse
Increased shallow respiratory rate
Decreased systolic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Normal Pulse Rates
Children
Adults

A

Children 60-100 bpm

Adults 80-100 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Normal Respiration Rates
Children
Adults

A

Children 12-20

Adults 15-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Normal Temperature Range

A

98.2 DF - 98.6 DF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Define Saggital plane

A

Divides body into left/right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Define Transverse plane

A

Divides body into upper/lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define Coronal plane

A

Divides body into anterior/posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Difference between Sign and Symptom

A

Sign - Indicator of disease. Determined when pt. is examined

Symptoms - Change indicating injury/disease. Subjective from pt.pov

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

HOPS stands for?

A

History
Observation
Palpation
Special Tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Define Conduction

A

Heating through direct contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Define Convection

A

Heating indirectly through medium such as air/liquid - whirlpool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Define Radiation

A

Transfer of heat through space from one object to another - diathermy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Define Conversion

A

Heating through other forms of energy - ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Define Effleurage Massage

A

Stroking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Define Petrissage Massage

A

Kneading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Define Friction Massage

A

Heat producing massage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Define Tapotement Massage

A

Percussion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Myotome Patterns C1

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Myotome Pattern C2

A

Neck Flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Myotome Pattern C3

A

Neck lateral flexion/extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Myotome Pattern C4

A

Shoulder Shrug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Myotome Pattern C5

A

Shoulder ABD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Myotome C6

A

Elbow flexion

Wrist extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Myotome C7

A

Elbow extension

Wrist flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Myotome C8

A

Ulnar Deviation

Thumb Extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Myotome T1

A

Finger ADD/ABD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Myotome L1

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Myotome L2

A

Hip flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Myotome L3

A

Knee Extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Myotome L4

A

Ankle Dorsiflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Myotome L5

A

Hallux Extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Myotome S1

A

Plantar Flexion/eversion/knee flx/hip ext

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Myotome S2

A

Plantar flexion/knee flexion/hip ext

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Myotome S3

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Myotome S4

A

Bladder/Rectum anal wink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Define Proprioception

A

Ability to determine position of joint in space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Define Kinesthesia

A

Ability to detect movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Acetaminophen (Tylenol) uses

A

Analgesic effects
Antipyretic
Headaches
NO ANTI INFLAMMATORY activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Acetylsalicylic Acid (Aspirin) uses

A 
Analgesic effects
Antipyretic
Anti inflammatory
Blood thinner
Headaches
NOT FOR CONTACT SPORTS 
Decrease clotting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

NSAID uses

A 
Analgesic effects
Antipyretic
Anti inflammatory
Good for menstrual cramps, somatic pain, soft tissue injury.
NOT GOOD FOR HEADACHES
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Beta Blockers uses

A

Decrease BP used for hypertension - relaxes vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Apophysitis “Severs Disease” is what?

A

A bony outgrowth at the calcaneus where the achilles tendon attaches.
Tx. Ice, rest, achilles stretch, NSAID, heel lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Pronation often indicates what type of arch?

A

Pes Planus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Supination often indicates what kind of arch?

A

Pes Cavus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Anteversion of the hip means what?

A

Internal Rotation of hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Retroversion of the hip means?

A

External rotation of the hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Measuring Anatomical Leg Length Descrepancy. Name the landmarks.

A

ASIS - Med. Patella - Med. Malleoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Measuring Functional Leg Length Discrepancy. Name the landmarks.

A

Umbillicus (navel) - Lat.Condyle of knee - Med. Malleoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Name the Rotator Cuff Muscles (4)

A
  1. Supraspinatus
  2. Infraspinatus
  3. Teres Minor
  4. Subscapularis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How many degrees of shoulder flexion/extension?

A

FLX - 180

EXT - 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How many degrees of shoulder ABD/ADD?

A

ABD - 180

ADD - 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How many degrees of shoulder IR/ER?

A

IR - 90

ER - 90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Define Bankart Lesion?

A

Anterior defect of the labrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Define Hill Sachs Lesion

A

Posterior lateral defect of the labrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Define SLAP lesion

A

Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Formula for calculating Max Heart Rate?

A

Max HR = 220 - Age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Ely’s test is used to check?

A

Tight rectus femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Ober’s test?

A

Tight IT band or Tensor Fascia Latae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Thomas Test?

A

Tight hip flexors/ilopsoas/rectus femoris/IT band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Craigs test?

A

Anteversion and retroversion of the hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

FABER Test

A

Hip is in Flexion ABD and External Rotation

SacroIliac joint, ilopsoas, hip flexor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Scour test

A

Osteoarthritis of the knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Trendelenberg

A

Gluteus Medius/hip abd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Slocum test

A

15 degrees ER foot placement tests for anteromedial instability of the knee.
30 degrees IR tests for anterolateral instability of knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Apleys Compression Test

A

Meniscal tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

McMurrays Test

A

Meniscus Tear. “Figure “U” with the knee to search for popping and pain”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Clarkes Sign Test

A

Patellar Chondromalacia
VMO weakness
Patellar tracking issue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Nobel Compression test

A

Tight IT Band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Talar Tilt Test

A

ADD - Calcaneofibular ligament tear

ABD - Deltoid ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Homan’s Sign

A

Deep Vein Thrombosis DVT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Lateral Ligaments of Anke. 3 Important

A

Anterotalofibular, Calcaneofibular, Posterior calcaneofibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Medial ligament of ankle important (1)

A

Deltoid ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Thompson Test

A

Integrity of Achilles Tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Yergasons Test

A

Pain in bicipital groove. Indicative of bicipital tendinitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Speeds Test

A

Long head of biceps brachii. Bicep muscle or tendon pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Neers Test

A

Impingement of supraspinatus with the subacromial space

106
Q

Empty Can Test

A

Supraspinatus pathology

107
Q

Adsons Test

A

Thoracic Outlet Syndrome. Scalenes impinging subclavian artery

108
Q

Roos Test

A

Thoracic Outlet Syndrome. Subclavian Artery impingement

109
Q

How do you test for Lateral Epicondylitis? Positioning.

A

Pt. elbow flexed with wrist extension.

110
Q

Positioning for Medial Epicondylitis.

A

Elbow extension with wrist flexion

111
Q

Finkelsteins Test

A

Tensosynovitis of the Extensor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis. Dequervains Syndrome

112
Q

Phalens Test

A

Carpal Tunnel

113
Q

HIPPA

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

114
Q

Muscle Grading 2

A

Complete ROM some assistance no gravity

115
Q

TBI

A

Traumatic Brain Injury

116
Q

Special Test for DVT

A

Homan’s Sign

117
Q

Chondromalacia

A

Articular cartilage softening

118
Q

Wrist Ganglion

A

Synovial Cyst, herniation of joint capsule, synovial sheath of tendon

119
Q

Uncomplicated Crown fracture

A

Small portion of tooth broken, no bleeding and pulp chamber is not exposed

120
Q

Dupuytren’s Contracture

A

Nodules in palmar aponeurosis that limit finger extension

121
Q

ECG of Heart (T-Wave)

A

Ventricular repolarization

122
Q

DeQuervain’s Disease

A

Stenosing Tenosynovitis in the thumb

Finkelsteins Test

123
Q

ECG of Heart Time

124
Q

Complicated Crown fracture

A

Portion of tooth fractured, bleeding, pulp chamber is exposed. Very painful

125
Q

Elbow Osteochondritis Dissecans

A

Impairment of blood supply to anterior surfaces causes fragmentation of portion of articular cartilage and bone. 10-15 yr old throwers or raquet sports

126
Q

Domains of AT (6)

A

Prevention, clincal eval and dx, immediate care, tx, admin, professional responsibility

127
Q

Spooning or Depression nails (Koilonychia)

A

Thyroid, iron, anemia

128
Q

Dermaphytes

129
Q

Bacterial or Viral? MRSA

130
Q

Bacterial or Viral? Impetigo Contagiosa

131
Q

Bacterial or Viral? Furuncles (boils)

132
Q

Bacterial or Viral? Carbuncles

133
Q

Bacterial or Viral? Folliculitis

134
Q

Bacterial or Viral? Paranychia/Onychia

135
Q

Bacterial or Viral? Tetanus

136
Q

Bacterial or Viral? Acne Vulgaris

137
Q

Kiebocks Disease

A

Insufficient blood supply to the lunate

138
Q

Urinalysis results for Dehydration

A

Specific gravity high amount

139
Q

Bishops/Benediction hand

A

Ulnar nerve pathology “ulnar claw”

140
Q

ECG of heart (P Wave)

A

atrial depolarization

141
Q

Otitis Media

A

Redness and swelling of tympanic membrane

142
Q

Tx: of ruptured tympanic membrane

A

Control bleeding and refer to physician

143
Q

Panners Disease

A

Osteochondritis in children younger than 10

144
Q

Ape Hand

A

Median Nerve pathology

Inability to ABD thumb

145
Q

MOI of dislocated lunate

A

Forced hyperextension of wrist

146
Q

FERPA

A

Family Education Rights and Privacy Act

147
Q

Drop Wrist

A

Radial Nerve Pathology

148
Q

Muscle Grading 0

A

No muscle contraction palpated

149
Q

Nonfeasance

A

Not doing what should have been done

150
Q

Spondylothesis

A

Spinal disorder in which the vertebra slips forward onto the bone below it. L5/S1 common. Occurs mostly with women

151
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

A

Compression of median nerve
numbness of thumb, index, middle finger, and thumb
Phalens Test

152
Q

Cystitis

A

Inflammation or infection of the bladder

153
Q

Radiculitis

A

Inflammation of spinal nerve root

154
Q

NOCSAE

A

National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment

155
Q

Bacterial or Viral? Herpes Simplex

156
Q

Bacterial or Viral? Labialis

157
Q

Bacterial or Viral? Gladioterum

158
Q

Bacterial or Viral?Herpes Zoster

159
Q

Urinalysis Results for Diabetes

A

High in blood sugar (glucose)

160
Q

Swan Neck Deformity

A

Avulsion of volar plate

Hyperextension of PIP and Flexion of DIP

161
Q

Spondylolysis

A

Degeneration of vertibrae - defect in the pars articularis

162
Q

Urethritis

A

Symptoms of gonorrhea, chlamydia, herpes, and bacterial infections

163
Q

Anterior Compartment of leg

A

Tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, and peroneal tertius

164
Q

Lateral Compartment of leg

A

Fibularis longus and brevis

165
Q

Posterior compartment of leg

A

Tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, and popliteus

166
Q

Superficial posterior compartment of leg

A

Gastrocnemius, soleus, plantaris

167
Q

Epidural Hematoma

A

Tear of meningeal arteries, LOC, Medical Emergency

S/S - nausea, decreased pulse/respiration, dizziness

168
Q

Alkylosis

A

Decreased blood pH

169
Q

Periostitis

A

Inflammation of the bone covering

170
Q

Sub dural Hematoma

A

Acceleration/deceleration force that tear vessels that bridge dura mater. Dilation of one pupil. Med Emergency

171
Q

Comotio Cordis

A

Tramautic blunt impact to chest

Repolarization phase of T wave

172
Q

HMO

A

Health Maintenance Organization

173
Q

OSHA

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

174
Q

Boutonniere Deformity

A

Ruptures extensor tendon dorsal to middle phalanx

PIP Flexion and DIP Hyperextension

175
Q

CAATE

A

Commission on Accreditation of Athletic Training Education

176
Q

Urinalysis results for UTI

A

High hemoglobin

177
Q

Muscle grading 3

A

Complete ROM against gravity with no resistance

178
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

Inflammation of bone marrow

179
Q

Urinalysis of general infection

A

High RBC’s

180
Q

ECG of Heart (QRS complex)

A

Ventrical depolarization and atrial repolarization

181
Q

Mallet finger

A

Extensor tendon avulsion

182
Q

TFCC

A

Triangular Fibro Cartilage Complex
Pain on ulnar side of wrist, clicking/catching sensation.
Forced hyperextension of wrist

183
Q

Malfeasance

A

Acting outside legal boundaries

184
Q

Claw hand

A

Compression of median and ulnar nerves

185
Q

Anti-tussin

A

Anti cough

186
Q

Muscle Grading 1

A

evidence of slight muscular contraction - no joint motion

187
Q

Apophysitis

A

inflammation of bony outgrowth

188
Q

Hyperplasia

A

increase muscle fiber amount

189
Q

CT Scan

A

Computed Tomography Scan

190
Q

CPM

A

Continuous Passive Motion

191
Q

Meningitis

A

inflammation of brain and spinal cord

192
Q

Anti-pyruvic

A

Anti inflammation

193
Q

Misfeasance

A

Acting inside legal boundaries in an incorrect fashion

194
Q

Jersey Finger

A

Rupture of the flexor digitorum profundus

195
Q

Chopart’s Joint

A

Metatarsal Joint consisting of two distinct joints. Calcaneocuboid and talonavicular joint

196
Q

Clubbing or cyanotic nails

A

Congenital heart disorder or chronic respiratory disease

197
Q

Muscle Grading 5

A

Complete ROM against gravity with maximal resistance

198
Q

Muscle grading 4

A

Complete ROM against gravity with moderate resistance

199
Q

Ridging of nails

A

Nutritional deficiencies

200
Q

The Year NATA was formed

201
Q

Slump Test

A

Sciatic type pain

202
Q

Valsalvas Manuever

A

Herniated disk

203
Q

Jerk Test

A

“clunk” at 30 degrees of flexion while being extended. Anterolateral rotary instability

204
Q

Nobles Compression Test

A

IT band tightness

205
Q

Talar tilt (eversion)

A

Tear of deltoid ligament

206
Q

Q Angle Test

A

Normal Female 18 degrees
Male - 13 degrees
Patellofemoral pathology

207
Q

Godfrey 90/90

A

PCL instability

208
Q

Craigs Test

A

> 15 degrees toeing in, femoral anteversion, squinting patellae

209
Q

Apley’s Test

A

Compression - meniscal

Traction - ligamentus

210
Q

Slocum Test with External Rotation

A

Anteromedial rotary instability - secondary to MCL, ACL, and posteromedial capsule

211
Q

90-90 Straight leg raise test

A

Knee flexed >20 degrees = tight hamstrings

212
Q

Milgram Test

A

Low back pain @hip flexion 70 degrees - lumbar spine

213
Q

Kernigs/Brudzinski Sign

A

Pt. Supine. 90/90 knee is extended until pain.

Indicative of meningeal irritation, nerve root impingement

214
Q

Hip Scour test

A

Hip joint pathology - arthritis, osteochondral defects, acetabular labrum defects

215
Q

Thomas Test

A

Tight iliopsoas and or tight rectus femoris

216
Q

Clarke’s Sign

A

Chondromalacia

217
Q

Spring Test

A

Increase/decrease in motion in one veterbra - hyper/hypomobility fracture

218
Q

Medial/lateral grind test

A

Meniscal tear - pain,clicking, grinding

219
Q

Sweep Test

A

Intracapsular swelling. Knee

220
Q

Interdigital Neuroma Test

A

Mortons Neuroma - pain between metatarsal heads

221
Q

Thompson Test

A

Upon squeezing calf foot does not plantar flex - achilles tendon rupture

222
Q

Leg length discrepancy. How much?

A

Difference of >1 cm - abnormal pelvic positioning

223
Q

Ballotable Patella (Tap test)

A

Severe joint effusion

224
Q

Talar Tilt Inversion

A

Tear of calcaneofibular ligament

225
Q

Pivot Shift Test

A

“Clunk” at 20-30 degrees of flexion - anterolateral instability

226
Q

Gaenslens Test

227
Q

Trendelenberg Test

A

Pelvis on unsupported side drops - weak gluteus medius

228
Q

Wells SLR Test

A

Pain on involved side - vertebral disk damage

229
Q

McMurrays Grind test

A

Click along medial joint line - med. meniscal tear

Lat. joint line - lat. meniscal tear

230
Q

Stork Test

A

Spondylolysis

231
Q

Ely’s Test

A

Tight rectus femoris

232
Q

Total Quality Mgmt

A

A continuous focus on the needs and desires of clients.

233
Q

Personal Power

A

The power a person has due to person characteristics and personality attributes

234
Q

Entrepreneurial Role

A

AT who designs and initiates changes for their program and organization

235
Q

Hawthorne effect

A

people change their behavior because they know they are being studied

236
Q

Scientific mgmt

A

Mgmt theories from the 1900’s that emphasized on strict control of work in order to maximize production through increased efficiency

237
Q

Transactional leadership

A

simple exchange of one thing for another in a relationship between two people

238
Q

Analytical Listening

A

AT listens for specific info so they may convey that info. Pt. says they heard pop in knee…AT may convey ACL

239
Q

MGMT

A

element of the leadership process that involves planning, decision making and coordinating the activities of a group of people working toward a common goal

240
Q

Transformational leadership

A

transcends day to day administrative requirements of operating an ATEP by elevating standards through the creative use of change and conflict

241
Q

Interpersonal Roles

A

A managerial role emanating from the possession of formal authority, that requires the manager to interact and form relationships with others in the organization.

242
Q

Spokesperson Role

A

an informational role that requires communication with organizational influencers and members of the organization’s public

243
Q

Leadership

A

the process of influencing the behavior and attitudes of others to achieve intended outcomes

244
Q

Legitimacy

A

a check on the athletic trainer’s scope of authority

245
Q

Power

A

The potential to influence

246
Q

Decision Roles

A

AT is required to use both personal and position power by exercising authority by planning strategies to serve clients better

247
Q

Honeymoon effect

A

the period of time usually immediately after arriving in a new position, in which persons are more likely to be granted extra authority to make decisions

248
Q

Unity of Command

A

where a single supervisor directs the work of an employee

249
Q

Zone of Indifference

A

Hypothetical boundary of legitimacy outside of which requests or orders will be met with mere compliance or refusal.

250
Q

Interference

A

anything that distorts the message from the sender to the reciever

251
Q

Counterpower

A

the ability to influence the behavior of a superior

252
Q

Spending ceiling model budget

A

Requires justification for expenditures exceeding that of the previous year. Con is that inflation can cause an issue

253
Q

Spending reduction model budget

A

Required to reduce budget to preserve institutional funds. Requires creativity to work with low funds

254
Q

Zero-based budgeting

A

Must justify every expense without reference to previous spending patterns. Tool for developing priorities in a program

255
Q

Fixed budgeting

A

Project both expenditures and program income to determine total costs and revenues for the fiscal year. Only appropriate for income-oriented programs. (not school based)

256
Q

Variable budgeting

A

Requires that expenditures be adjusted according to revenues. not for school based programs

257
Q

Lump-sum budgeting

A

Fixed total amount of money to be spent wherever the AT sees fit. Administrators hold ATs accountable

258
Q

Line-item budgeting

A

List anticipated expenditures for specific categories of sub functions. Limited flexibility for midyear crisis because funds cannot be easily transferred between categories

259
Q

Performance Budgeting

A

Breaks down functions of program into activity costs. Pre game prep, emergency first aid, rehab, etc. Difficult to analyze expenses per activities.

260
Q

Jones fracture

A

Fracture of the meta diaphyseal junction of the 5th metatarsal of the foot.

261
Q

Les Franc fracture/dislocation

A

Pathology to the tarsometatarsal - midfoot.

Upper Extremities (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions